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Anatomy and Physiology 2 > final exam > Flashcards

final exam Flashcards

1
Q

This is a collection of cell bodies found in the peripheral nervous system.

A

ganglia

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2
Q

This part of the autonomic system increases digestion.

A

parasympathetic

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3
Q

The ventral root of a nerve contains what type of neurons?

A

motor: efferent

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4
Q

This part of a neuron conducts nerve impulses away from the cell body.

A

axon

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5
Q 
An interneuron inside the spinal cord is part of the:
  A. Peripheral nervous system 
  B. Somatic system 
  C. Autonomic system
  D. Central nervous system 
  E. A&C 
  F. B&D
A

D. central nervous system

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6
Q

True or false: Neurons do not physically touch one another.

A

T

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7
Q

Describe the function and release of neurotransmitters

A

Neurotransmitters are chemicals stored inside secretory vesicles (axon terminal vesicles) at the end of the axon terminals.
When neurotransmitters are released by the axon terminal vesicles, they carry the transmission of the nerve impulse from one neuron to another.

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8
Q

An efferent neuron carries information:

A

from the central to the peripheral nervous system

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9
Q

A postsynaptic neuron would be found:

A

after the synapse

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10
Q

What is the location and function of Satellite cells?

A

Location: Peripheral nervous system (PNS)
Function: Regulation of environment of neuron cell bodies

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11
Q

A patient’s left thumb was severed in a cooking accident and then reattached during surgery. Would the patient be expected to regrow axons in their thumb? Why or why not?

A

Yes; Peripheral nerves can regenerate the length of the axon through axonal regeneration because of the growth of Schwann cells ahead of the axon.

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12
Q

At rest, a neuron plasma membrane is

A

polarized

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13
Q

Which of the following is false concerning the sodium-potassium pump?
It maintains the resting phase of an axon.
For every three sodium ions pumped out, two potassium ions are pumped in.
It must remain in constant operation to maintain the resting state.
The overall effect is a negative charge on the outside of the membrane.

A

The overall effect is a negative charge on the outside of the membrane

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14
Q

True or false: A sensory neuron is signaling the body of extreme pain. This means that the strength of the action potential is greater than usual. Explain your reasoning.

A

False

There is no variation in the strength of action potentials. (It is an all-or-nothing response). There is variation in the number and frequency of neurons firing.

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15
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning the neuromuscular junction?
The NMJ terminates on neurons within the brain and spinal cord.
The NMJ terminates on a muscle fiber.
The NMJ terminates on a presynaptic motor neuron.
The NMJ does not have a synapse.

A

The NMJ terminates on a muscle fiber

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16
Q

How is a message sent from one neuron to another?

A

There is a minute fluid-filled space, called a synapse, between the axon terminal of the sending neuron and the dendrite of the receiving neuron. When a nerve impulse reaches the end of an axon, neurotransmitters are released into the synapse. These bind with a receptor on the next neuron, opening Na+ gates in the receiving dendrite which causes depolarization and the impulse is carried.

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17
Q

What neurotransmitter is found at the neuromuscular junctions?

A

acetylocholine

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18
Q

True or False: Action potentials travel in one direction within the same neuron.

A

T

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19
Q

True or False: Reflexes occur slower than a conscious decision to move from the brain.

A

F

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20
Q

Fill in the blank: In a reflex, the ____________ neuron conducts nerve impulses along a pathway to create a response.

A

motor

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21
Q

Where is the integration center of a reflex located?

A

CNS

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22
Q

Which of the following statements is false about reflexes?
Reflexes do not require higher levels of voluntary processing from the brain.
Regulation of blood sugar by hormones is one example of a reflex.
Some reflexes can be tested to determine injury.
Pulling a hand away from a hot flame is not a reflex; it is entirely voluntary.

A

pulling a hand away from a hot flame is not a reflex: it is entirely voluntary

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23
Q

What is false about the stretch reflex?
The effect of the motor signal is to relax a muscle.
The patellar reflex tests the stretch reflex of the quadriceps femoris.
The muscle spindle detects stretch within the muscle.
Stretch reflexes help to decrease the stretch on a muscle.

A

the effect of the motor signal is to relax a muscle

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24
Q

What is false about the flexor withdrawal reflex?
A. It does not involve interneurons.
B. It involves excitatory interneurons.
C. It involves inhibitory interneurons.
D. The effect of the reflex is to create a co-contraction of two muscles
E. A&D
F. B&C

A

E

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25
Q

You touch a hot pan when cooking. List out the steps, in detail, of the nervous pathway of the reflex that occurs. Include any sensory organs involved and the action of the reflex.

A

Flexor withdrawal reflex:

Pain receptor in skin
Sensory (afferent) neuron through DRG
Interneurons in spinal cord:
(1) Excitatory to biceps
(2) Inhibitory to triceps
Motor neurons: Contract biceps, inhibit triceps
Action: Elbow flexion pulls hand away from flame.

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26
Q

Multiple Sclerosis is an autoimmune disease which attacks the myelin sheath of the nerve axon. Patients with this disease may experience difficulty using the muscles of their arms and legs. Explain why this would occur.

A

Myelin increases nerve conduction speed and protects the nerve. If the myelin is damaged, the conduction speed would be slower than normal, and the nerve axon itself would be vulnerable to permanent damage without the myelin present for protection.

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27
Q

This is the most superficial layer of the brain meninges.

A

Dura mater (menix)

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28
Q

The _______ fissure separates the right and left cerebral hemispheres.

A

median longitudinal

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29
Q

Describe the function of the brain ventricles.

A

There are four ventricles in the interior of the brain, chambers filled with cerebrospinal fluid which is produced there. Once formed the CSF circulates through the ventricles and into the subarachnoid space bathing and floating the brain.

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30
Q

All the following are functions of the hypothalamus except:
Regulates sleep
Links the nervous and endocrine systems
Filters out unimportant sensory information
Regulates water balance

A

Filters out unimportant sensory information

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31
Q

This ventricle is located anterior to the cerebellum.

Lateral
Medial
Third
Fourth

A

Fourth

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32
Q 
This region of the brain controls decision making skills.
Frontal lobe 
  Cerebellum 
  Occipital lobe 
  Temporal lobe 
  Primary sensory cortex
A

Frontal

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33
Q 
A patient is having difficulty understanding language but is still able to speak fluently. The patient’s dermatomes are intact. Which area of the brain is most likely damaged?
   Broca’s area
  Wernicke’s area 
  Occipital lobe 
  Parietal lobe 
  Primary sensory cortex
A

Wernicke’s Area

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34
Q

Describe how memories are stored and retrieved in the brain. Include a specific brain region.

A

Memories are not stored in one specific area within the brain but instead are stored throughout the cerebral hemispheres. The hippocampus acts as a memory center to help with memory storage and retrieval. The involvement of the limbic system explains why emotionally charged events result in our most vivid memories.

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35
Q

Which statement is false concerning the brainstem?
The midbrain portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord.
The pons helps to regulate breathing.
The midbrain contains the superior and inferior colliculi.
The medulla contains reflex centers to regulate vasoconstriction.

A

The midbrain portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord

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36
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the cerebellum?
The gray matter is internal while the white mater is external.
The cerebellum works to plan body movements by relaying information spinal cord.
The anterior lobe receives information from the body trunk.
The vermis coordinates the trunk and shoulder movements.

A

The anterior lobe receives information from the body trunk

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37
Q 
Which of the following is most likely a symptom of ALS?
 Impaired ability to swallow 
  Decreased sensation in the hands 
  Shrinkage of cerebral cortex 
  Increased size of brain ventricles 
  All the above
A

Impaired ability to swallow

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38
Q

Which of the following is true concerning a CVA?
An ischemic stroke is also known as a “brain bleed”.
A TIA is a form of hemorrhagic stroke.
Stroke survivors never regain any lost function.
A hemorrhagic stroke is due to a broken blood vessel.

A

A hemorrhagic stroke is due to a broken blood vessel

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39
Q

A patient has decreased hand strength in her right hand. She also has numbness in her first three digits. What is most likely the cause?

Spinal cord injury
Carpal tunnel syndrome
Ulnar nerve damage
CVA in the parietal lobe

A

Carpal Tunnel syndrome

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40
Q

The maxillary branch of the trigeminal nerve:
receives sensory information from the eyebrows
receives sensory information from the upper lip and upper gums
is a mixed sensory and motor branch
controls the muscles of mastication

A

receives sensory information from the upper lip and upper gums

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41
Q 
The sacral plexus is formed from spinal nerves:
  L04- S04 
  T12-L04 
  C01-C05 
  L01-S01
A

L4-S4

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42
Q 
A patient is on a ventilator post a car accident. What region of the spine is most likely damaged?
  L01-L05 
  S01-S05 
  T01-T12 
  C03-C05
A

C3-C5

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43
Q 
A patient is not able to extend his left wrist or fingers. What nerve is most likely damaged?
  Ulnar 
  Axillary 
 Radial 
  Median
A

Radial

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44
Q 
A patient sustained damage to their femoral nerve. What is most likely limited?
  Sensation over the medial thigh 
  Sensation over posterior thigh
 Hip flexion, knee extension 
  Hip extension, Knee flexion
A

Hip flexion, knee extension

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45
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the brachial plexus?
Roots are located furthest from the spinal cord.
There are anterior and posterior divisions.
Divisions branch next into two cords: anterior and posterior.
The posterior cord forms the median nerve.

A

There are anterior and posterior divisions

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46
Q 
These contain the ganglia for the sympathetic nervous system that controls the effector organs in the trunk, head and limbs.
 Sympathetic trunk ganglia 
  Celiac ganglion 
  Superiomesenteric ganglion 
  Inferior mesenteric ganglion 
  Ciliary ganglion
A

sympathetic trunk ganglia

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47
Q

Which of the following is false concerning the parasympathetic nervous system?
Primarily contains cholinergic synapses.
It is also called the craniosacral division.
Acts to increase the heart rate.
Promotes the digestion of foods.

A

acts to increase the heart rate

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48
Q

A patient comes into the ER following an accident. She is scared and starting to hyperventilate. You talk with her in a calm, reassuring manner as she receives medical care. You are trying to increase the activity in which division of her nervous system? Explain your answer.

A

You are trying to increase the activity of the parasympathetic nervous system as it is also sometimes called the “housekeeper system” because it promotes all the internal responses we associate with a relaxed state. The parasympathetic system also acts to slow the heart rate.

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49
Q

One of your patients sustained a hemorrhagic CVA. You notice they have rigid movements when moving their arms. They also have difficulty forming a plan to move their body. What area of the brain is most likely impacted? Explain your reasoning.

A

The basal ganglia is responsible for executing a motor plan and to slow and control fine movements (creating the rigid movements).

Apraxia, or impaired motor planning. Apraxia results in rigid movements and difficulty executing a motor plan.

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50
Q 
What senses contain specialized receptor cells via specialized somatic and visceral afferents?
  Smell 
  Touch 
  Equilibrium
A&C
A

A & C

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51
Q 
The outer fibrous layer of the eye includes the:
 Sclera and cornea 
  Ciliary body and iris 
  Pupil and retina 
  Lens and vitreous fluid
A

Sclera and cornea

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52
Q 
The middle layer of the eye includes which regions?
  Aqueous humor and cornea
 Ciliary body and iris 
  Cones and rods 
  Optic nerve and retina
A

Ciliary body and iris

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53
Q

True or false: Cones operate best in dim light.
True
False

A

False

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54
Q

What is the correct order of how light passes through the eye?
Cornea, Lens, pupil, retina
Cornea, lens, vitreous fluid, retina
Vitreous fluid fills the space posterior to the lens
Lens, retina, cornea, optic nerve
Lens, vitreous fluid, optic nerve, retina

A

Cornea, lens, vitreous fluid, retina

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55
Q

A patient is found to have blindness of the right visual field of both eyes. What part of the vision pathway was most likely damaged? Explain your response.

A. Left optic nerve
B. Right optic nerve
C. Left LGN
D. Right LGN

A

C

All the sensory information from the right visual fields travels together after the optic chiasm to the left side of the brain.

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56
Q

A patient is found to have blindness in the right eye. What part of the vision pathway was most likely damaged? Explain your response.

A. Optic chiasm
B. Occipital lobe
C. Left optic nerve
D. Right optic nerve

A

D

Information from the right visual field has not yet crossed at the optic chiasm. Both peripheral and nasal fields of the right eye would be missing.

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57
Q

True or False: All sensory information from the optic nerves cross at the optic chiasm.
True
False

A

False

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58
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_\_\_ is controlled by the abducens nerve.
  Superior rectus 
  Medial rectus 
  Lateral rectus 
  Superior oblique
A

Lateral rectus

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59
Q

Your elderly patient is discussing her vision problems. She describes her vision as blurry. Following a visual examination, her left eye deviates medially when looking straight ahead. What is most likely causing the vision problem? Explain your reasoning.

A. Cataracts
B. Abducens nerve damage
C. Brain tumor in the occipital lobe
D. Medial rectus damage
E. Superior rectus damage
A

B

The abducens nerve controls the lateral rectus. Damage to the lateral rectus would cause there to be a muscle imbalance, and the medial rectus would pull the eye medially when looking straight ahead, causing blurry vision. (Diplopia)

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60
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the external ear?
The lobule contains cartilage.
The auricle funnels sound into the external acoustic meatus.
The helix does not contain cartilage.
The external acoustic meatus travels through the parietal bone.

A

The auricle funnels sound into the external acoustic meatus

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61
Q

Which of the following statements is false regarding the middle ear?
The malleus receives vibrations from the eardrum.
It is filled with air.
It contains three small bones.
The stapes receives vibrations from the cochlea.

A

The stapes receives vibrations from the cochlea

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62
Q

Which of the following statements is true regarding the inner ear?
The organ of Corti is responsible for the body’s auditory sense.
It is filled with air.
The cochlea is responsible for the body’s vestibular sense.
There are two semicircular canals which house sensory receptors.

A

The organ of Corti is responsible for the body’s auditory sense

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63
Q

True or False: Olfaction is a mechanical sense activated by mechanoreceptors in the nasal mucous membranes.
True
False

A

False

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64
Q 
Which of the following is not one of the primary odors in humans?
  Camphorates 
  Musky 
  Peppermint 
  Putrid 
  Umami
A

Umami

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65
Q

A person cannot perceive tastes from the anterior portion of the tongue. What nerve is most likely damaged?

A

Facial (CN VII)

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66
Q 
The tongue helps form food into a compact mass called a \_\_\_\_\_.
  Papillae 
  Gustatory cell 
  Taste Bud 
Bolus
A

Bolus

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67
Q

The papillae that contain taste buds are ______.

A

Circumvallate

Circumvallate and fungiform papillae both contain taste buds

68
Q

A patient has lost his sense of taste following a TBI. What term should be documented should to describe his loss of taste?

A

aguesia

69
Q

True or False: The tongue only contains receptors that are chemoreceptors for taste.
True
False

A

False

70
Q

Describe the steps in the taste pathway. Begin in the mouth and end in the specific lobe of the brain.

A

Chemicals contact Gustatory hairs wrapped around gustatory cells.
Facial nerve & Glossopharyngeal nerve
Parietal lobe

The taste pathway begins as food chemicals contact the gustatory hairs which generate an action potential in dendrites which are wrapped around the gustatory cells. The nerve impulse is carried by afferent fibers through two cranial nerve pairs, the facial nerves and the glossopharyngeal nerves which transmit the impulses to the thalamus and ultimately to the parietal lobe to be interpreted as taste. The facial nerve carries information from the anterior two-thirds of the tongue; while the glossopharyngeal nerve carries information from the posterior one-third of the tongue.

71
Q

A patient sustains an injury to the malleus. What type of deafness does this patient most likely have? Explain your answer.

A

Conduction deafness

Occurs from damage to the outer or middle ear structures. The malleus is part of the middle ear structures.

72
Q 
The circulatory system is response for which of the following functions?
  Supply cells with oxygen 
  Transportation of gases 
  Rid cells of waste 
  Prevents loss of blood 
All the above
A

All of the above

73
Q 
The pericardial cavity contains in the:
 Lungs 
 Heart 
  Descending aorta 
  Circle of Willis
A

Heart

74
Q 
Which layer of heart anchors it to the diaphragm?
  Endocardium 
  Mediastinal 
  Myocardium 
Pericardium
A

Pericardium

75
Q

What is the purpose of the mitral valve?

A

The mitral valve controls the flow of blood from the left atrium into the left ventricle.

76
Q

True or False: Veins carry blood towards the heart.
True
False

A

T

77
Q 
Which vessel would you expect to be the best place to feel a strong pulse?
  Subclavian vein 
  Inferior vena cava 
 Common carotid 
arteries have palpable pulses, not veins
   Brachiocephalic vein
A

common carotid

78
Q

What is the correct order of blood flow starting from the heart?
Artery → arteriole → capillary → venule → vein
Arteriole → artery → capillary → vein → venule
Artery → capillary → arteriole → venule → vein
Vein → venule → capillary → arteriole → artery

A

artery, arteriole, capillary, venue, vein

79
Q

Which layer of a vessel contains the muscular layer?
Tunica externa
Tunica media
Tunica intima
Vessels do not contain a muscular layer

A

Tunica media

80
Q 
The aortic arch turns to become the \_\_\_\_\_\_\_?
  Superior vena cava 
  Pulmonary trunk 
  Ascending aorta
Descending aorta
A

descending aorta

81
Q 
A patient had a stroke in their frontal lobe. What vessel was most likely blocked?
 Anterior cerebral artery 
  Posterior cerebral artery 
  Basilar artery 
  Vertebral artery
A

anterior cerebral artery

82
Q

These two arteries of the circle of Willis rise along both sides of the spinal cord, joining in the brainstem:

A

vertebral arteries: left and right

83
Q

True or False: The cell portion of blood is called formed elements.
True
False

A

True

84
Q

True of False: Osmotic pressure is the net pressure which pushes fluid into the tissues.
True
False

A

F

85
Q 
The portion of blood responsible for maintaining blood pH is:
Plasma 
  Serum 
  Formed elements 
  Hydrostatic pressure
A

Plasma

86
Q

_______ is a cell fragment from a large bone marrow cell: White blood cells
Red blood cells
Megakaryocytes
platelets

A

platelets

87
Q

Which statement is true concerning the events in the coagulation cascade?
Platelets destroy the fibrin network.
Fibrin is converted to fibrinogen.
Plasmin becomes trapped in the fibrin threads.
Prothrombin is converted to thrombin.

A

Prothrombin is converted to thrombin

88
Q 
The \_\_\_\_\_\_ sends deoxygenated blood to the lungs to be oxygenated.
  Left, systemic circuit 
  Right, pulmonary circuit 
  Left, pulmonary circuit 
  Right, systemic circuit
A

Right, pulmonary circuit

89
Q 
The pacemaker of the heart is the:
  Bundle of His 
  AV node 
 SA node 
  Purkinje fibers
A

SA node

90
Q 
You are reviewing your patient’s results from an EKG. The findings indicate a problem with ventricular depolarization. Where should you look on the EKG to find this abnormal rhythm?
  T-wave 
 QRS complex 
  P-wave 
the electricity cannot be read on EKG
A

QRS complex

91
Q

Your patient’s EKG results indicate difficulty with left and right atrial systole. What part of the conduction system is not functioning properly?
Atrioventricular node.
SA node
causes contraction of the left and right atria
Bundle of His
Purkinje fibers

A

SA node

92
Q

Which statement is true concerning the cardiac cycle?
A. The dub sound is heard when the semilunar valves close.
B. The lub sound is heard when the atrioventricular valves close.
C. The lub sound is heard when the semilunar valves open.
D. The dub sound is heard when the atrioventricular valves open.
E. A&B are true
F. C&D are true

A

E

93
Q

A patient is suspected to have pulmonary edema due to congestive heart failure. Which side of the heart would be in failure? Explain your answer.

A

The left side of the heart would be in failure. If the left side of the heart cannot pump blood out to the body tissues efficiently, blood and fluid will back up into the lungs.

94
Q

A patient has a diagnosis of left sided heart failure. Which of the following signs/symptoms would they most likely present with?
Shortness of breath at rest
Swollen ankles
All the above

A

shortness of breath at rest

95
Q 
A patient is admitted to the ER with a thromboembolism. Your patient is given t-PA. Why?
  To make your patient sleep 
  To calm your patient’s anxiety 
 To help dissolve blood clots 
  To convert fibrinogen to fibrin
A

To help dissolve blood clots

96
Q

Your patient has a diagnosis of atherosclerosis. Would you expect your patient to also have hypertension? Why or why not?

A

Yes. Atherosclerosis is an accumulation of soft masses of fatty materials, often cholesterol, inside arteries. These deposits called plaque accumulate beneath the inner linings of arteries. As plaque continues to build up it tends to protrude into the vessel, interfering with normal blood flow.

97
Q

Your patient is admitted to the hospital for a coronary artery bypass. Use your own words to explain to your patient about what is going to happen in this surgery.

A

During this operation, a segment of another blood vessel from the patient’s body and stitch one end of the aorta and the other end to a coronary artery past the point of obstruction. Once the heart is exposed, some physicians may also use lasers to open clogged coronary vessels.

98
Q

True or False: Lymph flows from the heart out to the tissues via the lymphatic vessels.
True
False

A

F

99
Q

True or False: Fluid inside tissues that is not returned via the veins is returned to the heart through the lymph system.
True
False

A

T

100
Q

True or False: Lymph fluid moves in the following order: Lymphatic Duct→ lymph vessels → Lymph capillaries → Veins
True
False

A

F

101
Q

A patient has lymphedema in his left arm. What lymph vessel would most likely be obstructed?
Thoracic Duct
Drains fluid from left side of body, both lower extremities
Right lymphatic duct
Inferior vena cava
Axillary vein

A

Thoracic duct

102
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning lymph nodes?
A. Lymph nodes tend to be grouped together in the palms of the hand and the bottoms of the feet.
B. Lymph nodes act as a filtering center to remove debris.
C. There are more efferent vessels than afferent vessels.
D. Fluid flows into the efferent vessels and out of the afferent vessels.
E. C&D are True

A

B. lymph nodes act as a filtering center to remove debris

103
Q

Which of the following statements is TRUE concerning the spleen?
A. It is found in the right side of the abdomen.
B. It acts as a filtering center to remove debris.
C. It has many efferent and afferent lymph vessels.
D. It is divided into regions called sinuses which filter lymph.
E. C&D are True

A

B. It acts as a filtering center to remove debris

104
Q

Blood leaves the spleen via the ____________.

A

splenic vein

105
Q

Blood in the hepatic portal system transports blood to this organ before returning it to general circulation.

A

liver

106
Q

The tonsils contain channels called __________ which trap bacteria.

A

crypts

107
Q 
Which of the following people would you expect to have the smallest thymus gland?
  Newborn infant 
  5-year-old 
  30- year-old 
  75- year-old
A

75-year old

108
Q 
The thymus produces hormones which helps these types of cells mature? (Select all that apply.)
 T cells 
  B cells 
  Macrophages 
  Neutrophils 
  Eosinophils
A

T cells

109
Q 
Which of the following is a part of the specific immune response system? (Select all that apply.)
  Normal flora 
  Inflammatory response 
  T cells 
 B cells 
  Stomach acid
A

T cells

B cells

110
Q

Discuss how mild fevers are beneficial.

A

Fevers help the body fight infection by interfering with the growth and replication of pathogens. Fevers also causes lysosomes, an organelle inside cells, to break down. The lysosomes release digestive enzymes that lyse cells infected by a virus. In addition, fevers can promote the activity of white blood cells. Mild fevers of short duration can aide in recovery.

111
Q

This is a located response in the tissue, causing increased blood flow, redness, and pain.

A

The inflammatory response

112
Q

Match the cell with its best description.
Has granules in the nucleus and is the most abundant of the white blood cells.

 Neutrophil 
  Eosinophil 
  Basophil 
  Macrophage 
  Monocyte
A

Neutrophil

113
Q 
Match the cell with its best description. Select all that apply.
Performs phagocytosis
 Neutrophil 
  Eosinophil 
  Basophil 
 Macrophage 
 Monocyte
A

Neutrophil
Macrophage
Monocyte

114
Q

Match the cell with its best description.

 Stains light pink in the cytoplasm with a multi-lobed nucleus. 
  Neutrophil 
  Eosinophil 
  Basophil 
  Macrophage 
  Monocyte
A

Neutrophil

115
Q 
Which type of immune cell continues to produce a small amount of antibody after the infection is over:
  Killer T cells 
  Memory T cells 
 Memory B cells 
  Cytokines
A

Memory B cells

116
Q 
These cells contain a glycoprotein receptor as part of their cell coat:
  Killer T cells 
  T cells 
  B cells 
  Cytokines 
  Interferons
A

B cells

117
Q 
These lymphocytes are highly effective against abnormal body cells, such as tumor cells:
  Macrophages 
  Memory B cells 
  Interferons 
 NK cells 
  Monocytes
A

NK cells

118
Q

What is TRUE concerning the MHC?
These are antibody receptors found on only certain types immune cells.
Plasma cells recognize and destroy invading cells using the MHC.
It is genetically determined and unique to each person
Abnormal cells display the same MHC as healthy cells

A

It is genetically determined and unique to each person

119
Q

Discuss how cell-mediated immunity defends the body against diseases. Give an example of what type of cell uses this form of immunity in the body.

A

T cells work through cell mediated immunity which locally releases contents such as cytokines or enzymes to kill a pathogen or infected cell.
(Other examples could include phagocytosis by macrophages, monocytes, or neutrophils by directly engulfing and killing a pathogen)

120
Q

What are immunosuppressant drugs and why are they necessary?

A

Immunosuppressant drugs suppress the immune system. Suppressing the immune system is necessary so that the body does not reject the organ transplant or tissue graft. While taking these immunosuppressant drugs the patient is more susceptible to disease.

121
Q

Multiple sclerosis is an autoimmune disease where the immune cells attack the ___________.

A

myelin sheath

122
Q

A patient is admitted to the ER with hives and difficulty breathing. What is most likely happening?

A

anaphlayxis

123
Q

Which the following statements is true regarding the female reproductive system:
The bladder is located posterior to the uterus.
The rectum is located anterior to the uterus.
The ovaries are the site of estrogen and egg production.
It contains the site of the vas deferens

A

The ovaries are the site of estrogen and egg production

124
Q

Which of the following statements is true concerning oogenesis?
It begins at the time of puberty.
The primary oocyte divides to produce a secondary oocyte.
Each primary oocyte produces in two to three mature ova.
The first polar body maintains all the cytoplasm.
B&C are true

A

The primary oocyte divides to produce a secondary oocyte

125
Q

Ovulation occurs when an egg is released from the ______________ .

A

ovarian follicle

126
Q 
This layer of the uterus contracts during labor.
  Endometrium 
  Mucosal coat 
  Perimetrium
 Myometrium 
  Serous coat
A

Myometrium

127
Q

Which of the following statements is false concerning the functions of the vagina?
It serves as the birth canal.
It provides the outlet for menstrual blood during menstruation.
It secretes progesterone to maintain pregnancy.
It receives the male penis during sexual intercourse.

A

It secretes progesterone to maintain pregnancy

128
Q

Describe the purpose of the cervix during pregnancy.

A

When a female becomes pregnant a mucus plug develops in the cervix and prevents any bacteria or pathogens from entering the uterus, thus protecting the health of the developing fetus. A firm, closed cervix also holds the developing fetus in the uterus until it reaches full term.

129
Q

True or False: The mammary alveoli begin at the nipple and divides into numerous other lobules.

A

F

130
Q

True or False: Colostrum has a similar composition to milk but contains a lower concentration of protein.

A

F

131
Q 
Blood tests indicate that progesterone and estrogen levels are both increased. Your patient is most likely in what phase of the female uterine cycle?
  Menstrual phase 
  Proliferative phase 
  Secretory phase 
  Luteal phase 
  Follicular phase
A

Secretory Phase

132
Q

Which of the following is true concerning the organs of the male reproductive system?
The epididymis produces testosterone.
The inguinal canal is located on the posterior side of the abdomen.
One produced, sperm travel to the seminal vesicles for maturation.
The epididymis is located on the anterior portion of the testis.
The testes function to produce sperm.

A

The testes function to produce sperm

133
Q

The ____________connects the seminal vesicle with the urethra to allow sperm to exit the body.

A

ejaculatory duct

134
Q

Which of the following is false concerning spermatogenesis?
Production of sperm takes longer than one month
Spermatogenesis begins at puberty.
Each gamete has a total of 23 chromosomes.
Each primary spermatocyte produces four viable gametes.
Males have all the sperm at birth that will be made during the lifetime.

A

Males have all the sperm at birth that will be made during their lifetime

135
Q

Name and discuss the purpose of the region of sperm indicated by the arrow in the figure below. (head)

A

The head is almost entirely nucleus containing the cell DNA with a crown called the acrosome which contains enzymes that breakdown the membrane of the egg to allow the sperm to penetrate.

136
Q

Discuss in detail the action of sperm needed to fertilize an egg.

A

The egg releases chemicals that attract the sperm. Sperm cells release enzymes that break apart the corona radiata, follicle cells surrounding the egg. Once this is accomplished, more sperm release acrosomal enzymes that make a hole in the membrane of the egg, allowing one sperm cell to combine with the egg. When the union of egg and one sperm occurs, the membrane of the egg instantly chemically changes, preventing other sperm from penetrating the egg.

137
Q

Which of the following is false concerning human cells?
A. Haploid cells contain half the number of chromosomes (23).
B. Diploid cells contain the full number of chromosomes (46).
C. Gamete cells are haploid cells.
D. A zygote has 23 chromosomes.
E. A&B are false

A

D

138
Q

Discuss the supportive cells of the blastocyst and their purpose during pregnancy.

A

The amnion, placenta and umbilical cord.) The amnion forms a sac filled with fluid to cushion and protect the fetus. The placenta is a temporary organ that carries out nutritive, respiratory, excretory and endocrine functions for the embryo. The baby continues to grow in the uterus with nutrition provided by the placenta for nine months until it is time for delivery. The umbilical cord attaches the embryo to the placenta.

139
Q

Find the steps that correctly order neurulation:
A. Ectoderm→ convergence→ neural groove → neural tube → spinal cord
B. Endoderm→ neural groove → convergence → spinal cord → neural tube
C. Ectoderm→ neural tube → convergence → neural groove → brain
D. Endoderm→ convergence→ neural tube → neural groove → spinal cord

A

a

140
Q

True or False: The ureters drain urine from the kidneys to the bladder.
True
False

A

T

141
Q

A person sustained blunt force trauma to the back at the T5 level, with no spinal cord injury. Would you suspect the kidneys to be damaged? Why or why not?

A

No, the kidneys lie between the T-12 and L-3

142
Q

Describe the consistency and purpose of the renal capsule.

A

The renal capsule is a tough fibrous outer skin of the kidney which protects it from injury and infection.

143
Q 
These arteries flow in between the renal pyramids.
  Afferent 
  Lobar 
  Interlobular 
  Arcuate 
 Interlobar 
  Renal
A

Interlobar

144
Q 
After the vasa recta, blood next moves into these vessels.
  Efferent arteriole 
  Lobar veins 
  Interlobular veins 
  Arcuate artery 
  Interlobar vein 
  Peritubular capillaries
A

Interlobular veins

145
Q

Which of the following is true about the location of the bladder?
A. In males, the rectum is anterior to the bladder.
B. In females, the vagina is behind the bladder.
C. In females, the bladder sits above the uterus.
D. In males, the bladder is below the prostate gland.
E. B&C are true
F. A&D are true

A

B

146
Q

Based strictly on anatomical structural differences, are males or females more likely to get a UTI? Explain your answer.

A

Female; The female urethra is shorter and only carries urine while the male urethra is about 5 times longer. Since the female urethra is short and the external opening is close to the anus, improper wiping or poor hygiene after defecation can easily carry fecal bacteria into the urethra. Bacteria enter the urethra and travel up to the bladder, causing a urinary tract infection (UTI).

147
Q

An elderly male with dementia frequently micturates at inappropriate times (during meals, not in the toilet). What is most likely causing the difficulty?
Incontinence due to end stage dementia
Incontinence due to swollen seminal vesicle
Urinary retention due to not enjoying meals
Urinary retention due to enlarged prostate
Hematuria due to diabetes

A

Incontinence due to end stage dementia

148
Q 
This region of the male urethra exits the body.
  Spongy 
  Prostatic 
  Membranous 
  Ejaculatory duct 
  Ureters
A

spongy

149
Q

Describe the function of the glomerular capillaries.

A

The glomerular capillaries are highly coiled capillary beds formed from the afferent arteriole, leaving as the efferent arteriole. Because of the porosity and high pressure in the glomerular capillaries, they are specialized for filtration as it forces fluid and solutes out of the blood and into the glomerular (Bowman’s) capsule.

150
Q

Micturition can be controlled consciously because of:
Voluntary control over the internal sphincter
Involuntary control over the internal sphincter
Voluntary control over the external sphincter
Involuntary control over the external sphincter
Voluntary control over the visceral reflex arc
None of the above: micturition cannot be voluntarily controlled

A

Voluntary control over external sphinctor

151
Q 
This is the blood pressure driving fluid out of the capillaries:
  Colloid osmotic pressure 
  Capsular pressure 
  Net filtration pressure 
  Glomerular filtration rate 
  Hydrostatic pressure
A

Hydrostatic pressure

152
Q

Describe in detail how the kidney controls its own rate of blood flow through the nephron.

A

This is called renal autoregulation because the kidney determines its own rate of blood flow by controlling the diameter of the afferent and efferent arterioles. By means of this autoregulatory system, the kidney can maintain a constant GFR despite variations in the arterial blood pressure in the rest of the body.

153
Q

Which of the following statements is false concerning the RAA system?
Aldosterone causes the retention of sodium ions.
It responds when blood pressure becomes too high.
Angiotensin II acts to cause vasoconstriction in blood vessels.
Renin is released by the cells inside the nephron.
Renin converts angiotensinogen to angiotensin I.

A

It responds when blood pressure becomes too high

154
Q 
Which of the following is not reabsorbed in the PCT?
  Sodium ions 
 Hydrogen ions 
  Glucose 
  Bicarbonate ions 
 Calcium ions
A

H+ ion

155
Q

True or False: In the loop of Henle, water can leave the ascending limb but not the descending limb.

A

F

156
Q

Which of the following is true concerning ADH?
It is produced by the adrenal glands.
It is produced in response to increased water in the blood.
It retains up to 99% of water in the filtrate.
It is unable to respond during severe blood loss.

A

It retains up to 99% of water in the filtrate

157
Q

Contrast the osmolarity of the PCT and the bottom of the loop of Henle. Explain why there is such a contrast.

A

The osmotic characteristics of the filtrate entering the PCT is identical to the surrounding plasma, around 300 mOsm/L. In the descending limb of the loop of Henle, the solute concentration increases as it descends. Once the filtrate reaches the hairpin turn of the loop in the inner medulla, the filtrate increases to about 1200 mOsm/L.
The concentration of the solute increases drastically because water leaves the descending limb but not salt

158
Q

Describe the action of aldosterone on the concentrations of sodium and hydrogen in the filtrate.

A

Sodium is removed from the filtrate while hydrogen is pumped inside the filtrate.

159
Q

Describe the action of caffeine on the nephron.

A

Caffeine is a diuretic that causes the renal tubules to increase in diameter, increasing the amount of flow through the tubules.

160
Q

Which of the following is false concerning cardiovascular baroreceptors?
They are mechanoreceptors found in the aortic arch and carotid sinus.
They monitor the amount of stretch inside vessels.
These are chemoreceptors found in the hypothalamus.
They are monitored by the glossopharyngeal cranial nerve.

A

The are chemoreceptors found in the hypothalamus

161
Q 
Which of the following is an abnormal solute in urine?
  Urea 
  Nitrogenous wastes 
  Ammonia 
  Magnesium 
Bile pigment
A

Bile pigment

162
Q 
Water in the body is primarily found in what body compartment?
  Extracellular 
 Intracellular 
  Interstitial 
  Plasma 
  Synovial joints
A

intracellular

163
Q 
Urine with a pH of 5.0 is:
  within normal range; acidic 
  within normal range; alkaline 
  outside normal range; acidic 
  outside normal range; alkaline 
  within normal range; neutral
A

within normal range; acidic

164
Q

The bicarbonate buffer system:
generally takes several days to respond.
is the main buffer system of the urine.
is the main buffer system of the interstitial fluid.
causes hypoventilation in the respiratory system.
all the above are true of the bicarbonate buffer system

A

is the main buffer system of interstitial fluid

165
Q

Hypoventilation is a part of what control mechanism? Explain what hypoventilation accomplishes.

A

Respiratory control- If blood pH begins to rise (become more alkaline), the respiratory center is depressed, causing hypoventilation.
During hypoventilation, the respiratory rate slows down, allowing more CO2 to accumulate, forming more hydrogen ions. The pH falls (becomes more acidic) and restores correct blood pH.
(Optional) this reaction shifts to the right: CO2+ H2O ↔ H2CO3 ↔ H+ + HCO3-

166
Q

The renal control mechanism depends on what two factors?

A

Hydrogen ion secretion and the conversion of bicarbonate

Anatomy and Physiology 2 (8 decks)

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