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Anatomy and Physiology Exams > Exam 4 > Flashcards

Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

At the optic chiasm

A

All axons from the ganglion cells on the medial side of the retina cross to the contralateral side of the brain.

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2
Q

Put the following in order from when you would have the highest action potential frequency to the lowest action potential frequency in an off-center ganglion cell.

a. Light hits only the receptive field
b. Light hits only the receptive field surround
c. Light hits the whole receptive field

A

b, c, a

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3
Q

Put the following in order from when you would have the highest action potential frequency to the lowest action potential frequency in an on-center ganglion.

a. Light hits only the receptive field
b. Light hits only the receptive field surround
c. Light hits the whole receptive field

A

a, c, b

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4
Q

An on center ganglion has a red cone center and a blue cone surround. Put the following in order from when you would have the highest action potential frequency to the lowest action potential frequency.

a. No light is shown in the receptive field
b. Red light is shone over the entire receptive field
c. Violet light is shone over the entire receptive field
d. White light is shown over the entire receptive field.

A

b, a, d, c

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5
Q

Ganglion cells synapse in which thalamic nucleus?

A

Lateral geniculate nucleus

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6
Q

What is the abbreviation for the glutamate receptor on on-center bipolar cells? What type of receptor is it?

A

mGluR6-glutamate G sub i G protein coupled receptor

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7
Q

What is the abbreviation for the glutamate receptor on off-center bipolar cells? What type of receptor is it?

A

AMPA- non specific cation channel receptor

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8
Q

The cochlear duct is filled with _______, which is high in _________.

A

Endolymph, Potassium

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9
Q

The scala vestubuli and the scala tympani are connected at the ___________, which is at the apex of the cochlea.

A

Helicotrema

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10
Q

What do ceruminous glands produce?

A

Earwax

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11
Q

What is the scientific name for the eardrum used in the videos?

A

Tympanic Membrane

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12
Q

What are the two terms used in the lecture for the part of the external ear that is visible when looking at a person?

A

Pinna

Auricle

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13
Q

List the ossicles in order from most external to the most internal.

A

Malleus, Incus, Stapes

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14
Q

What are two names for the tube that connects the middle ear to the nasopharynx? What is the purpose of this tube?

A

Auditory/Eustachian tube- They equalize the pressure in the middle ear with atmospheric pressure.

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15
Q

What is the purpose of the auditory ossicles?

A

To amplify sound waves from the tympanic membrane to the oval window.

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16
Q

In the light, on center bipolar cells are?

A

Depolarized

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17
Q

On-center bipolar cells have?

A

mGluR6

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18
Q

The scala tympani is filled with ______, which is high in _______?

A

Perilymph, Sodium

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19
Q

Which of the following is true?

a. all the information from the left eye is processed on the left side of the brain
b. all the information from the left eye is processed on the right side of the brain
c. all the information from the left visual field is processed on the left side of the brain
d. all the information from the left visual field is processed on the right side of the brain

A

d. all the information from the left visual field is processed on the right side of the brain

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20
Q

You would see the highest frequency of action potentials in a off-center ganglion cell when there is?

a. light in both the center and surround
b. light in the center and dark in the surround
c. dark in both the center and surround
d. light in the surround and dark in the center

A

d. light in the surround and dark in the center

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21
Q

Hair cells can be replaced if they are damaged.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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22
Q

Hair cells release neurotransmitter/paracrine agent in bursts in time with the vibrations in the basilar
membrane.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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23
Q

If you are moving at a constant velocity, your ears give you the sensation that you are not moving.

A

a. True

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24
Q

In the utricle, all the hair cells are oriented with their kinocilium toward one side of the body.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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25
Q

Sound waves are waves of more pressurized and less pressurized air.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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26
Q

Sound waves are caused by vibrations.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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27
Q

The semi-circular canals are all at right angles to each other.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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28
Q

There are action potentials being fired in vestibular afferents when the stereocilia of a vestibular hair cell are
pointing straight up.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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29
Q

There is a form of lateral inhibition in the auditory system.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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30
Q

Higher frequency sound waves cause the basilar membrane closer to the _________________ to vibrate.

a. Helicotrema
b. Oval window

A

b. Oval window

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31
Q

Our sensation of sound comes from the activation of

a. Inner hair cells
b. Outer hair cells

A

a. Inner hair cells

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32
Q

When the sterocilia of an auditory hair cell are deflected toward the tallest sterocilia

a. The tip links pull on the potassium channels
b. The tip links stop pulling on the potassium channels

A

a. The tip links pull on the potassium channels

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33
Q

When the sterocilia of an auditory hair cell are deflected toward the tallest sterocilia

a. The hair cell depolarizes
b. The hair cell hyperpolarizes

A

a. The hair cell depolarizes

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34
Q

Head tilt is detected in the

a. Saccule
b. Semi-circular canals
c. Utricle

A

c. Utricle

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35
Q

Horizontal acceleration is detected in the

a. Saccule
b. Semi-circular canals
c. Utricle

A

c. Utricle

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36
Q

Horizontal acceleration is detected in the

a. Saccule
b. Semi-circular canals
c. Utricle

A

c. Utricle

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37
Q

The _________________ tells you if you are falling.

a. Saccule
b. Semi-circular canals
c. Utricle

A

a. Saccule

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38
Q

The faster something vibrates, the _________________ the perceived sound.

a. Higher pitched
b. Louder
c. Lower pitched
d. Softer

A

Higher pitched

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39
Q

The larger the pressure difference between the compressed and rarified air in a sound wave, the
_______________________ the perceived sound.
a. Higher pitched
b. Louder
c. Lower pitched
d. Softer

A

b. Louder

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40
Q

Vestibular information is used in reflexes to control

a. Eye muscles
b. Postural muscles
c. Both eye muscles and postural muscles
d. Neither eye muscles nor postural muscles

A

c. Both eye muscles and postural muscles

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41
Q

Vestibular information is used in reflexes to control

a. Eye muscles
b. Postural muscles
c. Both eye muscles and postural muscles
d. Neither eye muscles nor postural muscles

A

c. Both eye muscles and postural muscles

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42
Q

Hair cells release

a. Acetylcholine
b. Dopamine
c. Epinephrine
d. GABA
e. Glutamate
f. Glycine
g. Norepinephrine
h. Serotonin

A

e. Glutamate

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43
Q

The sterocilia of auditory hair cells project toward the _________ membrane.

A

Tectorial

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44
Q 
If the semi-circular canal above started to spin in a counter-clockwise direction, the stereocilia of the hair cells in 
the cupula would 
a. Be deflected to the left
b. Be deflected to the right
c. Not be deflected
A

a. Be deflected to the left

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45
Q

If the semi-circular canal above continued to spin in a counter-clockwise direction at the same angle and speed,
after a few seconds the stereocilia of the hair cells in the cupula would
a. Be deflected to the left
b. Be deflected to the right
c. Not be deflected

A

c. Not be deflected

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46
Q 
If the semi-circular canal above suddenly stopped a counter-clockwise rotation, the stereocilia of the hair cells in 
the cupula would
a. Be deflected to the left
b. Be deflected to the right
c. Not be deflected
A

b. Be deflected to the right

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47
Q

What brain location is responsible for the reflex of a sudden loud sound causing a person to look toward the
sound?

A

Inferior colliculus nucleus

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48
Q

Some people feel motion sickness when there is a disconnect between which two senses?

A

Vision and vestibular sensation

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49
Q

What two things does the vestibular system detect?

A

Acceleration and head tilt

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50
Q

What three senses give us our sense of posture and movement?

A

Vestibular, proprioception and vision

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51
Q

What is the purpose of outer hair cells? How does this work?

A

They are important in protecting the inner hair cells from overstimulation and are important in localizing the
vibrations to the correct area of the basilar membrane for the correct frequency. They do this by pushing up
on the tectorial membrane when the vibrations are very large to prevent the overstimulation, and pushing up
on the membrane on either side of the area of most vibration to help localize the frequency.

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52
Q

Draw a flow chart for vibrations in the air lead to vibrations in the basilar membrane.

A

-Vibrations in the tympanic membrane
-Middle ear bones move in time with the vibrations in the tympanic membrane
-Oval window membrane vibrates in time with the vibrations in the tympanic membrane
-Perilymph in the scala vestibule vibrates in time with the vibrations in the tympanic membrane
-Basilar membrane vibrates in time with the vibrations in the tympanic membrane in a location on the membrane that
corresponds with that frequency

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53
Q

Draw a flow chart for pathway of auditory information from the hair cell to the auditory cortex (include the lobe
of the brain where the auditory cortex is).

A
  • Hair cell synapses onto cochlear nerve afferents
  • Cochlear nerve joins with the vestibular nerve to form the vestibulocochlear nerve
  • Cochlear afferents synapse in the cochlear nucleus
  • Second order neurons project from the cochlear nucleus to the superior olivary nucleus
  • Third order neurons project from the olivary nucleus to the inferior colliculus
  • Fourth order neurons project from the inferior colliculus to the medial geniculate nucleus of the thalamus
  • Fifth order neurons project from the medial geniculate nucleus to the auditory cortex in the temporal lobe
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54
Q

Glutamate causes on-center bipolar cells to

A

Hyperpolarize

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55
Q

Glutamate causes on-center ganglion cells to

A

Depolarize

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56
Q

Glutamate causes off-center bipolar cells to

A

Depolarize

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57
Q

All ganglion cells have AMPA receptors.

A

True

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58
Q

The center-surround relationship in the retina gives us a greater ability to see a lion hiding in the grass.

A

True

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59
Q

The visual cortex is in the

A

occipital lobe

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60
Q

The Organ of Corti sits on the

A

basilar membrane

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61
Q

The basilar membrane is

A

Wide near the apex and narrow near the base

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62
Q

Farmed fruit is much sweeter than wild fruit.

A

True

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63
Q

Taste cells can be replaced.

A

True

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64
Q

Olfactory neurons can be replaced.

A

True

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65
Q

Taste cells are (what kind of cell)

A

epithelial cells

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66
Q

There are several scientific studies to show that monosodium glutamate (MSG) has negative effects in the body.

A

false

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67
Q

The sour receptor is a

A

Ion channel

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68
Q

The best characterized receptor for umami is a

A

Gi protein coupled receptor

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69
Q

Third order neurons in the taste pathway synapse in the

A

parietal lobe

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70
Q

The olfactory epithelium is

A

nervous tissue

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71
Q

Activation of odorant receptors leads to activation of protein kinase A and phosphorylation of a non-specific
cation channel.
a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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72
Q

We have about 10,000 different odorant receptors.

A

False

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73
Q

Most of our sense of taste comes from activation of olfactory receptors.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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74
Q

Olfactory hairs are normally covered in mucus.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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75
Q

One neuron will innervate several skeletal muscle fibers.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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76
Q

One skeletal muscle fiber will be innervated by several neurons.

a. True
b. False

A

b. False

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77
Q

One type of odorant receptor will bind more than one type of odorant.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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78
Q

One type of odorant will bind to more than one type of odorant receptor.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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79
Q

Some second order olfactory neurons project directly to the cerebral cortex without synapsing in the thalamus.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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80
Q

The mechanism of release of paracrine agent by taste cells is very similar to the mechanism of neurotransmitter
release from neurons.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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81
Q

The primary odorant in bananas and the primary odorant in beaver musk actives some of the same
receptors.
a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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82
Q

Receptors for somatic sensation are important to our sense of taste.

a. True
b. False

A

a. True

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83
Q

First order olfactory neurons _______________________ onto second order neurons.

a. Converge
b. Diverge

A

a. Converge

84
Q

The fluid in the T-tubules is high in

a. Potassium
b. Sodium

85
Q

The GOLF protein in most similar to

a. Gi proteins
b. Gq proteins
c. Gs proteins

A

c. Gs proteins

86
Q

Protein kinase A phosphorylates a ___________________ channel in umami taste cells.

a. Calcium
b. Chloride
c. Potassium
d. Sodium

A

a. Calcium

87
Q

Phosphorylation of the above channel in the umami taste cell causes the channel to

a. Close
b. Open

88
Q

Activation of the umami receptor causes the above channel to be

a. Dephosphorylated
b. Phosphorylated

A

a. Dephosphorylated

89
Q

Protein kinase A phosphorylates a ___________________ channel in sweet taste cells.

a. Calcium
b. Chloride
c. Potassium
d. Sodium

A

c. Potassium

90
Q

Phosphorylation of the above channel in the sweet taste cell causes the channel to

a. Close
b. Open

91
Q

Activation of the sweet receptor causes the above channel to be

a. Dephosphorylated
b. Phosphorylated

A

b. Phosphorylated

92
Q

Children have a natural aversion to _________________. Many toxins activate taste receptors for this taste.

a. Bitter
b. Salty
c. Savory
d. Sour
e. Sweet

93
Q

There are the most different types of receptors for

a. Bitter
b. Salty
c. Sour
d. Sweet
e. Umami

94
Q

What nerve innervates the taste cells on the inferior surface of the tongue?

a. The accessory nerve
b. The facial nerve
c. The glossopharyngeal nerve
d. The hypoglossal nerve
e. The trochlear nerve
f. The vagus nerve

A

c. The glossopharyngeal nerve

95
Q

What nerve innervates the taste cells on the soft palate and pharynx?

a. The accessory nerve
b. The facial nerve
c. The glossopharyngeal nerve
d. The hypoglossal nerve
e. The trochlear nerve
f. The vagus nerve

A

f. The vagus nerve

96
Q

What nerve innervates the taste cells on the superior surface of the tongue?

a. The accessory nerve
b. The facial nerve
c. The glossopharyngeal nerve
d. The hypoglossal nerve
e. The trochlear nerve
f. The vagus nerve

A

b. The facial nerve

97
Q

Taste cells are found on (select all that apply)

a. The nasal cavity
b. The palate
c. The pharynx
d. The tongue

A

b. The palate
c. The pharynx
d. The tongue

98
Q

What is the scientific name for taste used in the video?

99
Q

What is the scientific name for smell used in the video?

100
Q

What is the proposed paracrine agent that is released by taste cells onto their sensory afferent?

101
Q

What is the purpose of lingual papillae in humans according to the video?

A

Increase surface area for taste cells

102
Q

What is the purpose of the taste hairs?

A

Increase surface area for taste receptors

103
Q

First order taste afferents synapse in which nucleus in the brain?

A

Nucleus of the solitary tract

104
Q

Second order neurons in the taste pathway synapse in which thalamic nucleus?

A

Ventral posterior medial nucleus of the thalamus

105
Q

First order olfactory neurons synapse in which area of the brain?

A

The olfactory bulb

106
Q

What are the two names for the second order neurons in the olfactory pathway?

A

Mitral cells/tufted cells

107
Q

Besides projecting to the cerebral cortex and thalamus, what three other brain regions can second order
olfactory neurons project to? What role does olfactory information play in each of these regions?

A

Hypothalamus—hunger, sexual arousal in animals
Amygdala—emotional aspects of smell (primarily fear in animals)
Hippocampus—odor memory

108
Q

What six factors affect our olfactory discrimination as mentioned in the video?

A 
Attention
Hunger
Biological sex
Cigarette smoking
Age
The state of the nasal mucosa
109
Q

What are the four properties of all muscle as mentioned in the video?

A

They contract
They are excitable
They are extensible
They are elastic

110
Q

What are the three proteins found in the thin myofilament?

A

Actin
Troponin
Tropomyosin

111
Q

What are the two proteins found in the thick myofilament?

A

Myosin heavy chain

Myosin light chain

112
Q

The myosin head has binding site for which three molecules?

A

ATP/ADP
Myosin light chains
Actin

113
Q

Sound waves are waves of compressed and rarefied air
True
False

114
Q

The stapedius and tensor tympani can protect your auditory hair cells from sudden, loud noises.

a. True
b. False

115
Q

Stopping a constant forward motion feels the same to the vestibular system as starting a backward motion.

a. True
b. False

116
Q

Opening a potassium channel in a hair cell cause the cell to

a. depolarize
b. hyperpolarize

A

a. depolarize

117
Q

The vestibular cortex is in the

a. parietal lobe
b. occipital lobe
c. temporal lobe
d. frontal lobe

A

a. parietal lobe

118
Q

A single odorant usually only activates one type of olfactory receptor.

a. True
b. False

119
Q

The bumps you see on your tongue are the taste buds.

a. True
b. False

120
Q

Actin is found in the

a. Thick myofilament
b. Thin myofilament

A

b. Thin myofilament

121
Q

The best understood receptors for bitter taste are

a. a Gs protein coupled receptor
b. a Gq protein coupled receptor
c. an ion channel
d. a Gi protein coupled receptor

A

b. a Gq protein coupled receptor

122
Q

The sweet receptor is

a. an ion channel
b. a Gs protein coupled receptor
c. a Gq protein coupled receptor
d. a Gi protein coupled receptor

A

b. a Gs protein coupled receptor

123
Q

The actin and myosin myofilaments shorten during contraction.

a. True
b. False

124
Q

The myosin head binds to actin when it is

a. dephosphorylated
b. phosphorylated

A

b. phosphorylated

125
Q

The I subunit of troponin binds to

a. actin
b. calcium
c. myosin
d. tropomyosin

126
Q

Alpha motor neurons release

a. glycine
b. norepinephrine
c. epinephrine
d. GABA
e. dopamine
f. serotonin
g. glutamate
h. acetylcholine

A

h. acetylcholine

127
Q

What is the name of the large protein that attaches myosin to the Z disk?

128
Q

A single action potential in an alpha motor neuron is sufficient to cause an action potential in a
skeletal muscle fiber.
a. True
b. False

129
Q

Calcium must come through the L-type calcium channel in order for the ryanodine receptor to
open in skeletal muscle cells.
a. True
b. False

130
Q

During the contraction phase of a skeletal muscle twitch, all the active sites on actin are exposed
in the cells.
a. True
b. False

131
Q

L-type calcium channels are present throughout the plasma membrane of a skeletal muscle cell.

a. True
b. False

132
Q

More calcium enters the cytoplasm from the sarcoplasmic reticulum than from the extracellular
fluid in response to an action potential in a skeletal muscle cell.
a. True
b. False

133
Q

There are voltage-gated sodium channels in the T-tubules.

a. True
b. False

134
Q

The lag phase is longer in a

a. Isometric contraction
b. Isotonic contraction

A

b. Isotonic contraction

135
Q

Which phase is longer in an isometric skeletal muscle contraction?

a. Contraction
b. Relaxation

A

b. Relaxation

136
Q

If the load on a skeletal muscle equals the tension developed by that skeletal muscle, you get
a(n) _________________________ contraction.
a. Concentric
b. Eccentric
c. Isometric

A

c. Isometric

137
Q

If the load on a skeletal muscle is greater than the tension developed by that skeletal muscle,
you get a(n) _________________________ contraction.
a. Concentric
b. Eccentric
c. Isometric

A

b. Eccentric

138
Q

If the load on a skeletal muscle is less than the tension developed by that skeletal muscle, you
get a(n) _________________________ contraction.
a. Concentric
b. Eccentric
c. Isometric

A

a. Concentric

139
Q

You are more likely to injure a muscle with ____________________ contractions.

a. Concentric
b. Eccentric
c. Isometric

A

b. Eccentric

140
Q

During contraction

a. The A band gets shorter
b. The I band gets shorter
c. The H zone gets shorter
d. Both the A band and the I band get shorter
e. Both the A band and the H zone get shorter
f. Both the I band and the H zone get shorter
g. Neither the A band, I band nor H zone get shorter

A

f. Both the I band and the H zone get shorter

141
Q

Each thick myofilament is in contact with how many thin myofilaments?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7
h. 8
i. 9
j. 10

142
Q

Each thin myofilament is in contact with how many thick myofilaments?

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5
f. 6
g. 7
h. 8
i. 9
j. 10

143
Q

A lack of ATP in a skeletal muscle cell will cause which of the following? (select all that apply)

a. Calcium levels to rise in the cell
b. The myosin head to stay bound to actin
c. The myosin head to stay in the cocked position

A

b. The myosin head to stay bound to actin

c. The myosin head to stay in the cocked position

144
Q

Which of the following is connected to the Z disk in skeletal muscle? (select all that apply)

a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. Titin

A

a. Actin

c. Titin

145
Q

Which of the following can you find in the I band? (select all that apply)

a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. The H zone
d. The M line
e. The Z disk

A

a. Actin

e. The Z disk

146
Q

Which of the following can you find in the A band? (select all that apply)

a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. The H zone
d. The M line
e. The Z disk

A

a. Actin
b. Myosin
c. The H zone
d. The M line

147
Q

Put the steps of the cross-bridge cycle in skeletal muscle in order started from the first exposure
of the actin active sites.
a. ATP binds to the myosin head
b. Conformational change in myosin head causes the myosin head to dephosphorylate
c. Conformational change in the myosin head causes the myosin head loses affinity for and
dissociate from actin
d. Myosin head autophosphorylates
e. Myosin head binds to actin
f. Myosin head moves to the cocked position
g. Powerstroke

A

e, b, g, a, c, d, f

148
Q

A single alpha motor neuron plus all of the muscle fibers it innervates is called a
_______________.

A

motor unit

149
Q

Nerve gas blocks _______________.

A

acetylcholinesterase

150
Q

The time between when you get an action potential in a skeletal muscle cell or alpha motor
neuron to the start of contraction is called the ________________.

151
Q

Paralytic drugs are usually ________________ receptor

__________(agonists/antagonists).

A
  1. nicotinic

2. antagonists

152
Q

Botulinum toxin cause the breakdown of what proteins?

A

SNARE proteins

153
Q

What is the post-synaptic density called in a skeletal muscle cell?

A

Motor end plate

154
Q

What is the segment of a skeletal muscle cell that goes from one Z disk to the next Z disk called?

155
Q

What neurotransmitter is released by alpha motor neurons?

A

Acetylcholine

156
Q

What protein was mentioned as contributing to the extensibility and elasticity of skeletal
muscle, as well as helping to keep myosin in register in the myofibril.

157
Q

What receptor for neurotransmitter is present on skeletal muscle cells?

A

Nicotinic receptors

158
Q

What is the name of the two calcium binding proteins in the sarcoplasmic reticulum and what is
their purpose?

A
  1. Calsequestrin and calreticulin
  2. They allow for more calcium to be stored in the sarcoplasmic reticulum by decreasing
    the concentration gradient for the calcium/hydrogen pump to work against.
159
Q

What are the three subunits of troponin and what do each of the subunits bind to?

A

I—binds to actin
C—binds to calcium
T—binds to tropomyosin

160
Q

In population coding, if I want to increase the tension developed in a muscle, what does the
body do?

A

Recruits more motor units (fires more alpha motor neurons to that muscle)

161
Q

During muscle fatigue, there is a substantial decrease in ATP in the cell.

a. True
b. False

162
Q

In a resting smooth muscle cell, tropomyosin covers the active sites on actin.

a. True
b. False

163
Q

Skeletal muscle fibers can change their phenotype.

a. True
b. False

164
Q

Smooth muscles cells have T-tubules.

a. True
b. False

165
Q

The muscles for eye movement only have fast-glycolytic fibers.

a. True
b. False

166
Q

The myosin head has high affinity for actin in a smooth muscle cell when the light chains of
myosin are
a. Dephosphorylated
b. Phosphorylated

A

b. Phosphorylated

167
Q

A skeletal muscle cell that is not fatigued

a. Will always generate the same tension in response to a single action potential
b. Will generate less tension in response to a single action potential if the load is heavier
c. Will generate more tension in response to a single action potential if the load is heavier

A

a. Will always generate the same tension in response to a single action potential.

168
Q

At any point in the cross-bridge cycle, the myosin head has

a. About equal affinity for ADP and ATP
b. More affinity for ADP
c. More affinity for ATP

A

a. About equal affinity for ADP and ATP

169
Q

Delayed onset muscle soreness is caused by

a. Both microtears and lactic acid
b. Lactic acid in the muscle cell at the time of the soreness
c. Microtears in the muscle and inflammation

A

c. Microtears in the muscle and inflammation

170
Q

During muscle fatigue,

a. Calcium levels are higher in the cytoplasm
b. Calcium levels are lower in the cytoplasm
c. Calcium levels are unchanged in the cytoplasm

A

a. Calcium levels are higher in the cytoplasm

171
Q

Smooth muscle contraction is _______________________________ skeletal muscle contraction.

a. About the same speed as
b. Faster than
c. Slower than

A

c. Slower than

172
Q

Which fibers tend to be larger (have a larger diameter)?

a. Type I fibers
b. Type IIa fibers
c. Type IIb fibers

A

c. Type IIb fibers

173
Q

Which type of contraction is most likely to cause skeletal muscle hypertrophy?

a. Concentric contraction
b. Eccentric contraction
c. Isometric contraction

A

b. Eccentric contraction

174
Q

Which type of fiber would fatigue the quickest?

a. Type I fibers
b. Type IIa fibers
c. Type IIb fibers

A

c. Type IIb fibers

175
Q

Which type of fiber would have the most glycogen?

a. Type I fibers
b. Type IIa fibers
c. Type IIb fibers

A

c. Type IIb fibers

176
Q

Which type of fiber would have the most mitochondria?

a. Type I fibers
b. Type IIa fibers
c. Type IIb fibers

A

a. Type I fibers

177
Q

Which type of fiber would have the most myoglobin?

a. Type I fibers
b. Type IIa fibers
c. Type IIb fibers

A

a. Type I fibers

178
Q
  1. A person who eats a standard diet of 50% of calories from carbohydrates, 20% from protein and
    30% from fat runs a marathon in 4.5 hours. What would be true about the fuel this person’s
    skeletal muscles use to generate ATP?
    a. In the first hour, the skeletal muscles will use fatty acids for energy, then switch to using
    glucose.
    b. In the first hour, the skeletal muscles will use glucose for energy, then switch to using
    fatty acids.
    c. In the first two hours, the skeletal muscles will use fatty acids for energy, then switch to
    using glucose.
    d. In the first two hours, the skeletal muscles will use glucose for energy, then switch to
    using fatty acids.
    e. In the first three hours, the skeletal muscles will use fatty acids for energy, then switch
    to using glucose.
    f. In the first three hours, the skeletal muscles will use glucose for energy, then switch to
    using fatty acids.
    g. The skeletal muscles will use fatty acids for energy throughout the marathon.
    h. The skeletal muscles will use for energy throughout the marathon.
A

d. In the first two hours, the skeletal muscles will use glucose for energy, then switch to

179
Q

At a skeletal muscle’s optimum length for contraction (select all that apply)

a. All the myosin heads are next to actin
b. The actin molecules are bumping up against each other or overlapping
c. Titin is being compressed
d. None of the above

A

a. All the myosin heads are next to actin

180
Q
  1. If a skeletal muscle is longer than its optimum length for contraction (select all that apply)
    a. All the myosin heads are next to actin
    b. The actin molecules maybe bumping up against each other or overlapping
    c. Titin is being compressed
    d. None of the above
A

d. None of the above

181
Q

If a skeletal muscle is shorter than its optimum length for contraction (select all that apply)

a. All the myosin heads are in next to actin
b. The actin molecules maybe bumping up against each other or overlapping
c. Titin is being compressed
d. None of the above

A

a. All the myosin heads are in next to actin
b. The actin molecules maybe bumping up against each other or overlapping
c. Titin is being compressed

182
Q

The constant tension maintained in a skeletal muscle by keeping some muscle fibers in tetanus
is called ___________________.

A

muscle tone

183
Q

What binds to myosin light-chain kinase to activate this enzyme in smooth muscle cells?

A

The calcium/calmodulin complex

184
Q

What does calcium bind to in smooth muscle that leads to contraction?

A

calmodulin

185
Q

What is actin bound to specifically in smooth muscle?

A

Dense bodies

186
Q

What term is used to mean that a muscle partly, but not fully, relaxes before contracting again,
then partly relaxes before contracting again and so forth for a period of time?

A

Unfused tetanus

187
Q

What term is used to mean that a muscle stays fully contracted for a period of time?

A

Fused tetanus

188
Q

List the three types of fatigue in order from most common to least common.

A

Central command fatigue
Muscle fatigue
Synaptic fatigue

189
Q

List the three ways a skeletal muscle has of phosphorylating ADP in order from fastest to
slowest.

A

phosphocreatine
glycolysis
oxidative phosphorylation

190
Q

List the three ways a skeletal muscle has of phosphorylating ADP in order from most efficient to
least efficient. State how many ATP molecules you can get from each original substrate with
each method.

A

Oxidative phosphorylation—36 ATP molecules from one glucose molecule
Glycolysis—2 ATP molecules from one glucose molecule
Phosphocreatine—1 ATP molecule from one phosphocreatine molecule

191
Q

What happens in synaptic fatigue?

A

The motor neuron releases acetylcholine faster than it can be made (usually the result
of a disease the reduces the motor neuron’s ability to make acetylcholine)

192
Q

True or false

The action potential in a skeletal muscle fiber is over before the muscle starts to contract.

193
Q

Frequency coding is based on

a. Higher calcium levels in the skeletal muscle cell
b. More skeletal muscle cells firing action potentials

A

a. Higher calcium levels in the skeletal muscle cell

194
Q

True or False

The level of calcium in the cytoplasm of a skeletal muscle cell is constant when the cell is in fused tetanus.

195
Q

True or False

The heavier the load the more myosin heads involved in cross-bridge cycling.

196
Q

True or False

The use of fatty acids to generate ATP always requires oxygen.

197
Q

Fast-glycolytic fibers are also called
type I fibers
type IIa fibers
type IIb fibers

A

type IIb fibers

198
Q

Fast-oxidative-glycolytic fibers are also called
type I fibers
type IIa fibers
type IIb fibers

A

type IIa fibers

199
Q

Slow-oxidative fibers are also called
type I fibers
type IIa fibers
type IIb fibers

A

type I fibers

200
Q

True or False

The muscles for eye movement only have fast-glycolytic fibers.

201
Q 
Increasing the concentration of potassium in the T-tubule would cause the action potentials in the T-tubules to
depolarize faster
depolarize slower
repolarize faster
repolarize slower
A

repolarize slower

202
Q

It is normal for muscles to go into tetanus.

a. True
b. False

203
Q

The shorter the muscle is when it contracts, the more force it will generate.

True
False

204
Q

The velocity of muscle shortening decreases as the load increases.

True
False

205
Q

In general, white meat should be slightly sweeter than dark meat.

True
False

206
Q

The thin myofilament in smooth muscle does NOT contain

actin
troponin
tropomyosin

Anatomy and Physiology Exams (7 decks)

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