FINAL MCAT PREP Flashcards

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1
Q

Humanistic approach

A

emphasizes the study of the whole person and the uniqueness of every individual

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2
Q

Interoceptive awareness

A

Interoceptive awareness involves sensitivity to increases in activity of autonomic nervous system (e.g. heart beat, blood pressure)

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3
Q

Reticular activation system

A

is a set of connected nuclei in the brains of vertebrates that is responsible for regulating wakefulness and sleep-wake transitions

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4
Q

Limbic system

A

a set of brain structures located on both sides of the thalamus, immediately beneath the cerebrum; includes amygdala, hippocampus, hypothalamus, etc.

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5
Q

Autonomic vs. Somatic Nervous systems

A

Somatic - voluntary, Autonomic - involuntary (e.g. breathing, HR, etc)

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6
Q

Damage to which nervous system structure can cause problems w/ ability to perform synchronous behaviors?

A

Cerebellum (associated w/ execution of a coordinated motor task)

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7
Q

Behaviorist theory

A

focuses on the role of reinforcement and punishment in shaping behavior (think: BF Skinner)

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8
Q

How to determine validity (scientific acceptability) of variables chosen for studies?

A

If a self-report measure and behavioral measure are positively correlated, this would support the validity of the self-report measure

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9
Q

Content Analysis

A

a sociological method that is used to make inferences about communication; could help determine which beliefs an organization publically emphasizes and how it frames issues to the broader public

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10
Q

Class Systems

A

universal phenomenon denoting a category or group of persons having a definite status in society which permanently determines their relation to other groups

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11
Q

Caste Systems

A

describe CLOSED stratification systems that do not allow for social mobility

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12
Q

Economic Systems

A

e.g. socialism or capitalism

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13
Q

Front stage self

A

in dramaturgical approach, the setting where players are inf ront of an audience and perform roles that are in keeping w/ the image they hope to project about themselves

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14
Q

Back stage self

A

in the dramaturgical approach, the setting where players are free from their role requirements and not in front of the audience; back stage may not be appropriate behaviors or acceptable and thus kept invisible from the audience

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15
Q

Cultural transmission

A

the way a group of people or animals within a society or culture tend to learn and pass on information

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16
Q

What aspect of a person’s cognitive ability does aging NOT diminish?

A

The ability to retrieve general information

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17
Q

Wechsler Scales of Intelligence (WISC)

A

based on the standardization system used to score IQ, this scoring system is “normalized” to a mean of 100 and a standard deviation of 15; so 68% of the scores will fall between 85 and 115

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18
Q

Sensory memory

A

visual (iconic) and auditory (echoic) stimuli briefly stored in memory; fades quickly unless attention is paid to the information

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19
Q

Sociological paradigm of conflict theory

A

calls attention to competition among social groups, including generational conflict; conflict theorist would be interested in explaining how political power varies by generational status and thus affects allocation of social resources

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20
Q

Dependency ratio

A

ratio of the number of economically dependent members of a population to the number of economically productive members; economically dependent are those considered too young or too old to work, whereas economically productive are the working-age population

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21
Q

Social gradient in health

A

refers to the fact that inequalities in population health status are related to inequalities in social status

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22
Q

Life course perspective

A

refers to an approach developed in the 1960s for analyzing people’s lives within structural, social, and cultural contexts

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23
Q

Intersectionality of medicine

A

Overlapping areas of discrimination; such as patients who have multiple characteristics that are discriminated against; e.g. african american female practicing buddhist teachings (3 areas of discrimination, possibly, including sex/gender, race/culture, religious, and there’s the INTERSECTION of the 3 diff’t areas)

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24
Q

If a physician assumes a new patient is not well educated and thus less knowledgeable about health issues, is this discrimination?

A

No, the scenario describes an attitude but does not specify differential treatment

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25
Q

How to determine if discriminatory?

A

If there is an action or behavior that indicates differential treatment or behavior

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26
Q

social Loafing

A

refers to the fact that people are more productive alone than in a group; individuals are also less critical and less creative in a group

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27
Q

What affects groupthink?

A

If a group has an interpersonal connection (group of friends), they would be motivated to engage in discussion; would lead to fewer groupthink symptoms than the social identity groups

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28
Q

Stages of classical conditioning paradigm

A

First is acquisition phase of the fear conditioning paradigm; in which the stimulus that is neutral w/ respect to response is associated w/ an unconditioned stimulus multiple times until the neutral stimulus elicits the conditioned response

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29
Q

Beta-amyloid plaques

A

will not allow for increased connection between neurons in the brains of genetically modified mice

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30
Q

Neurofibrillary tangles

A

aggregates of hyperphosphorylated tau protein that are most commonly known as a primary marker of Alzheimer’s disease

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31
Q

Cognitive-behavioral therapy

A

can address smoking behaviors through systematic modification of individual behavior and self-assessments; addresses maladaptive behaviors thru behavioral therapy to systematically modify a person’s behavior; followed by sessions designed to foster cognitivie change, through self-assessments

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32
Q

What might a structural functionalist think of yoga to treat smoking addiction?

A

the utility of yoga as an effective smoking cessation therapy is an unintended, though beneficial, outcome of yoga practice; this describes a LATENT, OR UNINTENDED function

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33
Q

Functionalism (social paradigm)

A

makes a distinction between manifest, or intended, and latent, or unintended functions of social activities; almost all social actions have both manifest functions and latent functions, both of which are connected to overall social stability

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34
Q

Proximal stimulus

A

the stimulus registered by the sensory receptors (e.g. pattern of light falling on the retina)

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35
Q

Distal stimulus

A

An object which provides information for the proximal stimulus; the proximal stimulus registers the information

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36
Q

Law of similarity

A

Like-things are grouped together

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37
Q

Psychophysical discrimination testing

A

directly assess our perception of stimuli in relation to their true physical properties; the nature of the illusions discussed in the passage suggest that individuals may be prone to over- or under-state the size of items

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38
Q

Context effects

A

the context in which stimuli are presented and the processes of perceptual organization contribute to how stimuli are organized

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39
Q

Flashbulb memory

A

memory phenomenon in which people claimed to remember details of what they were doing when they received news about an emotionally arousing event

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40
Q

False memory

A

false memories can be observed both in real-world and laboratory settings, and they are generally given with high confidence

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41
Q

Operational definition of motivational state in operant conditioning

A

depriving the subject of some desirable stimulus for a period of time

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42
Q

Life course perspective

A

a holistic perspective that calls attention to developmental processes and other experiences across a person’s life

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43
Q

Statistical adjustment

A

refers to controlling for variables that could affect the relationship between the independent and dependent variables

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44
Q

Sensitive period

A

also referred to as critical period; identifies a point in early development that can have significant influence on physiological or behavioral functioning in later life

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45
Q

Modeling

A

learning which behaviors are acceptable by watching others perform them;

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46
Q

Incentive theory

A

calls attention to how factors outside of individuals, including community values and other aspects of culture, can motivate behavior

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47
Q

Social epidemiology

A

focuses on the contribution of social and cultural factors to disease patterns in populations; supplements biomedical approach because it is a subfield of epidemiology

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48
Q

How can one provide more culturally-competent care?

A

Using cultural relativism rather than ethnocentrism; must be aware of one’s own cultural standards and biases

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49
Q

Cultural relativism

A

raises awareness of the fact that cultures have different standards and biases

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50
Q

Intersectionality

A

calls attention to how identity categories intersect in systems of social stratification; e.g. an individual’s position w/in a social hierarchy is determined not only by his/her social class, but also by his/her race/ethnicity; can also refer to intersections involving other identity categories such as age, gender, or sexual orientation

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51
Q

What sociological paradigm is most consistent with a study of healthcare providers showing rapport, empathy, and navigating disagreements w/ their patients

A

symbolic interactionism; examines small scale (or micro level) social interactions, focusing attention on how shared meaning is established among individuals or small groups

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52
Q

Looking glass self

A

suggests that the self-concept is influenced by how we perceive that others are viewing us; a person who acquires a stigmatized illness is likely to internalize the stigmatization directed against him or her

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53
Q

MRI

A

test that uses a magnetic field and pulses of radio wave energy to make pictures of organs and structures inside the body

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54
Q

fMRI

A

imaging technique that measures brain activity by detecting changes in blood flow

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55
Q

CT

A

makes use of computer-processed combinations of many X-ray measurements taken from different angles to produce cross-sectional (tomographic) images (virtual “slices”) of specific areas of a scanned object, allowing the user to see inside the object without cutting

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56
Q

PET

A

nuclear medicine functional imaging to observe metabolic processes in the body; If the biologically active molecule chosen for PET is fludeoxyglucose (FDG), an analogue of glucose, the concentrations of tracer imaged will indicate tissue metabolic activity as it corresponds to the regional glucose uptake

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57
Q

What are the components of the reward system?

A

Nucleus accumbens, hypothalamus, amygdala

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58
Q

Universal emotions

A

fear, anger, surprise, happiness, disgust, and sadness

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59
Q

Place theory

A

posits that one is able to hear different pitches because diff’t sound waves trigger activity at different places along the cochlea’s basilar membrane (not a visual concept)

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60
Q

5 Components of Language

A

Phonology (actual sound of language), Pragmatics (language based on context), Syntax (forming sentences), Morphology (structure of words), Semantics (associate meaning and word)

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61
Q

3 theories of language

A

Nativist (biological), Learning (social), Interactionist (combination of both)

62
Q

Whorfian Hypothesis/Linguistic Relativity Hypothesis

A

Language affects how we think

63
Q

Broca’s area

A

controls speech function (in left hemisphere in brain)

64
Q

Wernicke’s area

A

Language comprehension component of left hemisphere of brain

65
Q

Broca’s Aphasia

A

EXPRESSIVE aphasia; speech comprehension is intact, but reduced ability to produce spoken language

66
Q

Wernicke’s Aphasia

A

RECEPTIVE aphasia; fluency of speech retained, but comprehension of speech is lost

67
Q

Conduction aphasia

A

due to damage between connection of broca’s and wernicke’s areas – speech production and comprehension intact but connection is lost

68
Q

Prosencephalon

A

Forebrain; complex perceptual cognitive, and behavioral processes

69
Q

Mesencephalon

A

midbrain (sensorimotor reflexes)

70
Q

Rhombencephalon

A

Hindbrain; balance, motor coordination, breathing & digestion (more rudimentary functions)

71
Q

Medulla oblongata

A

part of hindbrain; regulates breathing, heart beat, and blood pressure

72
Q

Pons

A

part of hindbrain; relays info and regulates sleep

73
Q

Cerebellum

A

part of hindbrain; regulates POSTURE, BALANCE, BODY MOVEMENTS

74
Q

Superior colliculus

A

relays visual sensory input; part of midbrain

75
Q

Inferior colliculus

A

relays AUDITORY sensory input; part of midbrain

76
Q

rCBF

A

detects blood flow to parts of the brain

77
Q

4 major components of diencephalon

A

Diencephalon is part of forebrain; comprised of THALAMUS, HYPOTHALAMUS, PINEAL GLAND, and POSTERIOR PITUITARY

78
Q

Key components of limbic system

A

Hippocampus and Amygdala

79
Q

Pineal Gland

A

secretes melatoning to regulate sleep cycle

80
Q

Aprazia

A

lack of awareness of certain body parts and/or surrounding space; due to issues with PARIETAL lobe

81
Q

Ego-syntonic

A

When the patient doesn’t see an issue w/ their condition; vs. ego-dystonic when a person is aware that their condition (GAD, for example) is intrusive and negatively affects their life

82
Q

Borderline personality disorder

A

splitting as a defense mechanism; people are all good or all bad

83
Q

Histrionic PD

A

characterized by constant attention-seeking behavior; individuals often wear colorful clothing, are dramatic, and are exceptionally extroverted; may also use seductive behavior to get attention; e.g. Bella Thorne is textbook case

84
Q

Neurulation

A

occurs when the notochord causes differentiation of overlying ectoderm into the neural tube and neural crest cells

85
Q

Neural tube (fate)

A

utlimately becomes the central nervous system (Brain and spinal cord); and neural crest cells migrate to other sites in the body to differentiate into a number of different tissues

86
Q

Name the catecholamines

A

Epinephrine, Norepinephrine, Dopamine

87
Q

Babinski reflex

A

fanning of toes; it’s is a primitive reflex displayed by babies; normal in adults would be NOT Babinski reflex, and toes should curl in

88
Q

Instinctive Drift

A

If a desired behavior goes against the instincts of the animal, less likely to adopt the behavior; SHOULD NOT RUN COUNTER TO THE ANIMAL’S NATURAL INSTINCTS

89
Q

Self-reference effect

A

information that is most meaningful/personally relevant to an individual is most likely to be memorized

90
Q

Partial report procedures:

A

in which an individual is asked to recall a specific portion of the stimulus; incredibly accurate but only for a brief time

91
Q

State-dependent recall

A

concerned w/ internal rather than external states of the individual

92
Q

What type of memory do the elderly have most trouble with?

A

Time-based prospective memory, which is remembering to do an activity at a particular time

93
Q

Gardner’s theory of intelligence

A

7 multiple intelligences; linguistic, logical-mathematical, musical, visual-spatial, bodily-kinesthetic, interpersonal, intrapersonal intelligences

94
Q

Cognitive process theory

A

theory of dreaming stating that dreams and thoughts during wakeful periods use the same stream-of-consciousness system

95
Q

Neurocognitive theory

A

concerened w/ the subjective experience of dreaming and the physiology of dreaming

96
Q

In which sleep stages does dreaming occur?

A

Stage 3, Stage 4, and REM

97
Q

3 components of emotion

A

physiological, cognitive, behavioral

98
Q

Instinct theory

A

theory of motivation stating that we are motivated to act based on instincts that they are programmed to do

99
Q

High left frontal lobe activity is associated w/ what type of emotions?

A

Positive feelings; the right brain is associated w/ negative feelings

100
Q

Which type of conflict has least amount of stress?

A

Approach-approach (one in which both results are good choices)

101
Q

Stages of stress response

A

Alarm, Resistance, Exhaustion

102
Q

Maladaptive response to stress

A

drug use, social withdrawal, avoiding the stressor

103
Q

Androgyny

A

high femininty, high masculinity

104
Q

Self-efficacy

A

the degree to which an individual sees him or herself as being capable at a given skill or in a particular situation

105
Q

Stanford prison experiment

A

experiment involved investigating the psycohological effects of perceived power, using college students to be prisoners and guards; deindividuation, the loss of self-identity in the group setting that can lead to violent behavior; related to DEINDIVIDUATION and INTERNALIZATION

106
Q

Relationship between groupthink and risk taking

A

Groupthink causes optimism and encouragment toward risk taking

107
Q

Affective component of attitude

A

consists of feelings and emotions toward something

108
Q

Peripheral route

A

deals w/ processing info that is NOT based on content, but instead on superficial parameters such as speech patterns or appearance

109
Q

Central route

A

processing of info thru analysis of its content

110
Q

Internalization

A

type of conformity in which an individual changes her outward opinion to match the group; and also personally agrees w/ those ideas

111
Q

Four functional attitudes theories

A

knowledge, adaptability, ego expression, and egodefense

112
Q

Social action vs. social interaction

A

social action refers to effects of a group on an individual’s social behavior; social interaction refers to the effects that multiple individuals have on each other

113
Q

Pressure for conformity

A

placing spoken or unspoken expectations on individuals to agree w/ the ideas of the group

114
Q

Gesellschaft

A

Gesellschaft society; is one in which individuals are working towards the same goal, e.g. company or country

115
Q

Bureaucracy

A

defined by rigidly defined work procedures, requirement for officials to hold an advanced degree, and regular salary increases; nonelected officials, seniority rights, and promotions upon passing exams or milestones

116
Q

Strategy of aligning actions

A

providing socially acceptable reasons to explain unexpected behavior

117
Q

Alter-casting

A

imposing a role on another person

118
Q

Ingratiation

A

the use of flattery or conformity to win over someone else

119
Q

Gemeinshaften

A

communities; those that are bound together by beliefs, ancestry, or geography

120
Q

SMYLOG

A

method for analyzing group dynamics and considers groups along 3 dimensions: dominant vs. submissive, friendly vs. unfriendly, and instrumentally controlled vs. emotionally expressive

121
Q

What is similar to ought self?

A

Ought self is who others think we should be; similar to tactical self, which is the self that we present to others when we adhere to their expectations

122
Q

Basic model of emotions

A

By darwin; states that emotions serve an evolutionary purpose, and thus are similar across cultures

123
Q

Social constructionism model of emotions

A

emotions are always a product of current social situation and does not posit biological basis for emotions; implying lack of role for emotions in evolution

124
Q

Primary vs. secondary groups

A

key difference is that primary groups are formed of stronger bonds than secondary groups (e.g. warm, personal, and intimate relationships in primary)

125
Q

Cultural syndrome

A

shared set of beliefs, norms, values, and behaviors organized around a central theme, as is found among people sharing same language and geography

126
Q

master status

A

status by which an individual is primarily identifiedy

127
Q

role conflict

A

occurs when one has difficulty in satisfying the requirements of MULTIPLE ROLES SIMULTANEOUSLY (when the roles conflict)

128
Q

role strain

A

when one has difficulty satisfying multiple requirements of the SAME role simultaneously

129
Q

secure attachment

A

requires a consistent caregiver so the child is able to go out and explore, knowing that he/she has secure base to return to; child shows strong preference for the caregiver

130
Q

avoidant attachment

A

occurs when a caregiver has little/no response to a distressed, crying child; the child shows no preference for the caregiver compared to strangers

131
Q

ambivalent attachment

A

occurs when a caregiver has an inconsistent response to a child’s distress, sometimes responding appropriately, sometimes neglectful; child become distressed when caregiver leaves, and is ambivalent when he/she returns

132
Q

disorganized attachment

A

occurs when caregiver is erratic or abusive; the child shows no clear pattern of behavior in response to caregivers’ presence or absence

133
Q

polygyny

A

man w/ multiple female partners

134
Q

polyandry

A

female w/ multiple male partners

135
Q

corrsepondent inference theory

A

used to describe the attributions made by observing the intentional (especially unexpected) behaviors performed by another person

136
Q

attribute substitution

A

occurs when individuals must make judgments that are complex but instead substitute a simpler solution or heuristic

137
Q

cultural lag

A

refers to the idea that MATERIAL culture changes more quickly than symbolic culture

138
Q

ethnicity

A

social construct that sorts people by cultural factors, including language, nationality, religion and other factors

139
Q

symbolic ethnicity

A

recognition of an ethnic identity that is only relevant on special occasions or in specific circumstances and does not impact everyday life (e.g. celebrating being irish on st. patrick’s day)

140
Q

demographic transition

A

model used to represent drops in birth and death rates as a result of industrialization

141
Q

anomie

A

state of normlessness; anomic conditions erode social solidarity by means of excessive individualism, social inequality, and isolation

142
Q

social exclusion

A

sense of powerlessness when individuals feel alienated from society

143
Q

incidence

A

calculated as the number of new cases of a disease per population at risk in a given period of time; e.g. new cases per 1000 at risk people per year

144
Q

prevalence

A

calculated as the number of cases of a disease per population in a given period of time; e.g. new cases per 1000 people per year

145
Q

what would happen w/ damage to VENTROMEDIAL HYPOTHALAMUS?

A

increased food intake bc damage would prevent feeling satiated

146
Q

phenotypic benefits

A

refer to observed traits in an individual that make them more attractive to the opposite sex

147
Q

direct phenotypic benefits

A

associated w/ increased fitness through direct material advantages (e.g. more strong, protecting)

148
Q

indirect phenotypic benefits

A

involve increased genetic fitness for offspring, e.g. larger song repertoires in warblers make them more appealing to mates

149
Q

inclusive fitness

A

measure of the offspring an individual has, how they support their offspring, and how altruistic behavior can improve the fitness and success of a species

150
Q

social perception includes 3 components:

A

perceiver, target, and situation

151
Q

external vs. internal attribution

A

dispositional (internal) vs. situational (external) causes

152
Q

prejudice is the belief, what is discrimination?

A

the action