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Animal Science > FINAL EXAM REVIEW > Flashcards

FINAL EXAM REVIEW Flashcards

5, 8, 10, 11, 14, & 27

1
Q

_____ is the term used in nutrition to refer to the set of inorganic elements thus far established as necessary for life in one or more animal species

A

minerals

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2
Q

a ____ trial measures the total intake and secretion of feed so that retention by the animal’s body can be measured

A

metabolism trial

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3
Q

_____ is the major carbohydrate found in forages such as hay and silage

A

cellulose

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4
Q

which of the following is NOT an essential fatty acid?

a) linoleic acid
b) linolenic acid
c) ascorbic acid
d) arachidonic acid

A

c) ascorbic acid

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5
Q

which of the vitamins listed below is water soluble?

a) vitamin E
b) vitamin D
c) vitamin C
d) vitamin K

A

c) vitamin C

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6
Q

which of the following is considered an essential amino acid?

a) histidine
b) methionine
c) arginine
d) all of the above

A

d) all of the above

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7
Q

on an equal weight basis, fats provide _____ times more energy to the animal than carbohydrates do.

a) 2.65
b) 2.45
c) 2.25
d) 2.00

A

c) 2.25

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8
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the finishing phase for livestock requires a higher percentage of the total diet to be protein than does the growth phase

A

false

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9
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
a basic nutritionist is first and foremost interested in maximal cost-effective feeding in a production setting

A

false

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10
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the maintenance nutrient requirement is the combination of nutrients needed for basal metabolism and normal animal movement

A

true

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11
Q

a ____ is a chemical element or compound that supports normal growth, reproduction, lactation, or maintenance of life processes

A

nutrient

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12
Q

_____ is the combined set of actions and biological functions of a living being directed at producing offspring

A

reproduction

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13
Q

____ is the nutrient whose deficiency will cause death of an animal faster than any other

A

water

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14
Q

the crude fiber portion of carbohydrates is derived from which of the following components?

a) all of the above
b) hemicellulose
c) insoluble lignin
d) cellulose

A

a) all of the above

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15
Q

which of the following components of feed can be analyzed with infrared lights?

a) protein
b) all of the above
c) moisture
d) lipid

A

b) all of the above

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16
Q

what percentage of the total cost of production is generally attributed to feed in the dairy industry?

a) 70
b) 65
c) 75
d) 50-60

A

d) 50-60

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17
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
sodium and chlorine are micromineral

A

false

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18
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
proximate analysis partitions feed into water, ash, crude protein, crude fiber, ether extract, and nitrogen-free extract

A

true

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19
Q

an ____ amino acid must be supplied to the body by the diet

A

essential

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20
Q

the process of replacing a human organ with one from an animal is known as ______

A

xenotransplantation

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21
Q

_____ is the study of the body’s need and mechanism of acquiring, digesting, transporting, and metabolizing nutrients

A

nutrition

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22
Q

which of the following is a basic type of analytical method used in analyzing feed for nutrient content?

a) biological procedures
b) chemical procedures
c) all of the above
d) microbiological procedures

A

c) all of the above

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23
Q

carbohydrates contain approximately ____ kilocalories of energy per gram

a) 3.9
b) 4.0
c) 4.2
d) 3.8

A

b) 4.0

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24
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
an animal’s utilization of feed can be affected by the following factors: type of digestion tract, age and physiological state of the animal, and physical state of the feed

A

true

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25
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
physiology and biotechnology are two disciplines of animal science

A

true

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26
Q

TRUE OR FASLE:
physiology is the discipline of animal science dealing with the study of physical and chemical processes of an animal or the body systems and cells of an animal

A

true

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27
Q

five of the 10 essential amino acids are

A
  • methionine
  • arginine
  • lysine
  • leucine
  • histidine
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28
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
energy feeds are usually high in starch and can easily be digested in nonruminants

A

true

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29
Q

gross energy —> (B)—-> (C)—-> (D)—> (E)
(A) Urine & Gas Heat increment +Gain&Production

A

A - fecal energy loss
B - digestible energy
C - metabolize energy
D - net energy
E - maintenance

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30
Q

____ is the process of somatic cell division

A

mitosis

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31
Q

_____ is when the same genotype is expressed differently depending on the sex of the animal

A

sex-influenced

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32
Q

____ is applied genetics in animals

A

animal breeding

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33
Q

____ is the interaction among genes at different loci. the expression of genes at one locus depends on the alleles present at one or more loci

A

epistasis

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34
Q

____ is the term to describe an animal that is missing a chromosome (2n-1)

a) polyploidy
b) monosomy
c) aneuploidy
d) trisomy

A

b) monosomy

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35
Q

the horned/polled gene in sheep is controlled by ____ inheritance

a) sex-limited
b) none of the above
c) sex-influenced
d) sex-linked

A

a) sex-influenced

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36
Q

which antigen is present in the blood of an individual with blood type AB?

a) A and B
b) B
c) A
d) none of the above

A

a) A and B

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37
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
guanine and cytosine are held together with double bonds

A

false

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38
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
crossbreeding is the mating of individuals to maintain a relationship to a common ancestor

A

false

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39
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
coat colors in many species are dependent on the effects of epistasis

A

true

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40
Q

novel species are commonly referred to as ____

A

transgenic

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41
Q

when making a genetically engineered bacteria, _____ enzymes are used to insert a new DNA fragment into the plasmid

A

ligase

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42
Q

_____ is the biotechnological process of changing the genetic potential of an individual for a trait such as height and eye color

A

gene enhancement

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43
Q

_____ is the term used to describe the production of pharmaceuticals from livestock

A

pharming

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44
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
when transgenically produced rennet was approved in 1990, it became the first food product from transgenic production to receive approval

A

true

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45
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
genetic diseases are the result of the absence of a gene in a chromosome or a defect in a gene

A

true

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46
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
animal cloning holds potential for agriculture

A

true

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47
Q

a controversial technique that might be used to change humans for genetic potential for such traits as height is called

a) gene therapy
b) germ-line therapy
c) gene-enhancement
d) cloning

A

c) gene enhancement

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48
Q

which of the following techniques can be used to map the genetic code of animals

a) DNA sequencing
b) polymerase chain reaction
c) statistical analysis
d) all the above

A

d) all of the above

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49
Q

products that have both nutrient and pharmaceutical properties are called ____

a) monoclonal antibodies
b) nutraceuticals
c) interferons
d) transgenics

A

b) nutraceuticals

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50
Q

the complete genetic material of an organism is called its _____

A

genome

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51
Q

____ is the process of building high molecular weight molecules by repeatedly chemically bonding the same compound to itself

A

polymerization

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52
Q

in what year did Gregor Mendel discover the principles of inheritance while working with garden peas

a) 1873
b) 1869
c) 1862
d) 1866

A

d) 1866

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53
Q

how many autosomes are present in the somatic cells of swine

a) 36
b) 38
c) 40
d) 34

A

A) 36

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54
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the centromere is the region of the chromosome where the spindle fibers attach

A

true

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55
Q

____ enzymes are used to cut DNA and isolate its fragments

A

restriction

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56
Q

____ are genetically altered plants, animals, or microorganisms

A

transgenic

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57
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
transgenic cows, goats, and sheep have been developed to secrete bioactive molecules into their blood, urine, and milk

A

true

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58
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
dolly the sheep was introduced in 1997 as the world’s first clone of an adult animal

A

true

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59
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
bovine somatotropin is used in dairy cows to increase milk production

A

true

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60
Q

the locations of specific genes along a chromosome marked with probes are called a(n) ____

a) novel gene
b) intergenic microorganism
c) gene map
d) founder

A

c) gene map

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61
Q

a transgenic animal that is subsequently used to establish a transgenic line of animals is called a ____

a) founder
b) pharmer
c) probe
d) clone

A

a) founder

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62
Q

_____ is the cellular process of making a copy of a DNA molecule

A

DNA replication

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63
Q

a _____ is a mating with a fully recessive tester animal to determine if an individual is homozygous or heterozygous for a trait

A

testcross

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64
Q

____ is the result of no dominance between alleles

A

incomplete dominance

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65
Q

____ is the process of allowing some animals to be parents more than others

A

selection

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66
Q

what does the allele combination of RR represent

a) homozygous recessive
b) heterozygous dominant
c) homozygous dominant
d) none of the above

A

c) homozygous dominant

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67
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
carcass merit characteristics are considered to be lowly heritable

A

false

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68
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
in the manufacture of protein, transcription is the process of building RNA that is complimentary to DNA

A

true

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69
Q

____ is the application to industry of advances made in the techniques and instruments from the biological sciences

A

biotechnology

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70
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
“new biotechnology” owes its existence to the understanding of the cell and its components, and the genetic code

A

true

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71
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the Environmental Protection Agency, the Food and Drug Administration, and the United States Department of Agriculture are three federal agencies which regulate genetically engineered products

A

true

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72
Q

which of the following has been modified to produce human insulin

a) pomace fly
b) pig
c) nematodes
d) bacteria

A

d) bacteria

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73
Q

___ is described as difficult birthing in an animal

A

dystocia

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74
Q

____ is the hormone responsible for growth, development, and maintenance of follicles in the female, and production of sperm in the male

A

follicle stimulating hormone

75
Q

the _____ is the organ through which oxygen and nutrients are passed to the fetus from the female and waste is passed from the fetus to the female

A

placenta

76
Q

____ is a posture assumed by a sow in estrus such that they resist pressure applied to the back

A

lordosis

77
Q

which of the following is not a fetal membrane

a) amnion
b) allantois
c) endometrium
d) chorion

A

c) endometrium

78
Q

which of the following is the place where sperm cells mature

a) vesicular glands
b) prostate gland
c) all the above
d) epididymis

A

d) epididymis

79
Q

how many days will eggs generally remain in the oviduct

a) 7-9
b) 10-11
c) 3-6
d) 1-2

A

c) 3-6

80
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the most important factors influencing the onset of puberty are age and weight

A

true

81
Q

TRUE OR FASLE:
fertilized eggs could go through natural or artificial incubation

A

true

82
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
high levels of progesterone are responsible for the maintenance of pregnancy

A

true

83
Q

____ is the term used to describe the fertilization of an ovum in a test tube or other environment outside of the body

A

in vitro

84
Q

the ____ are the basis of the reproductive system and are called either the ovary or testis depending on the gender of the animals

A

gonads

85
Q

how many minutes pass between the laying of one egg by a hen until ovulation occurs and begins the process again

a) 10
b) 150
c) 3
d) 30

A

d) 30

86
Q

approximately how many hours prior to ovulation will a cow generally stand to be mounted by other females or males

a) 12
b) 8
c) 5
d) 18

A

a) 12

87
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the magnum functions to add the thick portion of the albumen or white to the egg

A

true

88
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
approximately two-thirds of fetal growth occurs within the last trimester of pregnancy

A

true

89
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
ovulation is the release of the ova from the ovary

A

true

90
Q

in what decade did embryo transfer become available to livestock producers

a) 1960s
b) 1980s
c) 1990s
d) 1970s

A

d) 1970s

91
Q

how many hours on average will cattle be in heat

a) 17
b) 14
c) 8
d) 16

A

b) 14

92
Q

which hormone from this list is released from the hypothalamus and causes the others on the list to be released

a) gonadotropin releasing hormone
b) none of the above
c) follicle stimulating hormone
d) luteinizing hormone

A

a) gonadotropin releasing hormone

93
Q

how many functional ovary is found in hen

a) 3
b) 2
c) 1
d) 5

A

c) 1

94
Q

____ is the change in gene frequency of a small breeding population due to chance

A

genetic drift

95
Q

how many chromosomes (2n) do cattle have

a) 54
b) 38
c) 46
d) 60

A

d) 60

96
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
genetic engineering describes the technologies for moving genes from one species to another

A

true

97
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
recessive alleles express themselves to the exclusion of the other alleles

A

false

98
Q

_____ is the first milk given by a female after birth of young

A

colostrum

99
Q

____ is the technique that allow fertilized egg collected from one individual to be placed in another (recipient)

A

embryo transfer

100
Q

the ____ is a structure at the end of the oviduct that surrounds the ovary and captures the ovum released from the follicle in the female

A

fimbriae

101
Q

the ____ acts as a passageway for sperm cells, acts as the primary barrier between the external and internal environment, and acts as a passageway for the fetus at parturition

A

cervix

102
Q

semen is usually collected by stimulating the man to ejaculate into

a) artificial vagina
b) electro ejaculator
c) female on heat
d) reproductive tract

A

a) artificial vagina

103
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
calcification of the shell of the egg occurs in the uterus of the hen

A

true

104
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
testosterone is the primary male hormone

A

true

105
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
in chicken, it is necessary for sperm to be present in the female reproductive tract for an egg to form

A

false

106
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the cervical seal or plug prevents the entrance of contaminants from the vagina to the cervix when an embryo is present

A

true

107
Q

as of 2008, the Food Drug Administration considers products from cloned animals safe to eat

A

true

108
Q

a restriction enzyme can be used to cut a chain of DNA and put a plasmid DNA into bacteria

A

true

109
Q

genetically modified ____ outnumber all other genetically manipulated organisms

a) animals
b) fish
c) crops
d) bacteria

A

c) crops

110
Q

many environment conditions can have profound influences on reproductive function. ____ and _____ are two factors discussed in class that can greatly affect animal’s reproductive performance

A

stress and nutrition

111
Q

the period between parturition and the onset of estrous activity is referred to as the _____

A

postpartum interval

112
Q

which of the following are considered clinical signs of disease

a) fever
b) edema
c) weight loss
d) all the above

A

d) all the above

113
Q

made up of cells and protective mechanisms that respond in a generic or non-specific way to infectious threats

a) innate immunity
b) active immunity
c) adaptive immunity
d) surface barriers

A

a) innate immunity

114
Q

which of the following may lead to an animal being more vulnerable to certain diseases

a) genetics
b) environmental factors
c) all of the above
d) poor nutrition

A

c) all of the above

115
Q

which of the following has been known to cause food poisoning in humans

a) escherichia coli O157:H7
b) all of the above
c) brucellosis
d) bovine spongiform encephalopathy

A

a) escherichia coli O157:H7

116
Q

which describes the capability of organism to produce disease

a) chronic
b) pathogenicity
c) virulence
d) stress

A

b) pathogenicity

117
Q

which of the following would be characterized as a predisposing cause of disease

a) bacteria
b) protozoa
c) genetics
d) fungi

A

c) genetics

118
Q

which of the following program units within APHIS qualifies private veterinarians to work cooperatively with federal and states veterinarians

a) Animal Care
b) Veterinary Services
c) Veterinarian Accreditation Program
d) Animal and Plant Health Inspection Service

A

c) Veterinarian Accreditation Program

119
Q

which of the following are surface barriers that prevent disease-causing organisms from entering an animal

a) all of the above
b) cilia
c) mucus
d) skin

A

a) all the above

120
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
a pathogen is a living disease-producing agent

A

true

121
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
animal or insect bites can spread rabies, Lyme disease, or Rocky Mountain spotted fever

A

true

122
Q

____ is the process of acquiring immunity by receiving preformed antibodies against infectious agents as from mother to offspring via colostrum

A

passive immunity

123
Q

____ is the unit within APHIS that is responsible for inspecting animals used for research and exhibition and ensure compliance with animal welfare legislation

A

animal care

124
Q

_____ is the natural ability of animals to remain unaffected by pathogens, toxins, irritants, or poisons

A

resistance

125
Q

___ is where veterinarian practices medicine at a fixed location

A

animal clinic

126
Q

_____ is immunity to an infectious agent developed in response to the infectious agent or a vaccine for the disease

A

active immunity

127
Q

____ is the term to describe the capability of a disease to be transmitted from animal to animal

A

contagious

128
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
in order for live animals to enter to United States, they must be immediately quarantined and held in import center until it can be determined that they are healthy

A

true

129
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
a necropsy can be used as a diagnostic tool

A

true

130
Q

the Bureau of Customs and Border Protection protects United States agriculture from foreign pests and disease through an elaborate system of inspection and seizure

A

true

131
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
Florida is one of the three states with quarantine facilities for shipments of personally owned pet birds and commercial shipments of pet birds into the United States

A

true

132
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
The United States Animal Health Association is a government agency that informs authorities of current disease situations, method of control, and other information about disease

A

false

133
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
herd health programs generally improve returns above the cost of the program

A

true

134
Q

which of the following describes a state of infectious disease where no readily observable clinical signs exist

a) chronic
b) acute
c) subclinical
d) clinical

A

c) subclinical

135
Q

currently how many diseases have been identified as zoonotic

a) about 50
b) more than 100
c) several thousand
d) only 10

A

b) more than 100

136
Q

which of the following are examples of environmental factors that may decrease an animal’s ability to fight off disease

a) chilling
b) all the above
c) inadequate ventilation
d) crowding

A

b) all of the above

137
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the Pure Food Act and Meat Inspection Act of 1906 were the direct result of the publishing of The Jungle by Upton Sinclair

A

true

138
Q

which bacteria can be found in contaminated seafood and results in cramps, abdominal pain lasting 1-7 days, fever, and chills

a) staphylococcus aureus
b) vibrio parahaemolyticus
c) echerichia coli
d) salmonella

A

b) vibrio parahaemolyticus

139
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the HAACP program requires a plant to maintain certain documents, including hazard analysis, and a written HAACP plan

A

true

140
Q

how many organisms have caused problems with enough frequency to become a concern in the United States

a) 14
b) 7
c) 10
d) 18

A

a) 14

141
Q

which bacteria causes acute infectious diarrhea, is associated with Gulian-Barr syndrome, and is usually found in raw or undercooked chicken

a) vibrio
b) escherichia coli
c) campylobacter
d) salmonella

A

c) campylobacter

142
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
STOP, LAST, SOS are tests performed by the FDA either on the farm or in slaughter facilities to detect illegal residues

A

true

143
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the contamination of hamburger meat with E. coli O157:H7 from a well-known fast-food restaurant bought the public’s attention to food safety

A

true

144
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
many of the problems with food and its safety are the responsibilities of the consumer or food handler

A

true

145
Q

what percent of illness due to contaminated foods could be prevented if the food handler and preparer takes proper measures

a) 76
b) 77
c) 78 (NO)
d) 75

A

b) 77%

146
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
thawing foods should be done either in the microwave or under hot running water

A

false

147
Q

an ____ is a pathogen that has mutated to become more virulent or which have only recently been recognized as a safety issue

A

emerging pathogen

148
Q

the ____ inspects meat carcasses for illegal residues at the slaughter plants

A

Food Safety and Inspection Services

149
Q

the ____ has caused sporadic and epidemic gastrointestinal disease that causes overwhelming, dehydrating diarrhea and results from eating shellfish (not the former name)

A

norovirus

150
Q

the ______ is a list of common food additives given special safe status under the 1958 Food Additive Amendment because of their previous records as safe food additives

A

Generally Recognized as Safe (GRAS)

151
Q

the _____ is the length of time an antibiotic must be taken away from an animal before the animal can be legally slaughtered

A

withdrawal time

152
Q

which pathogen is associated with hemorrhagic colitis

a) escherichia coli O157:H7
b) campylobacter
c) salmonella
d) vibrio

A

a) escherichia coli O157:H7

153
Q

how many times a year must a dairy farm be inspected as part of the Grade A Pasteurized Milk Ordinance

a) 2
b) 1
c) 4
d) 3

A

a) 2

154
Q

which HAACP principle calls for the establishment of critical limits for each critical point

a) 2
b) 3
c) 5
d) 4

A

b) 3

155
Q

which bacteria causes acute infectious diarrhea in developed countries and is the most commonly isolated bacterial intestinal pathogen in the United States, and it usually found in undercooked or raw chicken

a) escherichia coli
b) salmonella
c) campylobacter
d) vibrio

A

a) campylobacter

156
Q

how many compounds are monitored by the Food and Drug Administration

a) 100
b) 150
c) 50
d) 200

A

a) 100

157
Q

which of the following food safety concerns pose the largest threat to consumers

a) naturally-occurring toxicants
b) food-borne pathogen
c) hormones used on animals
d) irradiated foods

A

b) food-borne pathogen

158
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
humans fear that eating animals who have been treated with antibiotics may lead to the development of “superbugs” that might threaten human health

A

true

159
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
toxoplasm gondii is a parasitic protazoa that can be acquired from raw or undercooked meats, or through contact with cats that shed cysts in their feces

A

true

160
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the best herd health management programs involve control of disease

A

false

161
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the swine and poultry industries tend to have less sophisticated biosecurity measures than other livestock industries

A

false

162
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
biopsy only deals with the surgical removal of tissue specimen

A

false

163
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
because newborns are not immediately capable of protecting themselves with their own antibody production, they receive passive immunity in the form of colostrum

A

true

164
Q

____ are foods treated with ionized pasteurization which kills insects, bacteria, and parasites

A

irradiated foods

165
Q

a ____ is a disease-causing bacterium or virus

A

pathogen

166
Q

the ____ prohibited the addition of any substance to human food shown to cause cancer in any animal at any dose

A

Delaney clause

167
Q

____ under the HAACP system requires that plants conduct a hazard analysis

A

Principle 1

168
Q

which of the following are focuses of the Fight BAC! campaign

a) cook
b) separate
c) all the above
d) clean

A

c) all the above

169
Q

how many principles provide the basis for the HAACP system

a) 7
b) 5
c) 9
d) 3

A

a) 7

170
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
the primary transmission mode of the hepatitis A virus is person-to-person by the fecal-oral route

A

true

171
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
if pathogens enter the body through the surface barriers, the immune system does not attack them

A

false

172
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
disease prevention and treatments require constant vigilance at least for some species

A

true

173
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
poorly nourished cattle are only vulnerable to metabolic diseases and not infectious diseases

A

false

174
Q

a _____ is a step or procedure in a food process at which control can be applied and, as a result, a food safety hazard can be prevented

A

critical control point

175
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
E. coli H157:H7 causes a watery diarrhea, which usually lasts only 1-7 days

A

false

176
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
Mad Cow Disease is a degenerative central nervous system disease in cattle that is believed to be contracted through eating mammalian-derived protein by-products

A

true

177
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
a contagious disease is an infectious disease caused by a microorganism, which is spread rapidly from animal to animal

A

true

178
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
antibodies are not proteins, but they are produced by the body to attack infectious agents and neutralize them

A

false

179
Q

____ are caused by living organisms which invade and multiple in or on the body and result in damage to the body

A

infectious diseases

180
Q

a ____ disease will have symptoms that develop slowly over a period of weeks or months

A

chronic

181
Q

a ____ is any condition or state of health that confers a tendency and/or susceptibility to disease

A

predisposing cause

182
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
a person with expertise in diagnosing disease is called a diagnostician

A

true

183
Q

TRUE OR FALSE:
natural or synthetic drugs that have the capability to inhibit or kill bacteria are unique for controlling infectious disease caused by pathogenic bacteria

A

true

Animal Science (7 decks)

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