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Anatomy and Physiology Exams > Final Exam Info Bio 322 > Flashcards

Final Exam Info Bio 322 Flashcards

1
Q

The cephalic phase of pancreatic secretion is stimulated and has the same mechanism as the cephalic phase of gastric acid secretion.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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2
Q

Which cholinergic receptor is found on chief cells?

A

M3 muscarinic receptor

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3
Q

Activation of pancreatic acinar secretagogue receptors leads to phosphorylation and increased permeability of which two channels?

A

apical Cl- leak channel

basolateral K+ leak channel

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4
Q

What is the primary stimulus for secretin secretion?

A

Gastric acid in duodenum

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5
Q

What is the primary stimulus for cholecystokinin secretion?

A

lipids and peptones in duodenum

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6
Q

Which nerve innervates each of the salivary glands?

A

sublingual and submandibular salivary glands-facial nerve

parotid salivary gland-glossopharyngeal nerve

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7
Q

What four digestive enzymes or types of enzymes are produced by the pancreas?

A

Proteases, Amylases, Lipase, Nucleases

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8
Q

What are the two secretagogues for salivary alveolar cell fluid secretion and what receptor does each act on? Which one is the primary secretagogue?

A

Acetylcholine on M3 muscarinic receptor (Gq)-primary

epinephrine on alpha-1 adrenergic receptor (Gq)

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9
Q

State three endogenous chemicals that can stimulate bicarbonate ion secretion into the mucus layer of the stomach.

A

Acetylcholine
acid (main one)
prostaglandins

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10
Q

State four endogenous chemicals that can stimulate mucus secretion in the stomach.

A 
Acetylcholine 
acid (main one)
prostaglandins
pepsin
bile acid
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11
Q

What are the two primary purposes of the fluid secreted by the pancreatic duct cells?

A
  1. helps neutralize stomach acid entering duodenum

2. provides fluid pressure for bulk flow of the enzymes into the duodenum

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12
Q

What are the three phases of pancreatic secretion in response to a meal, and about what percent of the total enzyme secreted in response to a meal is released in each phase?

A
  1. cephalic-25%
  2. gastric-10-20%
  3. intestinal-50-80%
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13
Q

What are the four primary purposes of saliva?

A
  1. Prevent dehydration of oral mucosa
  2. Lubrication for mastication and swallowing
  3. Assist in maintaining oral hygiene
  4. Taste-dissolving substances for taste
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14
Q

What is a zymogen?

A

an inactive digestive enzyme precursor

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15
Q

List all the ways prostaglandins act to protect the stomach and duodenum from damage due to acid.

A
  1. Inhibit acid secretion directly and inhibiting gastrin and histamine
  2. Stimulate mucus secretion in the stomach
  3. Stimulate bicarb release in the stomach and duodenum
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16
Q

Fill in the table for the two primary secretagogues for pancreatic acinar cells.

A

Do on a separate sheet of paper

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17
Q

Fill in the table for the two primary secretagogues for pancreatic ducts cells.

A

Do on a separate sheet of paper.

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18
Q

Draw a flow chart for fluid secretion by pancreatic acini.

A

Do on a separate sheet of paper.

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19
Q

Draw a flow chart for fluid secretion by pancreatic ducts.

A

Do on a separate sheet of paper.

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20
Q

Proteases are always released from cells as zymogens.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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21
Q

Pepsin can catalyze its own production.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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22
Q

Pepsin can create individual amino acids.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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23
Q

The exocrine function of the pancreas involves the

a. acini
b. islets

A

a. acini

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24
Q

Digestive enzymes are released by _________________ cells in the pancreas.

a. acinar
b. duct
c. both acinar and duct

A

a. acinar

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25
Q

Which cells produce cholecystokinin?

a. D cells
b. G cells
c. I cells
d. S cells

A

c. I cells

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26
Q

Which cells produce secretin?

a. D cells
b. G cells
c. I cells
d. S cells

A

d. S cells

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27
Q

The gastric phase of pancreatic secretion is primarily dependent on

a. acetylcholine
b. cholecystokinin
c. gastrin
d. secretin

A

a. acetylcholine

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28
Q

Saliva is __________-tonic

a. hyper
b. hypo
c. iso

A

b. hypo

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29
Q

Which branch of the nervous system is the primary regulator of salivation?

a. parasympathetic
b. sympathetic
c. somatic

A

a. parasympathetic

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30
Q

More fluid is secreted by pancreatic

a. acinar cells
b. duct cells

A

b. duct cells

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31
Q

You can remove 80% of the pancreas and still have normal digestion.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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32
Q

Secretion of fluid in salivary alveolar cells involves the same mechanisms as in pancreatic acinar cells.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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33
Q

Salivary alveolar cells secrete an isotonic saline.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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34
Q

Saliva contains more

a. Sodium and chloride
b. Potassium and bicarbonate

A

b. Potassium and bicarbonate

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35
Q

The sympathetic nervous system tends to decrease salivation.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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36
Q

Water and electrolytes are absorbed in both the small and large intestine.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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37
Q

Water is actively absorbed out of the intestines.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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38
Q

Which chemical is the primary regulator of pancreatic duct cells?

a. secretin
b. cholecystokinin
c. substance P
d. acetylcholine
e. gastrin

A

a. secretin

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39
Q

What is the primary stimulator of chief cells?

a. norepinephrine
b. gastrin
c. histamine
d. epinephrine
e. acetylcholine

A

e. acetylcholine

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40
Q

Pepsin only becomes active in the stomach when the pH is less than

a. 1
b. 1.5
c. 3
d. 4
e. 2
f. 4.5
g. 5
h. 3.5
i. 2.5

A

h. 3.5

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41
Q

Pepsinogen can spontaneously breakdown into pepsin when the pH is less than

a. 3
b. 2
c. 4
d. 3.5
e. 5
f. 1.5
g. 2.5
h. 4.5
i. 1

A

e. 5

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42
Q

Match the salivary gland with its type of secretion.
a. parotid salivary gland

b. sublingual salivary gland
c. submandibular salivary gland
choices: serous, mucinous, mixed

A

a. serous
b. mucinous
c. mixed

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43
Q

Aldosterone increases sodium absorption in the gut.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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44
Q

Fiber is an important source of energy in humans.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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45
Q

Which enzyme is NOT normally expressed in adult animals?

a. glucoamylase
b. isomaltase
c. lactase
d. sucrase

A

c. lactase

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46
Q

The transport of glucose and galactose across the apical membrane of enterocytes is

a. active
b. passive

A

a. active

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47
Q

Absorption of peptones across the apical membrane of enterocytes is

a. active
b. passive

A

a. active

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48
Q

Absorption of amino acids across the basolateral membrane of enterocytes is

a. active
b. passive

A

b. passive

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49
Q

There are peptidases on the brush border and in the intracellular space of enterocytes.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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50
Q

There are brush border enzymes for the digestion of fats.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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51
Q

Colipase is an enzyme.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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52
Q

Monoglycerides and free fatty acids are transported in chylomicrons out of the enterocyte.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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53
Q

Fats are absorbed into the villous capillaries of the small intestine.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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54
Q

The transport of fructose across the apical membrane of enterocytes is

a. active
b. passive

A

b. passive

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55
Q

The transport of monosaccharides across the basolateral membrane of enterocytes is

a. active
b. passive

A

b. passive

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56
Q

Excess amino acids in our diet are converted to glucose.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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57
Q

Excess fatty acids in our diet are converted to glucose.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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58
Q

Oligopeptides can be transported across the apical membrane of enterocytes.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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59
Q

Chloride absorption is closely linked with sodium absorption in the intestines.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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60
Q

Most chemical digestion occurs in the

a. large intestine
b. mouth
c. small intestine
d. stomach

A

c. small intestine

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61
Q

In the post-prandial period, the absorption of sodium in the small intestine is primarily through

a. ENaC
b. Nutrient cotransport
c. Parallel sodium-hydrogen exchange and chloride-bicarbonate ion exchange
d. Sodium-hydrogen exchange alone

A

b. Nutrient cotransport

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62
Q

Which of the following are electrogenic sodium absorption processes? (Select all that apply)

a. ENaC
b. Nutrient cotransport
c. Parallel sodium-hydrogen exchange and chloride-bicarbonate ion exchange
d. Sodium-hydrogen exchange alone

A

a. ENaC

b. Nutrient cotransport

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63
Q

In the interdigestive period, the absorption of sodium in the small intestine is primarily through

a. ENaC
b. Nutrient cotransport
c. Parallel sodium-hydrogen exchange and chloride-bicarbonate ion exchange
d. Sodium-hydrogen exchange alone

A

c. Parallel sodium-hydrogen exchange and chloride-bicarbonate ion exchange

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64
Q

All nutrients absorbed from the intestines other than fat go to the liver before entering general circulation.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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65
Q

There are no absorptive process for the macronutrients in the large intestine.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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66
Q

Amylase can break (select all that apply)

a. Terminal α-1,4 glucose linkages
b. α-1,4 glucose linkages adjacent to α-1,6 glucose linkages
c. α-1,4 glucose linkages adjacent to other α-1,4 glucose linkages
d. α-1,6 glucose linkages

A

c. α-1,4 glucose linkages adjacent to other α-1,4 glucose linkages

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67
Q

Glucoamylase can break (select all that apply)

a. Terminal α-1,4 glucose linkages
b. α-1,4 glucose linkages adjacent to α-1,6 glucose linkages
c. α-1,4 glucose linkages adjacent to other α-1,4 glucose linkages
d. α-1,6 glucose linkages

A

a. Terminal α-1,4 glucose linkages

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68
Q

Isomaltase can break (select all that apply)

a. Terminal α-1,4 glucose linkages
b. α-1,4 glucose linkages adjacent to α-1,6 glucose linkages
c. α-1,4 glucose linkages adjacent to other α-1,4 glucose linkages
d. α-1,6 glucose linkages

A

a. Terminal α-1,4 glucose linkages
b. α-1,4 glucose linkages adjacent to α-1,6 glucose linkages
c. α-1,4 glucose linkages adjacent to other α-1,4 glucose linkages
d. α-1,6 glucose linkages

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69
Q

Which of the following can generate individual amino acids? (select all that apply)

a. Brush border peptidases
b. Carboxypeptidase
c. Chymotrypsin
d. Intracellular peptidases
e. Pepsin
f. Trypsin

A

a. Brush border peptidases
b. Carboxypeptidase
d. Intracellular peptidases

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70
Q

Bile salts can __________________ fats, which means to create very small droplets of fat coated in water.

A

emulsify

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71
Q

What protein transports sodium across the basolateral membrane of enterocytes?

A

Na+/K+ pump

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72
Q

Starch is a polymer of what monosaccharide?

A

Glucose

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73
Q

What protein transports glucose and galactose across the apical membrane of enterocytes?

A

SGLT1

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74
Q

Which is the largest water-soluble vitamin humans need?

A

Vitamin B12

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75
Q

What protein transports fructose across the apical membrane of enterocytes?

A

GLUT5

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76
Q

What protein transports monosaccharides across the basolateral membrane of enterocytes?

A

GLUT2

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77
Q

What protein helps increase the rate of fat digestion by holding lipase near a fat droplet?

A

colipase

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78
Q

How do monoglycerine and free fatty acids get across the apical membrane of enterocytes?

A

simple diffusion

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79
Q

What two monosaccharides form sucrose?

A

glucose and fructose

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80
Q

What two monosaccharides form lactose?

A

galactose and glucose

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81
Q

What are the three products of amylopectin digestion by amylase?

A
  1. maltose
  2. maltotriose
  3. alpha-limited dextrins
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82
Q

What are the three pancreatic peptidases?

A
  1. trypsin
  2. chymotrypsin
  3. carboxypeptidase
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83
Q

What are three components of chylomicrons?

A
  1. triglycerides
  2. phospholipids
  3. proteins
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84
Q

Draw a flow chart the absorption and blood transport of vitamin B12

A

won’t have to draw on exam, but will have to know content for questions

85
Q

Draw a flow chart for the digestion and absorption of lipids.

A

won’t have to draw on exam, but will have to know content for questions

86
Q

Heme iron is more bioavailable than ionic iron.

a. True
b. False

87
Q

The SRY gene is expressed throughout the life of a person with a Y chromosome and testes.

a. True
b. False

88
Q

Only ____________________ iron can be absorbed by and enterocyte.

a. Ferric (Fe3+)
b. Ferrous (Fe2+)

A

b. Ferrous (Fe2+)

89
Q

Ionized iron is toxic in the body.

a. True
b. False

90
Q

The amount of iron in the body is regulated by regulating the

a. Absorption of iron
b. Both the excretion and absorption of iron
c. Excretion of iron

A

a. Absorption of iron

91
Q

Most trace minerals are absorbed in the same way that iron is absorbed in an enterocyte.

a. True
b. False

92
Q

Hepatic sinusoids have a lower oxygen concretion than most systemic capillaries.

a. True
b. False

93
Q

Which portal acinar zone has the most oxygen available?

a. Zone I
b. Zone II
c. Zone III

94
Q

The bile canaliculi are formed by the ___________________ membranes of hepatocytes.

a. Apical
b. Basolateral

95
Q

The liver production of bile is regulated by the presence of lipids in the duodenum.

a. True
b. False

96
Q

Most of the bile salts that are secreted by the liver are

a. Recycled bile salts
b. Bile salts that the liver synthesized just before secretion

A

a. Recycled bile salts

97
Q

The bilirubin produced by the spleen is very

a. hydrophilic
b. lipophilic

A

b. lipophilic

98
Q

Liver damage can cause urine to be

a. darker yellow
b. lighter yellow

A

b. lighter yellow

99
Q

In the digestive system, ENaC is primarily found in the

a. jejunum
b. duodenum
c. ileum
d. distal colon
e. proximal colon

A

d. distal colon

100
Q

Most absorption of sodium using nutrient cotransporters happens in the

a. ileum
b. jejunum
c. duodenum
d. proximal colon
e. distal colon

A

b. jejunum

101
Q

Most absorption of sodium using sodium-hydrogen exchangers happens in the

a. ileum
b. proximal colon
c. duodenum
d. jejunum
e. distal colon

A

d. jejunum

102
Q

Which nutrient(s) has/have the slowest absorption rate in the intestines?

a. B vitamins
b. vitamin C
c. lipids
d. monosaccharides
e. iron
f. amino acids

103
Q

Which of the following enzymes are on the small intestine brush border? (select all that apply)

a. pepsin
b. sucrase
c. glucoamylase
d. carboxypeptidase
e. trypsin
f. chymotrypsin
g. isomaltase
h. amalyse
i. lactase

A

b. sucrase
c. glucoamylase
g. isomaltase
i. lactase

104
Q

Most of the biotransformation done by hepatocytes makes molecules more

a. Nonpolar
b. Polar

105
Q

What becomes the epididymis, vas deferens, seminal vesicle and ejaculatory duct?

a. The Mullerian ducts
b. The Wolffian ducts

A

b. The Wolffian ducts

106
Q

Which has a higher affinity for the androgen receptor?

a. Dihydrotestosterone
b. Testosterone

A

a. Dihydrotestosterone

107
Q

Which is considered the default sex?

a. Female
b. Male

108
Q

The liver can excrete substances by secreting them into the _________________.

109
Q

What is the name of the protein that iron binds to in enterocytes?

A

mobilferrin

110
Q

What are the resident macrophages of the liver called?

A

Kupffer cells

111
Q

What is the primary precursor molecule for the production of bile salts?

A

cholesterol

112
Q

What is the name of the protein that iron binds to in the blood?

A

transferrin

113
Q

What gene is responsible for the development of a testis?

114
Q

What hormone is secreted by embryotic Sertoli cells?

A

Mullerian-inhibiting substance (MIS)

115
Q

What hormone is secreted by Leydig cells?

A

testosterone

116
Q

What do bile duct cells secrete?

A

sodium bicarbonate

117
Q

How long does it take for a primary spermatocyte to become a spermatozoon?

118
Q

If the sphincter of Oddi is closed, where does the bile produced by the liver go?

A

gallbladder

119
Q

What is the main purpose of bile?

A

emulsify fats

120
Q

What hormone is needed for the development of the penis, scrotum and prostate gland?

A

dihydrotestosterone

121
Q

What is the female gonad, and what does it produce?

A

ovary-estrogens, progesterone, ovum

122
Q

What is the male gonad, and what does it produce?

A

Testis-testosterone, sperm

123
Q

What are two effects of cholecystokinin related to bile secretion?

A
  1. gallbladder contraction

2. relaxation of the sphincter of Oddi

124
Q

Most phase I transformations in hepatocytes are catalyzed by which class of enzymes? What reaction is catalyzed by these enzymes?

A

cytochrome p-450-adds oxygen molecule to hydrogen to create a hydroxy group

125
Q

The two axes of a portal acinus are formed by connecting which structures? (Which structure are connected in one axis and which are connected in the other axis?)

A

one axis connects two central veins

one axis connects two portal triads

126
Q

Which cells are found in the space of Disse in the liver and what is their function?

A

stellate cells, store vitamin A

127
Q

What happens in a phase II transformation in hepatocytes?

A

conjugate a large polar molecule to a product of phase I transformations

128
Q

What are the six functions of the liver discussed in the lecture, and which is the only digestive function?

A
  1. Bile production-only digestive function
  2. Storage of nutrients
  3. Interconversion of nutrients
  4. Detoxification
  5. Phagocytosis
  6. Synthesis of blood components
129
Q

Why can the kidney not excrete lipophilic molecules very well into the urine?

A

Since they diffuse through cell membranes they cannot be concentrated in the urine. As water is reabsorbed their concentration in the filtrate would increase so diffusion gradients will develop causing the lipophilic molecule to follow the water.

130
Q

What causes the yellow tinge to the skin and sclera of the eyes in jaundice? Be complete in your answer.

A

The liver is damaged so it cannot conjugate bilirubin to make it more polar. Therefore Bilirubin cannot be concentrated in urine and builds up in the body. It is this bilirubin that causes the yellow tinge.

131
Q

Draw a flow chart for the main mechanism of concentrating bile in the gallbladder.

A

Don’t need to write on exam, but know because there will be questions on it.

132
Q

Draw a sperm cell and label all the parts that were discussed in the video.

A

Draw on a separate sheet of paper.

133
Q

What becomes the uterus, Fallopian tubes and inner vagina?

a. The Wolffian ducts
b. The Mullerian ducts

A

b. The Mullerian ducts

134
Q

You would expect phase I transformation to occur primarily in zone _____ of a portal acinus.

a. II
b. I
c. III

135
Q

The fluid in the lumen of a seminiferous tubule is secreted by

a. Granulosa cell
b. Theca cells
c. Sertoli cells
d. Leydig cells

A

c. Sertoli cells

136
Q

About ______ percent of the water secreted by hepatocytes with the bile salts is removed in the gallbladder.

a. 80
b. 70
c. 50
d. 90
e. 60

137
Q

Approximately how many spermatozoa are produced each day?

a. 300,000
b. 3,000,000
c. 3,000,000,000
d. 300
e. 3000
f. 30,000,000
g. 30,000
h. 300,000,000

A

f. 30,000,000

138
Q

Sperm moves from the seminiferous tubules to the epididymis by

a. fluid pressure
b. peristalsis

A

a. fluid pressure

139
Q

Emission and ejaculation are dependent on the _______________________ nervous system

a. parasympathetic
b. sympathetic

A

b. sympathetic

140
Q

Menstrual cycle length is very consistent between females and within the same female throughout the reproductive years.

a. True
b. False

141
Q

There are no oogonia in a female baby at birth.

a. True
b. False

142
Q

Most of the oocytes present at puberty will be ovulated.

a. True
b. False

143
Q

Two Graafian follicles are necessary to have ___________________ twins.

a. fraternal
b. identical

A

a. fraternal

144
Q

In early secondary follicles, luteinizing hormone acts on

a. granulosa cells
b. theca cells

A

b. theca cells

145
Q

In early secondary follicles, follicle stimulating hormone acts on

a. granulosa cells
b. theca cells

A

a. granulosa cells

146
Q

Granulosa cells in dominate follicles express _____, which are not expressed by these cells in less developed follicles.

a. follicle stimulating hormone receptors
b. luteinizing hormone receptors

A

b. luteinizing hormone receptors

147
Q

What is the specific term that is used for the movement of sperm from the epididymis to the urethra?

148
Q

What is the term that refers to the movement of semen through the urethra?

A

ejaculation

149
Q

What is the average length of the menstrual cycle?

150
Q

What is the average range for the length of menses?

151
Q

Approximately how many follicles will be sensitive to pituitary hormones at the beginning of the menstrual cycle?

A

10-25 follicles

152
Q

If there is no fertilization, about how long does a corpus luteum last?

A

10-14 days

153
Q

What hormones are produced by granulosa cells?

A

Estrogens, inhibin, a little progesterone

154
Q

What hormone is produced by theca cells?

A

Androstenedione

155
Q

What hormones are produced by luteal cells?

A

Progesterone, inhibin, estrogens

156
Q

Luteal cells develop from which two cell types?

A

Granulocytes/theca cells

157
Q

What are the two primary active hormones that are produced from testosterone in the male and what enzyme is necessary to produce each?

A

Dihydrotestosterone-alpha 5-reductase

Estradiol-aromatase

158
Q

When does the first meiotic division of oogenesis occur?

A

just before ovulation

159
Q

When does the second meiotic division of oogenesis occur?

A

right after fertilization

160
Q

What is a polar body in relation to oogenesis?

A

When an oocyte divides by meiosis one cell gets most of the cytoplasm and organelles, and the other cell mostly just has a nucleus with half of the DNA. This smaller cell is a polar body.

161
Q

Describe the production of estradiol in the follicle.

A

Theca cells convert cholesterol into androstenedione, which diffuses out of the theca cells into the granulosa cells. The granulosa cells convert the androstenedione to estrogens including estradiol.

162
Q

List the effects of testosterone in the male by organ.

A

brain-increase in libado (sex drive)
kidney-increase in erythropoietin secretion
bone-maintains bone density
skin-stimulate facial and body hair growth and baldness
male sex organs-stimulate spermatogenesis, stimulate prostate growth, plays role in erection
muscle-stimulate muscle growth and increased strength

163
Q

Draw a flow chart for the mechanism of penile erection.

A

Don’t have to write, but better know it

164
Q

Draw a flow chart for the hypothalamic-pituitary-testis axis.

A

Don’t have to write, but better know

165
Q

Draw the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovary axis during the early follicular phase.

A

Don’t have to write, but better know

166
Q

Most of the oocytes that are present at birth will die before puberty.

a. True
b. False

167
Q

Emission is caused by

a. peristalsis
b. fluid pressure

A

a. peristalsis

168
Q

The concentration of sperm is highest in the

a. epididymis
b. seminiferous tubules

A

a. epididymis

169
Q

Seminal vesicles are innervated by the

a. somatic nervous system
b. parasympathetic nervous system
c. sympathetic nervous system

A

c. sympathetic nervous system

170
Q

The production of a mucus plug by the uterine cervix is stimulated by

a. estrogen
b. progesterone

A

b. progesterone

171
Q

The ovum is propelled through the oviduct via

a. cilia
b. paristaltic contractions
c. both cilia and paristaltic contractions

A

c. both cilia and paristaltic contractions

172
Q

Protein-protein interactions between the zona pellucida and sperm is necessary for fertilization.

a. True
b. False

173
Q

The definitive oocyte (ovum) develops

a. in the ovary
b. in the oviduct before fertilization
c. in the oviduct after fertilization

A

c. in the oviduct after fertilization

174
Q

The first mitotic division of the fertilized egg occurs about _____________________ after fertilization.

a. 12 hours
b. 24 hours
c. 36 hours
d. 48 hours

A

b. 24 hours

175
Q

The development of identical twin requires

a. an early zygote to split
b. two dominate follicles
c. two sperm to fertilize one oocyte

A

a. an early zygote to split

176
Q

Once in the uterus, the zygote attaches to the luminal surface of the endometrium.

a. True
b. False

177
Q

All pregnant individuals develop morning sickness and some point during their pregnancy.

a. True
b. False

178
Q

Fetal blood is completely separated from maternal blood.

a. True
b. False

179
Q

Myelination of neurons occurs within the

a. first trimester
b. second trimester
c. third trimester

A

c. third trimester

180
Q

Death of the mother was a common outcome of pregnancy before modern medicine.

a. True
b. False

181
Q

As the cells divide in a zygote before 6 days after fertilization, the overall size of the zygote increases.

a. True
b. False

182
Q

Sperm can stay viable for up to two weeks in the female reproductive tract.

a. True
b. False

183
Q

Many defective sperm are produced in a healthy male.

a. True
b. False

184
Q

The process that occurs in the oviduct that enables sperm to fertilize an oocyte is called
_________________.

A

capacitation

185
Q

What specific layer of the uterus sloughs off during menses?

A

stratum functionalis of the endometrium

186
Q

What tissue is the precursor of bone for most bones?

187
Q

What event in the ovary corresponds to the switch from the proliferative phase to the secretory phase of the uterus?

188
Q

What hormone exerts a permissive effect for progesterone?

189
Q

What is the usual range for volume of blood lost during menstruation?

190
Q

What structure is altered after one sperm enters the oocyte that prevents other sperm from entering?

A

zona pellucida

191
Q

What is in the secretions of the uterine glands?

A
  1. glycogen
  2. mucopolysaccharides
  3. glycoproteins
192
Q

What is present in the acrosome and what is its purpose?

A

enzymes that digest through the zona pellucida

193
Q

What can cause morning sickness in pregnant individuals?

A

hormone changes

194
Q

What are the three phases of the menstrual cycle in the uterus in order from shortest to longest?

A
  1. menstrual phase
  2. proliferative
  3. secretory
195
Q

What is gastrulation?

A

conceptus becoming a 3 layered, 3 dimensional structure

196
Q

What prevents the mother’s immune system from destroying the zygote?

A

conceptus releases factors to suppress maternal immune system

197
Q

What are the three layers of the embryo and what develops from each layer?

A
  1. endoderm-lungs, liver, lining of digestive tract
  2. mesoderm-blood, bone, heart, skeletal muscles
  3. ectoderm-central nervous system, skin, hair
198
Q

Why must the heart start beating early in embryonic development?

A

the embryo quickly becomes too large for diffusion to deliver nutrients and remove waste products

199
Q

What effects does progesterone have on the myometrium?

A

inhibits uterine contraction

200
Q

What effects does progesterone have on the endometrium?

A
  1. stimulates uterine gland coiling
  2. stimulates uterine gland secretion
  3. stimulates blood vessel infiltration
201
Q

Draw a flow chart for the mechanisms of menses.

A

know the content, but won’t have to draw on the final

202
Q

Draw the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovary axis during the late follicular phase.

A

won’t have to draw, but will have to know content for the exam

203
Q

Draw the hypothalamic-pituitary-ovary axis during the luteal phase.

A

won’t have to draw, but know the content for the final

204
Q

Draw a flow chart for ovulation.

A

won’t have to draw, but know info for final

205
Q

Draw graphs of the changes in luteinizing hormone, follicle stimulating hormone, estrogen and
progesterone throughout the menstrual cycle. Draw the two pituitary hormones on one graph
and the two steroid hormones on another graph underneath with the same X-axis. Label the X-
axis and Y-axis including values. Label ovulation.

A

will have to draw on final

206
Q

Fertilization occurs in the

a. ovary
b. vagina
c. oviduct
d. uterus

A

c. oviduct

207
Q

After ovulation, and oocyte is viable for about

a. 2 days
b. 24 hours
c. 4 hours
d. 2 weeks
e. 1 week

A

b. 24 hours

208
Q

Approximately ________________________ fertilized eggs do not develop.

a. 33%
b. 50%
c. 10%
d. 75%
e. 90%
f. 25%
g. 67%

209
Q

Normally it takes about ________________ for sperm to reach the oviduct.

a. 6 days
b. 30 minutes
c. 6 hours
d. 3 hours
e. 3 days

A

b. 30 minutes

Anatomy and Physiology Exams (7 decks)

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