Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

At the optic chiasm

A

All axons from the ganglion cells on the medial side of the retina cross to the contralateral side of the brain.

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2
Q

Put the following in order from when you would have the highest action potential frequency to the lowest action potential frequency in an off-center ganglion cell.

a. Light hits only the receptive field
b. Light hits only the receptive field surround
c. Light hits the whole receptive field

A

b, c, a

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3
Q

Put the following in order from when you would have the highest action potential frequency to the lowest action potential frequency in an on-center ganglion.

a. Light hits only the receptive field
b. Light hits only the receptive field surround
c. Light hits the whole receptive field

A

a, c, b

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4
Q

An on center ganglion has a red cone center and a blue cone surround. Put the following in order from when you would have the highest action potential frequency to the lowest action potential frequency.

a. No light is shown in the receptive field
b. Red light is shone over the entire receptive field
c. Violet light is shone over the entire receptive field
d. White light is shown over the entire receptive field.

A

b, a, d, c

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5
Q

Ganglion cells synapse in which thalamic nucleus?

A

Lateral geniculate nucleus

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6
Q

What is the abbreviation for the glutamate receptor on on-center bipolar cells? What type of receptor is it?

A

mGluR6-glutamate G sub i G protein coupled receptor

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7
Q

What is the abbreviation for the glutamate receptor on off-center bipolar cells? What type of receptor is it?

A

AMPA- non specific cation channel receptor

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8
Q

The cochlear duct is filled with _______, which is high in _________.

A

Endolymph, Potassium

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9
Q

The scala vestubuli and the scala tympani are connected at the ___________, which is at the apex of the cochlea.

A

Helicotrema

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10
Q

What do ceruminous glands produce?

A

Earwax

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11
Q

What is the scientific name for the eardrum used in the videos?

A

Tympanic Membrane

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12
Q

What are the two terms used in the lecture for the part of the external ear that is visible when looking at a person?

A

Pinna

Auricle

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13
Q

List the ossicles in order from most external to the most internal.

A

Malleus, Incus, Stapes

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14
Q

What are two names for the tube that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx? What is the purpose of this tube?

A

Auditory/Eustachian tube- They equalize the pressure in the middle ear with atmospheric pressure.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of the auditory ossicles?

A

To amplify sound waves from the tympanic membrane to the oval window.

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16
Q

In the light, on center bipolar cells are?

A

Depolarized

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17
Q

On-center bipolar cells have?

A

mGluR6

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18
Q

The scala tympani is filled with ______, which is high in _______?

A

Perilymph, Sodium

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19
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. all the information from the left eye is processed on the left side of the brain
b. all the information from the left eye is processed on the right side of the brain
c. all the information from the left visual field is processed on the left side of the brain
d. all the information from the left visual field is processed on the right side of the brain

A

d. all the information from the left visual field is processed on the right side of the brain

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20
Q

You would see the highest frequency of action potentials in a off-center ganglion cell when there is?

a. light in both the center and surround
b. light in the center and dark in the surround
c. dark in both the center and surround
d. light in the surround and dark in the center

A

d. light in the surround and dark in the center

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21
Q

Hair cells can be replaced if they are damaged.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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22
Q

Hair cells release neurotransmitter/paracrine agent in bursts in time with the vibrations in the basilar
membrane.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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23
Q

If you are moving at a constant velocity, your ears give you the sensation that you are not moving.

A

a. True

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24
Q

In the utricle, all the hair cells are oriented with their kinocilium toward one side of the body.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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25
Sound waves are waves of more pressurized and less pressurized air. a. True b. False
a. True
26
Sound waves are caused by vibrations. a. True b. False
a. True
27
The semi-circular canals are all at right angles to each other. a. True b. False
a. True
28
There are action potentials being fired in vestibular afferents when the stereocilia of a vestibular hair cell are pointing straight up. a. True b. False
a. True
29
There is a form of lateral inhibition in the auditory system. a. True b. False
a. True
30
Higher frequency sound waves cause the basilar membrane closer to the _________________ to vibrate. a. Helicotrema b. Oval window
b. Oval window
31
Our sensation of sound comes from the activation of a. Inner hair cells b. Outer hair cells
a. Inner hair cells
32
When the sterocilia of an auditory hair cell are deflected toward the tallest sterocilia a. The tip links pull on the potassium channels b. The tip links stop pulling on the potassium channels
a. The tip links pull on the potassium channels
33
When the sterocilia of an auditory hair cell are deflected toward the tallest sterocilia a. The hair cell depolarizes b. The hair cell hyperpolarizes
a. The hair cell depolarizes
34
Head tilt is detected in the a. Saccule b. Semi-circular canals c. Utricle
c. Utricle
35
Horizontal acceleration is detected in the a. Saccule b. Semi-circular canals c. Utricle
c. Utricle
36
Horizontal acceleration is detected in the a. Saccule b. Semi-circular canals c. Utricle
c. Utricle
37
The _________________ tells you if you are falling. a. Saccule b. Semi-circular canals c. Utricle
a. Saccule
38
The faster something vibrates, the _________________ the perceived sound. a. Higher pitched b. Louder c. Lower pitched d. Softer
Higher pitched
39
The larger the pressure difference between the compressed and rarified air in a sound wave, the _______________________ the perceived sound. a. Higher pitched b. Louder c. Lower pitched d. Softer
b. Louder
40
Vestibular information is used in reflexes to control a. Eye muscles b. Postural muscles c. Both eye muscles and postural muscles d. Neither eye muscles nor postural muscles
c. Both eye muscles and postural muscles
41
Vestibular information is used in reflexes to control a. Eye muscles b. Postural muscles c. Both eye muscles and postural muscles d. Neither eye muscles nor postural muscles
c. Both eye muscles and postural muscles
42
Hair cells release a. Acetylcholine b. Dopamine c. Epinephrine d. GABA e. Glutamate f. Glycine g. Norepinephrine h. Serotonin
e. Glutamate
43
The sterocilia of auditory hair cells project toward the _________ membrane.
Tectorial
44
``` If the semi-circular canal above started to spin in a counter-clockwise direction, the stereocilia of the hair cells in the cupula would a. Be deflected to the left b. Be deflected to the right c. Not be deflected ```
a. Be deflected to the left
45
If the semi-circular canal above continued to spin in a counter-clockwise direction at the same angle and speed, after a few seconds the stereocilia of the hair cells in the cupula would a. Be deflected to the left b. Be deflected to the right c. Not be deflected
c. Not be deflected
46
``` If the semi-circular canal above suddenly stopped a counter-clockwise rotation, the stereocilia of the hair cells in the cupula would a. Be deflected to the left b. Be deflected to the right c. Not be deflected ```
b. Be deflected to the right
47
What brain location is responsible for the reflex of a sudden loud sound causing a person to look toward the sound?
Inferior colliculus nucleus
48
Some people feel motion sickness when there is a disconnect between which two senses?
Vision and vestibular sensation
49
What two things does the vestibular system detect?
Acceleration and head tilt
50
What three senses give us our sense of posture and movement?
Vestibular, proprioception and vision
51
What is the purpose of outer hair cells? How does this work?
They are important in protecting the inner hair cells from overstimulation and are important in localizing the vibrations to the correct area of the basilar membrane for the correct frequency. They do this by pushing up on the tectorial membrane when the vibrations are very large to prevent the overstimulation, and pushing up on the membrane on either side of the area of most vibration to help localize the frequency.
52
Draw a flow chart for vibrations in the air lead to vibrations in the basilar membrane.
-Vibrations in the tympanic membrane -Middle ear bones move in time with the vibrations in the tympanic membrane -Oval window membrane vibrates in time with the vibrations in the tympanic membrane -Perilymph in the scala vestibule vibrates in time with the vibrations in the tympanic membrane -Basilar membrane vibrates in time with the vibrations in the tympanic membrane in a location on the membrane that corresponds with that frequency
53
Draw a flow chart for pathway of auditory information from the hair cell to the auditory cortex (include the lobe of the brain where the auditory cortex is).
- Hair cell synapses onto cochlear nerve afferents - Cochlear nerve joins with the vestibular nerve to form the vestibulocochlear nerve - Cochlear afferents synapse in the cochlear nucleus - Second order neurons project from the cochlear nucleus to the superior olivary nucleus - Third order neurons project from the olivary nucleus to the inferior colliculus - Fourth order neurons project from the inferior colliculus to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus - Fifth order neurons project from the medial geniculate nucleus to the auditory cortex in the temporal lobe
54
Glutamate causes on-center bipolar cells to
Hyperpolarize
55
Glutamate causes on-center ganglion cells to
Depolarize
56
Glutamate causes off-center bipolar cells to
Depolarize
57
All ganglion cells have AMPA receptors.
True
58
The center-surround relationship in the retina gives us a greater ability to see a lion hiding in the grass.
True
59
The visual cortex is in the
occipital lobe
60
The Organ of Corti sits on the
basilar membrane
61
The basilar membrane is
Wide near the apex and narrow near the base
62
Farmed fruit is much sweeter than wild fruit.
True
63
Taste cells can be replaced.
True
64
Olfactory neurons can be replaced.
True
65
Taste cells are (what kind of cell)
epithelial cells
66
There are several scientific studies to show that monosodium glutamate (MSG) has negative effects in the body.
false
67
The sour receptor is a
Ion channel
68
The best characterized receptor for umami is a
Gi protein coupled receptor
69
Third order neurons in the taste pathway synapse in the
parietal lobe
70
The olfactory epithelium is
nervous tissue
71
Activation of odorant receptors leads to activation of protein kinase A and phosphorylation of a non-specific cation channel. a. True b. False
b. False
72
We have about 10,000 different odorant receptors.
False
73
Most of our sense of taste comes from activation of olfactory receptors. a. True b. False
a. True
74
Olfactory hairs are normally covered in mucus. a. True b. False
a. True
75
One neuron will innervate several skeletal muscle fibers. a. True b. False
a. True
76
One skeletal muscle fiber will be innervated by several neurons. a. True b. False
b. False
77
One type of odorant receptor will bind more than one type of odorant. a. True b. False
a. True
78
One type of odorant will bind to more than one type of odorant receptor. a. True b. False
a. True
79
Some second order olfactory neurons project directly to the cerebral cortex without synapsing in the thalamus. a. True b. False
a. True
80
The mechanism of release of paracrine agent by taste cells is very similar to the mechanism of neurotransmitter release from neurons. a. True b. False
a. True
81
The primary odorant in bananas and the primary odorant in beaver musk actives some of the same receptors. a. True b. False
a. True
82
Receptors for somatic sensation are important to our sense of taste. a. True b. False
a. True
83
First order olfactory neurons _______________________ onto second order neurons. a. Converge b. Diverge
a. Converge
84
The fluid in the T-tubules is high in a. Potassium b. Sodium
b. Sodium
85
The GOLF protein in most similar to a. Gi proteins b. Gq proteins c. Gs proteins
c. Gs proteins
86
Protein kinase A phosphorylates a ___________________ channel in umami taste cells. a. Calcium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Sodium
a. Calcium
87
Phosphorylation of the above channel in the umami taste cell causes the channel to a. Close b. Open
a. Close
88
Activation of the umami receptor causes the above channel to be a. Dephosphorylated b. Phosphorylated
a. Dephosphorylated
89
Protein kinase A phosphorylates a ___________________ channel in sweet taste cells. a. Calcium b. Chloride c. Potassium d. Sodium
c. Potassium
90
Phosphorylation of the above channel in the sweet taste cell causes the channel to a. Close b. Open
a. Close
91
Activation of the sweet receptor causes the above channel to be a. Dephosphorylated b. Phosphorylated
b. Phosphorylated
92
Children have a natural aversion to _________________. Many toxins activate taste receptors for this taste. a. Bitter b. Salty c. Savory d. Sour e. Sweet
a. Bitter
93
There are the most different types of receptors for a. Bitter b. Salty c. Sour d. Sweet e. Umami
a. Bitter
94
What nerve innervates the taste cells on the inferior surface of the tongue? a. The accessory nerve b. The facial nerve c. The glossopharyngeal nerve d. The hypoglossal nerve e. The trochlear nerve f. The vagus nerve
c. The glossopharyngeal nerve
95
What nerve innervates the taste cells on the soft palate and pharynx? a. The accessory nerve b. The facial nerve c. The glossopharyngeal nerve d. The hypoglossal nerve e. The trochlear nerve f. The vagus nerve
f. The vagus nerve
96
What nerve innervates the taste cells on the superior surface of the tongue? a. The accessory nerve b. The facial nerve c. The glossopharyngeal nerve d. The hypoglossal nerve e. The trochlear nerve f. The vagus nerve
b. The facial nerve
97
Taste cells are found on (select all that apply) a. The nasal cavity b. The palate c. The pharynx d. The tongue
b. The palate c. The pharynx d. The tongue
98
What is the scientific name for taste used in the video?
Gustation
99
What is the scientific name for smell used in the video?
Olfaction
100
What is the proposed paracrine agent that is released by taste cells onto their sensory afferent?
ATP
101
What is the purpose of lingual papillae in humans according to the video?
Increase surface area for taste cells
102
What is the purpose of the taste hairs?
Increase surface area for taste receptors
103
First order taste afferents synapse in which nucleus in the brain?
Nucleus of the solitary tract
104
Second order neurons in the taste pathway synapse in which thalamic nucleus?
Ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus
105
First order olfactory neurons synapse in which area of the brain?
The olfactory bulb
106
What are the two names for the second order neurons in the olfactory pathway?
Mitral cells/tufted cells
107
Besides projecting to the cerebral cortex and thalamus, what three other brain regions can second order olfactory neurons project to? What role does olfactory information play in each of these regions?
Hypothalamus—hunger, sexual arousal in animals Amygdala—emotional aspects of smell (primarily fear in animals) Hippocampus—odor memory
108
What six factors affect our olfactory discrimination as mentioned in the video?
``` Attention Hunger Biological sex Cigarette smoking Age The state of the nasal mucosa ```
109
What are the four properties of all muscle as mentioned in the video?
They contract They are excitable They are extensible They are elastic
110
What are the three proteins found in the thin myofilament?
Actin Troponin Tropomyosin
111
What are the two proteins found in the thick myofilament?
Myosin heavy chain | Myosin light chain
112
The myosin head has binding site for which three molecules?
ATP/ADP Myosin light chains Actin
113
Sound waves are waves of compressed and rarefied air True False
True
114
The stapedius and tensor tympani can protect your auditory hair cells from sudden, loud noises. a. True b. False
b. False
115
Stopping a constant forward motion feels the same to the vestibular system as starting a backward motion. a. True b. False
a. True
116
Opening a potassium channel in a hair cell cause the cell to a. depolarize b. hyperpolarize
a. depolarize
117
The vestibular cortex is in the a. parietal lobe b. occipital lobe c. temporal lobe d. frontal lobe
a. parietal lobe
118
A single odorant usually only activates one type of olfactory receptor. a. True b. False
b. False
119
The bumps you see on your tongue are the taste buds. a. True b. False
b. False
120
Actin is found in the a. Thick myofilament b. Thin myofilament
b. Thin myofilament
121
The best understood receptors for bitter taste are a. a Gs protein coupled receptor b. a Gq protein coupled receptor c. an ion channel d. a Gi protein coupled receptor
b. a Gq protein coupled receptor
122
The sweet receptor is a. an ion channel b. a Gs protein coupled receptor c. a Gq protein coupled receptor d. a Gi protein coupled receptor
b. a Gs protein coupled receptor
123
The actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction. a. True b. False
b. False
124
The myosin head binds to actin when it is a. dephosphorylated b. phosphorylated
b. phosphorylated
125
The I subunit of troponin binds to a. actin b. calcium c. myosin d. tropomyosin
a. actin
126
Alpha motor neurons release a. glycine b. norepinephrine c. epinephrine d. GABA e. dopamine f. serotonin g. glutamate h. acetylcholine
h. acetylcholine
127
What is the name of the large protein that attaches myosin to the Z disk?
Titin
128
A single action potential in an alpha motor neuron is sufficient to cause an action potential in a skeletal muscle fiber. a. True b. False
a. True
129
Calcium must come through the L-type calcium channel in order for the ryanodine receptor to open in skeletal muscle cells. a. True b. False
b. False
130
During the contraction phase of a skeletal muscle twitch, all the active sites on actin are exposed in the cells. a. True b. False
a. True
131
L-type calcium channels are present throughout the plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle cell. a. True b. False
b. False
132
More calcium enters the cytoplasm from the sarcoplasmic reticulum than from the extracellular fluid in response to an action potential in a skeletal muscle cell. a. True b. False
a. True
133
There are voltage-gated sodium channels in the T-tubules. a. True b. False
a. True
134
The lag phase is longer in a a. Isometric contraction b. Isotonic contraction
b. Isotonic contraction
135
Which phase is longer in an isometric skeletal muscle contraction? a. Contraction b. Relaxation
b. Relaxation
136
If the load on a skeletal muscle equals the tension developed by that skeletal muscle, you get a(n) _________________________ contraction. a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Isometric
c. Isometric
137
If the load on a skeletal muscle is greater than the tension developed by that skeletal muscle, you get a(n) _________________________ contraction. a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Isometric
b. Eccentric
138
If the load on a skeletal muscle is less than the tension developed by that skeletal muscle, you get a(n) _________________________ contraction. a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Isometric
a. Concentric
139
You are more likely to injure a muscle with ____________________ contractions. a. Concentric b. Eccentric c. Isometric
b. Eccentric
140
During contraction a. The A band gets shorter b. The I band gets shorter c. The H zone gets shorter d. Both the A band and the I band get shorter e. Both the A band and the H zone get shorter f. Both the I band and the H zone get shorter g. Neither the A band, I band nor H zone get shorter
f. Both the I band and the H zone get shorter
141
Each thick myofilament is in contact with how many thin myofilaments? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7 h. 8 i. 9 j. 10
f. 6
142
Each thin myofilament is in contact with how many thick myofilaments? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4 e. 5 f. 6 g. 7 h. 8 i. 9 j. 10
c. 3
143
A lack of ATP in a skeletal muscle cell will cause which of the following? (select all that apply) a. Calcium levels to rise in the cell b. The myosin head to stay bound to actin c. The myosin head to stay in the cocked position
b. The myosin head to stay bound to actin | c. The myosin head to stay in the cocked position
144
Which of the following is connected to the Z disk in skeletal muscle? (select all that apply) a. Actin b. Myosin c. Titin
a. Actin | c. Titin
145
Which of the following can you find in the I band? (select all that apply) a. Actin b. Myosin c. The H zone d. The M line e. The Z disk
a. Actin | e. The Z disk
146
Which of the following can you find in the A band? (select all that apply) a. Actin b. Myosin c. The H zone d. The M line e. The Z disk
a. Actin b. Myosin c. The H zone d. The M line
147
Put the steps of the cross-bridge cycle in skeletal muscle in order started from the first exposure of the actin active sites. a. ATP binds to the myosin head b. Conformational change in myosin head causes the myosin head to dephosphorylate c. Conformational change in the myosin head causes the myosin head loses affinity for and dissociate from actin d. Myosin head autophosphorylates e. Myosin head binds to actin f. Myosin head moves to the cocked position g. Powerstroke
e, b, g, a, c, d, f
148
A single alpha motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibers it innervates is called a _______________.
motor unit
149
Nerve gas blocks _______________.
acetylcholinesterase
150
The time between when you get an action potential in a skeletal muscle cell or alpha motor neuron to the start of contraction is called the ________________.
lag phase
151
Paralytic drugs are usually ________________ receptor | __________(agonists/antagonists).
1. nicotinic | 2. antagonists
152
Botulinum toxin cause the breakdown of what proteins?
SNARE proteins
153
What is the post-synaptic density called in a skeletal muscle cell?
Motor end plate
154
What is the segment of a skeletal muscle cell that goes from one Z disk to the next Z disk called?
Sarcomere
155
What neurotransmitter is released by alpha motor neurons?
Acetylcholine
156
What protein was mentioned as contributing to the extensibility and elasticity of skeletal muscle, as well as helping to keep myosin in register in the myofibril.
Titin
157
What receptor for neurotransmitter is present on skeletal muscle cells?
Nicotinic receptors
158
What is the name of the two calcium binding proteins in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and what is their purpose?
1. Calsequestrin and calreticulin 2. They allow for more calcium to be stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum by decreasing the concentration gradient for the calcium/hydrogen pump to work against.
159
What are the three subunits of troponin and what do each of the subunits bind to?
I—binds to actin C—binds to calcium T—binds to tropomyosin
160
In population coding, if I want to increase the tension developed in a muscle, what does the body do?
Recruits more motor units (fires more alpha motor neurons to that muscle)
161
During muscle fatigue, there is a substantial decrease in ATP in the cell. a. True b. False
b. False
162
In a resting smooth muscle cell, tropomyosin covers the active sites on actin. a. True b. False
b. False
163
Skeletal muscle fibers can change their phenotype. a. True b. False
a. True
164
Smooth muscles cells have T-tubules. a. True b. False
b. False
165
The muscles for eye movement only have fast-glycolytic fibers. a. True b. False
b. False
166
The myosin head has high affinity for actin in a smooth muscle cell when the light chains of myosin are a. Dephosphorylated b. Phosphorylated
b. Phosphorylated
167
A skeletal muscle cell that is not fatigued a. Will always generate the same tension in response to a single action potential b. Will generate less tension in response to a single action potential if the load is heavier c. Will generate more tension in response to a single action potential if the load is heavier
a. Will always generate the same tension in response to a single action potential.
168
At any point in the cross-bridge cycle, the myosin head has a. About equal affinity for ADP and ATP b. More affinity for ADP c. More affinity for ATP
a. About equal affinity for ADP and ATP
169
Delayed onset muscle soreness is caused by a. Both microtears and lactic acid b. Lactic acid in the muscle cell at the time of the soreness c. Microtears in the muscle and inflammation
c. Microtears in the muscle and inflammation
170
During muscle fatigue, a. Calcium levels are higher in the cytoplasm b. Calcium levels are lower in the cytoplasm c. Calcium levels are unchanged in the cytoplasm
a. Calcium levels are higher in the cytoplasm
171
Smooth muscle contraction is _______________________________ skeletal muscle contraction. a. About the same speed as b. Faster than c. Slower than
c. Slower than
172
Which fibers tend to be larger (have a larger diameter)? a. Type I fibers b. Type IIa fibers c. Type IIb fibers
c. Type IIb fibers
173
Which type of contraction is most likely to cause skeletal muscle hypertrophy? a. Concentric contraction b. Eccentric contraction c. Isometric contraction
b. Eccentric contraction
174
Which type of fiber would fatigue the quickest? a. Type I fibers b. Type IIa fibers c. Type IIb fibers
c. Type IIb fibers
175
Which type of fiber would have the most glycogen? a. Type I fibers b. Type IIa fibers c. Type IIb fibers
c. Type IIb fibers
176
Which type of fiber would have the most mitochondria? a. Type I fibers b. Type IIa fibers c. Type IIb fibers
a. Type I fibers
177
Which type of fiber would have the most myoglobin? a. Type I fibers b. Type IIa fibers c. Type IIb fibers
a. Type I fibers
178
1. A person who eats a standard diet of 50% of calories from carbohydrates, 20% from protein and 30% from fat runs a marathon in 4.5 hours. What would be true about the fuel this person’s skeletal muscles use to generate ATP? a. In the first hour, the skeletal muscles will use fatty acids for energy, then switch to using glucose. b. In the first hour, the skeletal muscles will use glucose for energy, then switch to using fatty acids. c. In the first two hours, the skeletal muscles will use fatty acids for energy, then switch to using glucose. d. In the first two hours, the skeletal muscles will use glucose for energy, then switch to using fatty acids. e. In the first three hours, the skeletal muscles will use fatty acids for energy, then switch to using glucose. f. In the first three hours, the skeletal muscles will use glucose for energy, then switch to using fatty acids. g. The skeletal muscles will use fatty acids for energy throughout the marathon. h. The skeletal muscles will use for energy throughout the marathon.
d. In the first two hours, the skeletal muscles will use glucose for energy, then switch to
179
At a skeletal muscle’s optimum length for contraction (select all that apply) a. All the myosin heads are next to actin b. The actin molecules are bumping up against each other or overlapping c. Titin is being compressed d. None of the above
a. All the myosin heads are next to actin
180
3. If a skeletal muscle is longer than its optimum length for contraction (select all that apply) a. All the myosin heads are next to actin b. The actin molecules maybe bumping up against each other or overlapping c. Titin is being compressed d. None of the above
d. None of the above
181
If a skeletal muscle is shorter than its optimum length for contraction (select all that apply) a. All the myosin heads are in next to actin b. The actin molecules maybe bumping up against each other or overlapping c. Titin is being compressed d. None of the above
a. All the myosin heads are in next to actin b. The actin molecules maybe bumping up against each other or overlapping c. Titin is being compressed
182
The constant tension maintained in a skeletal muscle by keeping some muscle fibers in tetanus is called ___________________.
muscle tone
183
What binds to myosin light-chain kinase to activate this enzyme in smooth muscle cells?
The calcium/calmodulin complex
184
What does calcium bind to in smooth muscle that leads to contraction?
calmodulin
185
What is actin bound to specifically in smooth muscle?
Dense bodies
186
What term is used to mean that a muscle partly, but not fully, relaxes before contracting again, then partly relaxes before contracting again and so forth for a period of time?
Unfused tetanus
187
What term is used to mean that a muscle stays fully contracted for a period of time?
Fused tetanus
188
List the three types of fatigue in order from most common to least common.
Central command fatigue Muscle fatigue Synaptic fatigue
189
List the three ways a skeletal muscle has of phosphorylating ADP in order from fastest to slowest.
phosphocreatine glycolysis oxidative phosphorylation
190
List the three ways a skeletal muscle has of phosphorylating ADP in order from most efficient to least efficient. State how many ATP molecules you can get from each original substrate with each method.
Oxidative phosphorylation—36 ATP molecules from one glucose molecule Glycolysis—2 ATP molecules from one glucose molecule Phosphocreatine—1 ATP molecule from one phosphocreatine molecule
191
What happens in synaptic fatigue?
The motor neuron releases acetylcholine faster than it can be made (usually the result of a disease the reduces the motor neuron’s ability to make acetylcholine)
192
True or false | The action potential in a skeletal muscle fiber is over before the muscle starts to contract.
True
193
Frequency coding is based on a. Higher calcium levels in the skeletal muscle cell b. More skeletal muscle cells firing action potentials
a. Higher calcium levels in the skeletal muscle cell
194
True or False | The level of calcium in the cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle cell is constant when the cell is in fused tetanus.
False
195
True or False | The heavier the load the more myosin heads involved in cross-bridge cycling.
False
196
True or False | The use of fatty acids to generate ATP always requires oxygen.
True
197
Fast-glycolytic fibers are also called type I fibers type IIa fibers type IIb fibers
type IIb fibers
198
Fast-oxidative-glycolytic fibers are also called type I fibers type IIa fibers type IIb fibers
type IIa fibers
199
Slow-oxidative fibers are also called type I fibers type IIa fibers type IIb fibers
type I fibers
200
True or False | The muscles for eye movement only have fast-glycolytic fibers.
False
201
``` Increasing the concentration of potassium in the T-tubule would cause the action potentials in the T-tubules to depolarize faster depolarize slower repolarize faster repolarize slower ```
repolarize slower
202
It is normal for muscles to go into tetanus. a. True b. False
a. True
203
The shorter the muscle is when it contracts, the more force it will generate. True False
False
204
The velocity of muscle shortening decreases as the load increases. True False
True
205
In general, white meat should be slightly sweeter than dark meat. True False
True
206
The thin myofilament in smooth muscle does NOT contain actin troponin tropomyosin
troponin