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AUDE 5160 - Anatomy > Final Exam Study Guide > Flashcards

Final Exam Study Guide Flashcards

1
Q

Briefly describe 2 important functions of the integumentary system. (State the function and give a sentence or two about how the skin serves/accomplishes that role).

A

Protection—the skin provides a protective barrier and prevents water loss. Skin protects from toxins or bacteria getting in. Skin protects us from UV exposure due to the melanocytes. Heat control—through sweat evaporating to cool us and blood vessels constricting or dilating base on our temperature Sensory receptors—the skin is filled with man receptors to pick up environmental stimuli and send information to the brain (such as touch, vibration, pain, temperature). Vitamin D—I did not mention much about this in the lecture, but when we are in the sunlight, the skin helps with production of Vitamin D needed for the absorption of calcium for health muscles and bones. Excretion- the skin helps with a small amount of excretion through sweat which excretes waste product such as urea, uric acid and other organic substances.

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2
Q

Briefly define what is meant by axial skeleton as compared to appendicular skeleton and list the basic basic structures which are part of each (you do not have to list every bone, but give a generalization).

A

The axial skeleton refers to the center or core of the body and contains the skull (head), vertebrae and ribs. The appendicular skeleton refers to the appendages (arms and legs) and consists of the shoulder, humerus and other arm and hand bones and the hip, legs and feet.

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3
Q

What is the name of the hidden lobe of the brain that deals with emotions and which can be seen above the corpus callosum on the midsagittal surface?

A

limbic lobe

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4
Q

How many cervical spinal nerves are there?

A

8

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5
Q

What type of gland in the skin produces earwax?

A

Ceruminous glands which are modified sebaceous glands
sweat glands

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6
Q

Where does the 8th cervical spinal nerve exit the vertebral column?

A

Under the cervical 7 vertebra and above the thoracic 1 vertebra

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7
Q

Cranial nerves VII and VIII enter/exit the brainstem at the

A

Pontomedullary junction (also called the cerebellopontine angle)

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8
Q

Which type of axonal transport carries matrix proteins and subcellular organelles from the soma to the terminal boutons of an axon?

A

Slow anterograde axoplasmic flow

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9
Q

Which two extrensic eye muscles are NOT innervated by CN III?

A

superior oblique (CN IV) & lateral rectus (CN VI) (LR 6 SO 4, all the rest 3)

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10
Q

Where is the insula located?

A

Behind the lateral fissure and it is covered by the overlying opercula of the frontal, parietal and temporal lobes

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11
Q

Which fissure separates the temporal lobe from the parietal and frontal lobes ?

A

lateral fissure (sylvian fissure)

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12
Q

What organelles in the cell are the site where protein synthesis occurs?

A

on free and bound ribosomes

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13
Q

The peripheral nervous system consists of…

A

the 12 pairs of CN’s and 31 pairs of spinal nerves, and the autonomic nervous system

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14
Q

What cellular organelles provides the energy or power for a cell to function?

A

mitochondria

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15
Q

describes the sodium-potassium pump?

A

The main function of the pump is to maintain the resting potential by actively moving sodium out of the cell and potassium back in to restore the proper balance.

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16
Q

What are the types of connective tissue?

A

dense (tendons and ligaments), loose (adipose), specialized (cartilage, bone)

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17
Q

List the three meningeal layers and state their location in relation to the skull and the brain tissue.

A

Pia mater is closest to the brain tissue and dips into the sulci and fissures.

Arachnoid mater is above the pia (in the middle of the PAD) and has a subarachnoid space below it with cerebrospinal fluid.

Dura mater is the thick leathery covering that is the outer most meningeal layer. It is closest to the bone of the skull.

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18
Q

describe the somatotopic mapping of the primary motor cortex and primary somatosensory cortex

A

The homunculus (representation of the body) has the head near the lateral fissure, the arm in the middle of the strip and the leg most superiorly with the leg dipping into the longitudinal fissure

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19
Q

What is the name of the lower leg muscle that attaches to the Achilles tendon, and causes pointing of the foot (as in standing on your toes) when contracted?

A

gastrocnemius

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20
Q

In anatomical position, the thumb and the radius bone are located _______________________ to the ulna and pinky/little finger.

A

lateral

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21
Q

Which region of the human skeleton refers to the central core, including the skull, sternum, vertebrae and ribs?

A

axial skeleton

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22
Q

Bones are connected to bones to form joints by what type of structures?

A

ligaments

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23
Q

What is the neurotransmitter for the neuromuscular junction?

A

acetylcholine

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24
Q

The linings of the digestive and respiratory tracts are made up of what type of body tissue?

A

mucous membrane

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25
Q

Approximately how long is the average adult ear canal?

A

2.5 cm

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26
Q

Based on the 5 important functions of cell membrane proteins, clearly describe 3 of the important functions of such proteins that are on or in the cell membranes?

A

One important function of cell membrane proteins is that they have transmembrane ion channels that determine the electrical activity of the cell.

Another important function of cell membrane proteins is that they act as enzymes to catalyze biochemical reactions.

Cell membrane proteins also act as carrier proteins to help things cross the cell membrane. These carrier proteins can either be passive or active transport. When a carrier protein is an active transporter, it requires ATP.

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27
Q

Which layer of the integumentary system is composed of dead, keratinized epithelial cells on the surface and contains melanocytes to produce melanin?

A

epidermis

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28
Q

Blood and CSF and waste products leave the venous sinuses and EXIT the skull via what vascular structures?

A

jugular veins

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29
Q

cranial nerves (numbers, names, and functions)

A

CN 1 - Olfactory, sensory, smell
CN II - Optic, sensory, vision
CN III - Occulomotor, motor, elevation and adduction of eye muscles
CN IV - Trochlear, motor, depression of adducted eye muscles
CN V - Trigeminal, mixed, facial sensation
CN VI - Abducens, motor, lateral rectus eye muscle
CN VII - Facial, mixed, taste buds and facial expressions
CN VIII - vestibulocochlear, mixed, balance and hearing
CN IX - Glossopharyngeal, mixed, taste, innervation of pharynx
CN X - Vagus, mixed, swallowing, vocal chords, GI and respiratory tracts
CN XI - Accessory, motor, neck and shoulder movement and pharynx and larynx muscles
CN XII - Hypoglossal, motor, tongue movement

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30
Q

where the cranial nerves enter or exit the brainstem

A

CN 1-4, above/around midbrain
CN 5-8, pons
7 and 8 at cerebellopontine angle
CN 9-12, medulla

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31
Q

medial side of temporal lobe that is a part of the limbic system

A

hippocampus

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32
Q

primary motor cortex

A

precentral gyrus

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33
Q

primary sensory cortex

A

postcentral gyrus

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34
Q

creates dopamine

A

substantia nigra, damage to this causes Parkinson’s

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35
Q

dominant for language involved in motor programming for speech production

A

Broca’s

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36
Q

dominant for language, involved in ability to understand and produce meaningful speech

A

Wernicke’s

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37
Q

archway that communicates with B & W areas

A

arcuate fasciculus

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38
Q

primary area for insular fibers to crossover for auditory info

A

sulcus of the CC

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39
Q

plays an auditory role

A

inferior colliculus

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40
Q

role in visual attention

A

superior colliculus

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41
Q

Draw the orientation of cochlea in IAC

A

Tic tak toe image

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42
Q

In the human ear, taking into account the head, pinna, concha and ear canal, the average overall human ear canal resonance peaks between which frequencies?

A

2,000 and 5,000 Hz

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43
Q

How does the sound reach and move through the outer ear? What function does the outer ear serve?

A

acoustic energy in air, pinna helps to act as funnel to direct down ear canal, **have two ears so capturing at two sides and have interaural differences (different intensity or phase), conduit (canal) resonating tube closed at one end that has a resonance that enhances sound at a regions important to us for speech (2,00 to 5,000 Hz), canal and pinna also server as protection with the s shape and cerumen and hairs

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44
Q

three main cranial nerves that innervate the skin of the pinna and ear canal

A

CN V, CN VII and CN X

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45
Q

What is epithelial migration

A

To allow dead skin cells to migrate radially from the tympanic membrane and then along the canal to clean and keep the canal free of debris

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46
Q

Reflexes

A

The Vagus Reflex (referred to as Arnold’s reflex). Can be evoked during cerumen removal, otoblock insertion or when contacting the external canal wall. This reflex often causes coughing, gagging, or watering of the eyes temporarily.
2. The Trigeminal Reflex (referred to as the Red reflex). Can cause excessive vascularization and thickening of the tympanic membrane from repeat contact typically during otoscopy, otoblock insertion or during early hearing aid acclimitization.
3. The Lymphatic Reflex. A slow reflex that may result over time particularly for new hearing aid or earmold users. This is evidenced by swelling of tissues and soreness in the canal. Often appears like an allergic reaction.

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47
Q

How does the sound move through the middle ear and what is the function of the middle ear?

A

™ vibration and ossicles, pushes mechanical vibration into inner ear (footplate to oval window), IMM - so we don’t lose sound, largest boost is area difference between ™ to footplate (spiked heel effect), buckling, and lever action of ossicles, air to mechanical and mechanical to hydraulic (pushing on fluid), would lose 99.9% almost all of energy without IMM to push the fluid in inner ear.

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48
Q

Describe IMM

A

Air has very low impedance (resistance to flow of energy) whereas fluid has much higher impedance. Sound energy that is propagated from an air medium to a fluid medium would therefore lose considerable energy if not assisted by other means.The middle ear tympanic membrane and ossicular chain participate in an impedance matching mechanism to offset this change in impedance from air to fluid. This is accomplished first via the lever action of the ossicles which work like a fulcrum and result in about 2-3 dB gain through mechanical action. Second, the tympanic membrane and oval window are involved in a process often called the spiked heel effect whereby the pressure exerted on a large area (the TM) is narrowed down onto a much smaller area (the stapes footplate). The TM is about 21x larger than the stapes footplate which results in about a 25 dB gain. Third, the buckling of the TM ads about 6 dB of gain. Combined these three processes result in about a 33-34 dB gain in sound which offsets the change lost from switching mediums (air, to mechanical vibration and then to fluid movement).

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49
Q

sensory portion of CN VII that carries info from the anterior portion of the tongue and travels through middle ear

A

chorda tympani

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50
Q

List the ET muscles

A

tensor veli palatini
tensor tympani
salpingopharyngeus
levator veli palatini

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51
Q

Describe ET in children

A

the Eustachian tube is shorter and more horizontal making it less effective than in adults

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52
Q

physiologic functions of the Eustachian Tube

A

To drain middle ear secretions
To ventilate (pressurize) the middle ear space continuous with external enviroment
To protect the ear from nasopharyngeal sounds

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53
Q

Describe how the acoustic reflex works and why it is needed

A

Stapedial muscle. The stapedial muscle attaches to the stapedius from the posterior wall of the middle ear cavity and shifts the stapes back from oval window restricting movement. This reduces the transmission of sound, especially in the lower frequencies. The reflex protects the inner ear from loud sounds such as the sound of our own voice which is very loud in the ear and from other loud sounds (but not a short or transient burst of sound because a loud external sound had to get in ear to initiate the reflex). The reflex may help with hearing in noise by reducing some low frequencies

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54
Q

flow through a duct (perilymphatic duct) to reach the subarachnoid space and is thought to be a derivative of CSF

A

perilymph

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55
Q

located inside scala media, produced by stria vascularis, +80mV EP

A

endolymph

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56
Q

Forms the floor of the scala media, separating it from the scala tympani

A

basilar membrane

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57
Q

a highly specialized and vascularized tissue lining the lateral wall of the cochlea, maintains the ion composition of the endolymph and producing an endocochlear potential (EP) in the scala media

A

stria vascularis

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58
Q

where is endolymph produced in the cochlea? In the vestibular side?

A

stria vascularis
dark cells

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59
Q

connects scala media of cochlea to saccule

A

ductus reuniens

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60
Q

axosomatic

A

axon to soma

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61
Q

axoaxonic

A

axon to axon

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62
Q

This mechanical amplification property of OHC’s allows for

A

a 100 fold increase (greater hearing sensitivity) (40dB)

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63
Q

What are 3 basic parameters needed for the analysis of a sound.

A

Intensity is encoded by 3 mechanisms. Intensity of a sound, like intensity in other sensory systems, is coded by the rate of firing of action potentials. In addition, intensity is encoded by the number of neurons firing and which populations of nerve fibers are firing based on their thresholds and dynamic ranges.

Frequency in encoded by tonotopic organization along the basilar membrane and by phase-locking.
which part of the BM did it stimulate
each freq mapped from cochlea to the cortext
phase locking - timing of siusoidal of condensation pushing and rarefaction pulling it
can phase lock hair cells to push and pull pattern of the stapes footplate pushing and pullinging in the oval window

sound comes in hair cells stimulate (onset) and stays on for a while (continuous sound) duration, envelope

Analysis of the location of a sound, relies on a comparison of sounds reaching the two ears which can be referred to as interaural differences, so determination of location is accomplished not in CN VIII fibers but in the CNS.

Some other important characteristics of sounds such as onset, duration and envelope are encoded by the timing and firing patterns of action potentials.

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64
Q

single row of sensory receptor in Organ of Corti mainly sends afferent signals to the brainstem

A

IHC

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65
Q

Row of 3 to 4 hair cells that have their stereocilia embedded in the tectorial membrane

A

OHC

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66
Q

What are the supporting cells in Organ of Corti

A

Deiter’s, Hensens, Claudius, Bocchners

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67
Q

Vestibular and cochlear hair cells are

A

specialized mechanoreceptors

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68
Q

could occur from outer hair cell loss without inner hair cell loss

A

sensory, mild hearing loss

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69
Q

receptor portion with spikes to increase surface area

A

dendrites

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70
Q

manufacturing center for a cell with DNA, RNA, and organelles

A

soma

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71
Q

transmitting portion to send action potentials along the neuron short or long distances

A

axon

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72
Q

end of axon branches where the synapse will occur

A

terminal bouton

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73
Q

Describe differences between Multipolar, unipolar, bipolar and pseudomonipolar (aka pseudounipolar)

A

see image

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74
Q

vestibular nuclei

A

scarpa’s ganglion

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75
Q

cochlear nuclei

A

spiral ganglion

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76
Q

superior vestibular nerve fibers innervate

A

LSU

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77
Q

IVN fibers innervate

A

PS

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78
Q

biological mechanical amplifier, improve hearing by elongating and shortening

A

OHC

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79
Q

sends afferent info to the brainstem

A

IHC

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80
Q

What is normal range of intensity for human hearing?

A

0-120 dB

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81
Q

What is the normal frequency range for human hearing

A

20-20,000 Hz

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82
Q

Endochoclear potential

A

-45mV inside the IHC and +80 mV in endolymph = 125 mV difference to drive K+ into a simulated hair cell

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83
Q

Describe the resting state of a neuron or receptor cell, including hair cells of the AVS (i.e.
what is the resting membrane potential) and what is involved in depolarizing a receptor or neuron

A

the endocochlear potential (-45mV inside the IHC and +80 mV in endolymph = 125 mV difference to drive K+ into a simulated hair cell) difference drives positive potassium into the hair cell quickly to a stimulated IHC, resting membrane potential of IHC (-45mV),
Receptor potential - depolarization (-45 and more positive) and when it goes from resting to it’s excited level , more stimulus more voltage change (amp modulated), calcium channel opens, causes neurotransmitter release to synaptic cleft
Synapse - neurotransmitter causes the next step
Resetting to have another RP - bottom of IHC, potassium leaks out (resetting the potential) into the cortilymph and reabsorbed by stria vascularis to be recycled

84
Q

Describe the stimulation of receptor potentials in hair cells

A

Endocochlear potential - The +80mV potential of the endolymph with respect to the perilymph that is maintained by the stria vascularis pumping K+ ions into the endolymph
Shearing of stereocila
Influx of potassium (K+)
Trigger Ca++ channels in influx of Ca++
Dumping of neurotransmitters (e.g. glutamate)
glutamate in audio/vestibular system (excitatory)
Synapse—terminal bouton to the next cell or effector organ

traveling wave in cochlea that moves the BM from stapes pushing into oval window finding the best movement, the IHC gets its stereocilia sheared shortest to tallest (tip links fanning open) potassium rushes in (high in endolymph), depolarizes causing the triggering of calcium to rush in from opening of calcium ion channel ,calcium rushing in causes which causes the neurotransmitter to rush to the edge of the cell and dumps out onto the synapse (glutamate)
in inner ear, OHC main function in biological mechanical amplificatio

85
Q

Where does an action potential start?

A

axon hillock outside of the axon, beginning of the axon

86
Q

When an auditory stimulus has stimulated inner hair cells and the receptor potential is sufficiently strong to reach its threshold, how is the information then passed from the hair cells to the CN VIII afferent fibers at the synapse?

A

cn 8 synapses with neurotransmitter dumped, cn 8 fiber stimulated enough starts ap, ap - voltage gated channel opens to allow for sodium to rush in and depolarize spot on cn 8, spot resets itsef after absolute and refractory period and is maintained by sodium potassium pump, action potentials move forward to next node etc., process repeats. propagates down cn 8, cn 8 enters cns at cerepellopontine angle synapsing on cn (AVCN, PVCN, DCN)

87
Q

How do hair cells have receptor potentials and encode the intensity of a stimulus? And frequency/pitch.

A
88
Q

how is the receptor potential biphasic?

A

Movement toward the tallest stereocilia depolarizes the cell, while movement in the opposite direction leads to hyperpolarization

89
Q

How do action potentials such as on CN VIII encode the intensity of a stimulus?

A

a. CN VIII encodes intensity based on the rate of firing of AP’s, how many fibers are firing and which fibers are firing: 1. Firing rate: action potentials are an all-or- none response so there are no big or small AP signals. So the intensity is encoded by firing rate with a soft sound having slower AP firing and a loud sound have faster AP firing. 2. How many fibers are firing: a louder sound will stimulate more of the basilar membrane so more hair cells will get stimulated and a larger bunch of nerves will fire 3. Which fibers are firing: a single neuron cannot encode for 0 to 120 decibels. Therefore, there are fibers that only fire for soft sound like a 0-40 dB range and others that fire for medium sounds like 40-80 dB and a third group that fire to loud sounds like 80-120.
b. IHC codes intensity by voltage change - louder stimulus louder the voltage change = amp modulated so more calcium will dump more neurotransmitters

90
Q

Details of action potentials; how they are generated (voltage-gated ion channels, Na+ in, K+ out, self-propogation, forward, saltatory conduction, and more)

A

Voltage-gated ion channels open at the first node of Ranvier and sodium rushes in, depolarizing that spot. Then the next (forward) node is stimulated and sodium rushes in so the AP propagates forward by saltatory conduction.
Action potentials can be conducted along neurons quickly due the presence of myelin and saltatory conduction.
Action potentials can carry information over relatively long distances without degrading (without getting weaker).
An action potential is an all-or-none response
Action potentials carry information about the stimulus

91
Q

How is the resting membrane potential of typical CNS cell maintained? (Hint: know about the sodium-potassium pump

A

By the active, energy consuming, sodium-potassium pump which pumps 3 sodium ions out of the cell and 2 potassium ions into the cell to maintain and re-establish the proper ion balance

92
Q

What term best describes the brief time period after the peak of an action potential during which another action potential cannot be generated no matter how much the cell membrane is depolarized?

A

absolute refractory period

93
Q

How do afferent and efferent fibers innervate the inner and outer hair cells

A
94
Q

what are the two descending auditory pathways

A

rostral and caudal

95
Q

what is the caudal pathway of the descending pathway?

A

aka olivocochlear bundle
crossed and uncrossed

96
Q

A1 is rostral to the superior olivary complex

A

true

97
Q

where does the rostral division go

A

begins in auditory cortex and decends through MGB to IC

98
Q

what are the two olivochochlear tracts

A

Lateral tract originates from cells near the lateral superior olive
Medial tract originates near the medial superior olive

99
Q

Describe the lateral OCB

A

mostly uncrossed
from LSO to dendrites beneath the IHC

100
Q

Describe the medial OCB

A

mainly crossed going to the contralateral OHCs
connect directly to the OHC’s

101
Q

Where do OCB project through?

A

to the cochlea through the IAC as part of the vestibular nerve

102
Q

LOC

A

controls what the afferent fibers do

103
Q

MOC

A

give ohc a command directly to modulate its function

104
Q

is OCB inhibitory or excitatory?

A

mostly inhibitory

105
Q

what happens to tuning curve with OCB (specifically medial) is stimulated

A

TC less sharp

106
Q

why do we have modulation?

A

hearing in noise
system gets overwhelmed and sharpens things and reduces that background noise (modulates)

107
Q

what do OAE’s assess?

A

OHC function

108
Q

neurotransmitter of efferent system?

A

acetycholine

109
Q

vestibular system sends efferent signals to control the eye muscles

A

VOR

110
Q

vestibular system sends efferent signals to control muscles of the body

A

vsr

111
Q

first station for processing auditory information in the brainstem (monoaural/ipsilateral at this level)

A

CN

112
Q

what is the gold standard for Schwanoma

A

MRI with enhancement

112
Q

CN VIII fibers tonotopic arrangement

A

high on external part of bundle - lows wrapped around the cores

112
Q

what are stria and the 3 divisions of cochlear nucleus?

A

trapezoid tract, intermediate stria, and dorsal stria
anteroventral cn
posteroventral cn
dorsal cn

113
Q

along the central auditory nervous system (CANS) pathway, first set of nuclei in the brainstem to receive binaural information are the….

A

SOC

114
Q

timing and integrity is maintained because of no extra synapse

A

mso

115
Q

timing is disrupted

A

LSO

116
Q

How does SOC help with localizations?

A

binuaral input allows for the analysis of interaural differences in the stimuli

117
Q

Why is sound intensity different at the two ears?

A

Head shadow
Body baffle
Intensity decreases with distance

118
Q

Predominantly receives and processes high frequency information
Localization of sounds based on interaural intensity differences

A

LSO

119
Q

Receives and processes predominantly low-frequencies
Localization of sounds based on temporal cues
Stimuli reach the ear at different times and at different phases

A

MSO

120
Q

bundle of axons or fiber tract that goes from the CN to IC

A

lateral leminiscus

121
Q

station gets input from multiple lower stations that come in a multiple different pathways

A

nucleus of LL

122
Q

what gives pathway more strength and integrity bw ventral and dorsal NLL

A

Commissure of probst

123
Q

tonotopic organization of LL

A

lows dorsally and highs ventrally

124
Q

Obligatory (have to stop) relay station of the ascending auditory pathway
Largest of the brainstem nuclei

A

IC

125
Q

Central nucleus of IC

A

auditory only

126
Q

pericentral nucleus of IC

A

Contains somatosensory (coming from the body, sensations from the body) and auditory fibers
taking info and orients our body to where sound is (helps with directing attention and head to where the sound is)

127
Q

Group of nuclei in the thalamus
Last station in the CANS prior to areas in the cortex

A

MGB

128
Q

What are the 3 divisions of MGB

A

Ventral
dorsal
medial

129
Q

fibers exit the thalamus as

A

thalamocortical projections traveling through the internal capsule and becoming auditory radiations (corona radiata - fibers radiating around the crown)

130
Q

tonotopic org of A1

A

lows laterally
highs medially

131
Q

old classification of bone fractures

A

longitudinal (parallel)
transverse (perpendicular)

132
Q

Redundancy in the CANS (describe why we call the system redundant)

A

cans once we get in brainstem at cn, send ipsi and contra fibers and the aud fibers cross over many commissure throughout cans so there is more than one path for aud info to get from bs up to the cortex
if there is a lesion or damage in an area, neural firing can bypass and get around it and helps us here complex things and here in noise and have an injury and still be able t hear and understand it
audiology - hard to find because redundancy is able to bypass lesion in our testing and need to make the test harder to catch the lesion through the redundancy to find where it is at

133
Q

Is the ipsilateral or contralateral CANS pathway dominant?

A

contralateral

134
Q

What is meant by right ear advantage?

A

well-known for the processing of verbal stimuli, reflecting left hemispheric dominance for language
observation that when two different speech stimuli are simultaneously presented to both ears, listeners report stimuli more correctly from the right ear than the left.

135
Q

symptoms of longitudinal fracture

A

accounts for 80%
Tears in skin of canal and TM
CHL (conductive hearing loss)—middle ear/ossicular disruption
Facial nerve injury 10-25%

136
Q

symptoms of transverse fracture

A

accounts for 20%
SNHL
Vertigo or dizziness
Hemotympanum
Facial nerve injury 50%

137
Q

most common traditional fracture?

A

mixed

138
Q

refers to the bony labyrinth of the inner ear

A

otic capsule

139
Q

otic capsule sparing

A

90+%
Temporoparietal blow
FN Paralysis 6-13%
CHL or mixed
CSF leak not likely

140
Q

otic capsule disrupting

A

2.5 – 5.8 %
Occipital blow
FN Paralysis 30-50%
SNHL
CSF leak 2-4 X more likely

141
Q

shape of epidural hematoma

A

lemon because the dura connects at suture lines and the blood cannot continue to spread.

142
Q

shape of subdural hematoma

A

banana because the blood can continue to spread and pool along the curve shaped of the subarachnoid space

143
Q

How do afferent and efferent fibers innervate the inner and outer hair cells

A

afferent - one set goe to the IHCs (type 1) with many fibers directly to one IHC - info is diverging to many nerve fibers from one IHC
convergent - one fiber synapsing on many OHCs (type 2) so info is converging from many OHCs info onto one fiber
efferent - MOC synapses directly onto OHC and LOC synapses directly onto type 1 afferent fiber of IHC

144
Q

The auditory portion of cranial nerve VIII is tonotopically organized. Those fibers from the apical end (low frequencies) are located toward the ____________________ (outer / inner) portion of the nerve bundle and those from the basal end (high frequencies) are located at the ____________________ (outer / inner) portion of the nerve bundle.

A

inner
outer

145
Q

what supplies blood to the endolymphatic sac?

A

meningeal arteries (from the carotid)

146
Q

What is reflex decay and how is it tested?

A

form of measurement provided by the contraction of the stapedius muscle.
We can measure ipsilateral reflexes with the sound and the measurement probe in the same ear. We can measure contralateral reflexes with the sound in one ear and the probe measuring the reflex in the other ear. We also test the ability of the system to maintain the reflex over time by testing for reflex decay. Together these test measures have the incredibility ability to give us diagnostic information about the outer and middle ear,
usually done for multiple frequencies including 500 Hz, 1000 Hz, 2000 Hz, 4000 Hz.
Normal range for ART 70-90 dB above pure tone AC threshold

147
Q

How can the acoustic reflex be present even if the cortex is damaged?

A

because acoustic reflex doesn’t require cortex to have a response it is mediated at the brainstem level

148
Q

path of startle reflex

A

Path = Cochlea to CN VIII to Cochlear Nucleus (specifically the anteroventral cochlear nucleus–AVCN) to ipsilateral ventral nucleus of the lateral lemniscus (VNLL), then bilaterally to rostral reticular pontine formation
Impulses then travel via the Medial Longitudinal Fasciculus (MLF) to spinal cord to reach ventral gray horns and to stimulate lower motor neurons going to the muscles responsible for the quick, tensing, jerking movement

149
Q

why is important to have a variety of cells and responses from those cells?

A

need variety to pick up rich auditory environment and gives brain more information about the pattern of sounds so it isn’t just simple pure tones, need variety to understand speech, variety of patterns = variety of cells in each nucleus because they have different responses

150
Q

earliest part of CANS that would cause problems with localization?

A

SOC

151
Q

EE cells (excitatory/excitatory) in the MSO do what?

A

respond to phase differences

152
Q

EI (excite/inhibit) cells in the LSO do what?

A

respond to intensity differences

153
Q

if there’s something wrong in the SOC, what will we see clinically?

A

localization, wave 4 of ABR, contralateral ART reflexes, bad test performances (BMLD)

154
Q

if there’s something wrong with the LL, what do we see clinically?

A

startle reflex absent, wave 5 on ABR, lesions on pons

155
Q

if there’s something wrong with the IC, what do we see clinically?

A

ABR wave 5 and 4, orientation of head, eye gaze, dichotic listening

156
Q

if there’s something wrong with the MGB, what can we see clinically?

A

middle latency response is longer on EP’s, speech processing (theoretically)

157
Q

what is the ARAS of the RF

A

ascending reticular activation system (aka our alarm system)

158
Q

what does the ARAS of the RF do?

A

alerts of problems, keeps us awake, helps us listen in noise and have selective attentionF

159
Q

what does the planum temporale do?

A

spatial hearing, receptive language processing (by wernicke’s)

160
Q

function of insula lobe related to auditory system

A

Temporal sequencing

161
Q

if we are in motion, what is our primary sensory receptor?

A

vestibular

162
Q

if we are sitting still, what is our primary sensory receptor?

A

vision

163
Q

what is the maculae?

A

houses the sensory structures in the saccule and utricle

164
Q

what do type 1 fibers look like in the vestibule?

A

flask shaped (like iHC)

165
Q

gelatin cap in the crista ampulla

A

cupula

166
Q

what way are the kinocilium oriented in the lateral canal?

A

towards the utricle

167
Q

what way are the kinocilium oriented in the anterior and posterior canals?

A

away from the utricle

168
Q

what direction does the utricle maculae respond to?

A

gravitational&linear, horizontal

169
Q

what direction does the saccule maculae respond to?

A

gravitational & linear, verticle

170
Q

what are otoconia made of?

A

calcium carbonate + protein

171
Q

what causes otoconia to lag?

A

weight and density (they eventually catch up)

172
Q

what is the endolymph in the saccule connected to?

A

other endolymphatic spaces of the inner ear via the endolymphatic duct (ED) as well as the utricular duct and the duct between the saccule and cochlear duct (ductus reuniens)

173
Q

in the lateral canal, the kinocilium are ______

A

toward utricle

174
Q

in the anterior and posterior canals, the kinocilium are _____

A

away from utricle

175
Q

when endolymph moves TOWARDS the ampullae in the anterior and posterior canals, what happens?

A

inhibition (its opposite for lateral canal)

176
Q

ampullae detect ______ acceleration

A

angular (pitch, roll, yaw)

177
Q

the maculae detect ___ acceleration

A

linear (and gravitational pull)

178
Q

at the CPA, where does the ascending vestibular tract go?

A
  • directly to the juxtarestiform body to the cerebellum
  • second order fibers go to the cerebellum (after cochlear nuclei)
179
Q

at the CPA, where does the descending vestibular tract go?

A

caudal vestibular nucleus

180
Q

Imaginary line through the long axis of each maculae

A

striola

181
Q

efferent olivocochlear bundle, job?

A

regulate
modulate

182
Q

what do the vestibulo thalamo cortical projections do?

A

integrate vestibular, visual, and sensorimotor information to give us body orientation cues

183
Q

what type of neurons make up the spiral and scarpa’s ganglion?

A

BIPOLAR

184
Q

process of CN 8 firing

A
  • sufficient NT binds to receptors
  • the AP is generated
  • NA+ influx to depolarize cell
  • K+ outflux to repolarize cell
  • AP self propogates
185
Q

characteristics of action potentials

A
  • self propagating
  • moves forward only
  • no degradation over time
    (jumps by salutatory conduction when there is myelin)
186
Q

how do we encode firing patterns?

A

onset, duration, offset, envelope

187
Q

neurotransmitters of the efferent/descending pathway

A

ACh and noradernaline

188
Q

are A1 and the planum temporale the same on both sides of the brain

A

are A1 and the planum temporale the same on both sides of the brain?
no, usually bigger in left side (speech processing

189
Q

what 3 ways does our vestib system gather information about our environment?

A
  • vestibular
  • visual
  • somatosensory/proprioception
190
Q

how can we get tuning curves?

A

psychoacoustically (masking) or psychophysically (electrodes)

191
Q

what is the cochlear microphonic measuring?

A

EP in OHC

192
Q

what is summating potentials measuring?

A

EP in IHC

193
Q

what is action potentials measuring?

A

EP in CN VIII fibers

194
Q

what does the EEG montage tell us?

A

where to place electrodes on the head

195
Q

what does the EEG montage tell us?

A

ECochG

196
Q

what are we measuring in ABR?

A

timing of evoked responses

197
Q

where are the ABR waves coming from? (aka the neural generators)

A

1- distal CN 8 (spiral ganglion)
2 - proximal CN 8 (approaching brainstem)
3 - cochlear nucleus
4 - SOC / LL
5 - LL / IC

198
Q

which ABR peak is the largest and most stable?

A

peak 5 (LL and IC)

199
Q

inhibitory neurotransmitters

A

GABA and glycine

200
Q

excitatory neurotransmitters

A

glutamate and aspartate

201
Q
A

vestibulo occular reflex

vestibulo colich reflex (neck area)

vestibulo spinal reflex

202
Q

what inhibits/excites in contra and ipsi in anterior Canal
and Eye Movement Control

A

ipsi excite - Superior rectus (CN III)
ipsi inhib- inferior rectus (CN III)
contra excite - inferior oblique (CN III)
contra inhib- superior oblique (CN VI)

203
Q

what inhibits/excites in contra and ipsi in posterior Canal
and Eye Movement Control

A

ipsi excite - Superior oblique
ipsi inhib- inferior oblique
contra excite - inferior rectus
contra inhib- superior rectus

204
Q

what inhibits/excites in contra and ipsi in lateral Canal
and Eye Movement Control

A

ipsi excite - medial rectus
ipsi inhib- lateral rectus
contra excite - lateral rectus
contra inhib- medial rectus

205
Q
A

AUDE 5160 - Anatomy (16 decks)

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