Final Review Flashcards

1
Q

T/F horses will always erupt 4 wolf teeth

A

FALSE

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2
Q

the space between incisors and premolars is known as what

A

bars

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3
Q

baby/milk teeth are referred to as what

A

deciduous teeth

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4
Q

T/F corner incisors are present at birth

A

FALSE

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5
Q

T/F permanent teeth are shorter, lighter, and have a defined neck joint connecting root and gum

A

FALSE

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6
Q

deciduous teeth are typically shed in what season

A

fall

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7
Q

T/F by the start of 4 1/2 years horse should have complete set of permanent teeth

A

TRUE

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8
Q

the extra set of pre molars are known as what

A

wolf teeth

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9
Q

the pits in the center of the teeth which gradually disappear with age are called what

A

cups

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10
Q

what develops around 10 yrs old, extends down and reaches bottom at 20 then travels back up and is gone by 30

A

galvaynes groove

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11
Q

indications of needing an oral exam

A

weight loss
eating with tilted head
increased whole grain in feces
partially chewed and dropped food

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12
Q

rasping down sharp edges of molars is known as what

A

floating

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13
Q

leading cause of tooth loss in horse

A

periodontal disease

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14
Q

T/F overbite is also known as monkey mouth

A

TRUE

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15
Q

breed with ancient roots, Arabian bloodline, chestnut with flaxen points, well suited to riding and light draft work

A

haflinger

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16
Q

how many inches in a hand

A

4

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17
Q

stock horse breeds

A

quarterhorse
appaloosa
paint

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18
Q

T/F if a horse is 15 hands tall its considered a pony

A

FALSE

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19
Q

largest demographic of horses fall into what breed category

A

light horse

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20
Q

Arabians and akhal-tekes and morgans are examples of what breed category

A

light horses

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21
Q

what does DQP stand for

A

designated qualified person

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22
Q

which demographic of horses are most heavily pronounced in the FEI category of competitive equine events

A

warmbloods

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23
Q

example of a German breed

A

Hanoverians

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24
Q

T/F a pace is a 2-beat lateral gait moving both hind and front leg simultaneously

A

TRUE

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25
Q

T/F the jockey club does not allow AI

A

TRUE

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26
Q

what gaits aside from walk, trot, and canter is shown in the saddlebred 5 gaited class

A

rack
slow gait

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27
Q

names for navicular disease

A

palmer heel pain
palmer foot pain
caudal heel syndrom
podotrochlear syndrom

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28
Q

gold standard for navicular disease diagnosis

A

MRIs

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29
Q

a hoof with gray/white matter that is soft and spongy is a condition known as what

A

canker

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30
Q

a hoof infection that escapes at the coronary band is called what

A

gravel

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31
Q

ingestion of significant amounts of non-structural carbohydrates causes inflammation that sometimes leads to what

A

laminitis

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32
Q

T/F gravel is a type of hoof abcess

A

TRUE

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33
Q

how should thrush be treated

A

keep dry and clean
copper sulfate solution
chlorine dioxide

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34
Q

T/F canker is more common northwestern US

A

FALSE

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35
Q

T/F x-rays are the best choice when investigating navicular syndrome

A

FALSE

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36
Q

T/F a horse with laminitis would have tightly interlocked laminae

A

FALSE

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37
Q

how will a complicated hoof crack be treated

A

acrylic repair

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38
Q

what can make a horse prone to thrush

A

moist environment
poor foot conformation
lack of routine trimming
lack of exercise

39
Q

evaluation of the horse as sound within a specific event is referred to as what

A

form to function

40
Q

the horse has how many bones on average

A

205

41
Q

compact shaft of the bone is called what

A

diaphysis

42
Q

the end of each bone(top and bottom) is called what

A

epiphysis

43
Q

fibrous connective tissue covering bone is called what

A

periosteum

44
Q

T/F periosteum protects bone and is the major site of healing

A

TRUE

45
Q

hollow chamber filled with connective tissue(bone marrow) is called what

A

medullary cavity

46
Q

T/F when a foal is born bone is fully mineralized and is only at cartilage stage as a fetus

A

FALSE

47
Q

qualities of remodeling

A

occurs at periosteum
helps accommodate growth
response to stress on bone
bone growth in width

48
Q

the croup refers to what portion of the spinal column

A

sacral

49
Q

synovial and fibrous membrane are housed where

A

joint capsule

50
Q

connective tissue extending from bone to bone is called what

A

ligaments

51
Q

T/F splint bones have several crucial jobs within the horses leg

A

FALSE

52
Q

what is the definition of unsoundness

A

defects in form or function that interfere with the usefulness of the horse

53
Q

definition of blemish

A

acquired physical defect that does not interfere with the usefulness of the horse

54
Q

bone growth or exostosis in pastern or coffin joint of a horse is called what

A

ringbone

54
Q

bony enlargement on inside of front leg caused by nodular ossification of the bone

A

splints

55
Q

common conformation issue often seen in draft horses

A

cow hocked

56
Q

T/F horses travel the opposite of their conformation

A

TRUE

57
Q

which front leg conformational issue would cause the most concussion over time

A

calf-kneed

58
Q

T/F overbite is also known as monkey mouth

A

FALSE

59
Q

5 basic coat colors

A

white
black
red
brown
bay

60
Q

T/F buckskin will never have a dorsal stripe

A

TRUE

61
Q

what coat color is diluted from chestnut. bright copper with white mane and tail

A

palomino

62
Q

paint horse with white over the back/lots of white is called what

A

tobiano

63
Q

dilution from bay coat with dorsal stripe is called what

A

dun

64
Q

a group of animals that have certain distinguishable characteristics such as function, conformation, and color are called what

A

breed

65
Q

group of middleweight horses-aim to select for equestrian sport horses, very pronounced FEI

A

warmbloods

66
Q

draft horses and ponies should be classified as what category with a calm temperament

A

cold bloods

67
Q

T/F horses survived prehistoric times in North America around 13,000 years ago

A

FALSE

68
Q

T/F domestication of the horse first happened in the steppes region within Asia

A

TRUE

69
Q

T/F you should call the vet for a horse with a 100.5 F fever

A

FALSE

70
Q

T/F banamine is commonly used to treat fevers

A

TRUE

71
Q

what is a healthy heart rate for aa adult horse at rest

A

28-40 bpm

72
Q

how many gallons of water does a mature resting horse consume on average

A

10-12 gallons

73
Q

T/F pink gums and capillary refill time of 1 second is considered healthy

A

TRUE

74
Q

directional term for the top of the horse

A

dorsal

75
Q

directional term for the nose of the horse

A

rostral

76
Q

what can mucous color tell you about the horse

A

congestion
jaundice
shock

77
Q

dull and sunken eyes indicate the horse has already lost how much body weight from dehydration

A

4-5%

78
Q

what can straining during urination indicate

A

muscular disorder
nervous system disorder
kidney disease
bladder infection

79
Q

T/F constipation leads to impaction colic

A

TRUE

80
Q

how much will water intake increase for lactating mares

A

75%

81
Q

yellowing of skin and eyes is known as what

A

Jaundice

82
Q

what does CRT stand for

A

capillary refill time

83
Q

how many breaths per minute will a mature resting horse have

A

8-16

84
Q

a newborn foal has a common heartrate of what

A

80-120

85
Q

T/f excess phosphorous causes big head disease

A

TRUE

86
Q

how much of the total digestive tract does the stomach make up

A

10%

87
Q

where is starch mostly absorbed

A

the SI

88
Q

what is cellulose absorbed as in the hindgut

A

VFAs

89
Q

T/F animals are able to use VFAs for energy and can be obtained from the degradation of different feedstuffs

A

TRUE

90
Q

what does HYPP stand for

A

hyperkalemic periodic paralysis

91
Q

T/F when starch spills a over into the cecum its known as CHO overload

A

TRUE

92
Q

deficiency of which vitamin can cause night blindness

A

A