Final Exam Flashcards
1
Q
What are the major components of the cardiovascular system?
A
The heart and the blood vessels.
2
Q
What is cardiology?
A
The study of the heart.
3
Q
What is angiology?
A
The study of the blood vessels.
4
Q
What kind of tissue is blood?
A
A specialized connective tissue.
5
Q
Why is blood a connective tissue?
A
It is made up of cells and ECM.
6
Q
What is hematology?
A
The study of blood.
7
Q
What are the major functions of blood?
A
Transportation, protection, and regulation.
8
Q
What is the transport function of blood?
A
Blood carries/transports O2, CO2, nutrients, wastes, hormones, and stem cells.
9
Q
Oxygen is transported from the ____ to all the ____ of our body.
A
Lungs, cells
10
Q
Organic nutrients are transported from the ____ to all the ____ for use or for storage.
A
Digestive tract, cells
11
Q
Carbon dioxide is transported from the ____ to the ____.
A
Cells, lungs
12
Q
Waste products are transported from the ____ to the ____ for ____.
A
Cells, kidneys, excretion
13
Q
What are examples of the waste products transported from the cells to the kidneys?
A
Bilirubin, creatinine, nucleic acids, and ammonia.
14
Q
Hormones are ____ produced by ____.
A
Chemical messengers, endocrine glands
15
Q
What is the protection function of blood?
A
Blood protects us from inflammation, limits the spread of infection, destroys microorganisms and cancer cells, neutralizes toxins, and initiates clotting.
16
Q
What blood cells protect us from infections?
A
White blood cells
17
Q
What cell fragments brings about a mechanism called clotting?
A
Platelets
18
Q
What is the regulation function of blood?
A
Blood regulates fluid balance, stabilizes pH of ECF, and controls body temperature.
19
Q
Blood regulates the ____ and ____ of ECF.
A
Volume, composition
20
Q
What maintains the pH of ECF?
A
The proteins in blood.
21
Q
When the body is overheating, how do the blood vessels regulate body temperature?
A
Through vasodilation.
22
Q
When the body is shivering, how do blood vessels regulate body temperature?
A
Through constriction.
23
Q
What are the physical characteristics of blood?
A
Color, volume, pH, osmolarity, viscosity, and temperature.
24
Q
What color is oxygenated blood? Where is it seen?
A
It’s bright red and is seen in the arteries.
25
What is blood in the arteries called?
Arterial blood
26
What color is deoxygenated blood? Where is it seen?
It’s dark red and is seen in the veins.
27
What is blood in the veins called?
Veinous blood
28
What is the volume of blood in an adult human?
4 to 6L of blood.
29
What is the range pH of blood?
7.35 to 7.45
30
What is the pH of arterial blood?
7.45
31
What is the pH of veinous blood?
7.35
32
Why is the pH of arterial blood higher than veinous blood?
Arterial blood has less carbon dioxide, so it has more oxygen. Veinous blood has more carbon dioxide, so it has less oxygen.
33
What is osmolarity?
Total concentration of solute particles.
34
What is the osmolarity of blood?
300 milli osm/liter
35
What is viscosity?
Thickness of blood
36
What is the temperature of blood?
Slightly warmer than body temp, 38 C or 100.4F
37
What is blood plasma?
Matrix of blood (ECM).
38
What is blood plasma made up of?
Water, plasma proteins, and whatever the blood transports.
39
How much of the plasma is made up of water?
92%
40
How much of the plasma is made up of plasma proteins?
6% to 8%
41
How much of the plasma is made up of whatever the blood transports?
1% to 2%
42
What are formed elements? How many kinds are there?
Cell and cell fragments. 7
43
____ and the ____ make up blood.
Plasma, 7 formed elements
44
What is a hematocrit test?
A blood tests that measures the percentage of red blood cells in your blood.
45
What is venipuncture?
Puncture of a vein to withdraw a blood sample.
46
The ratio of ____ to the ____ is called hematocrit or packed cell volume (PCV).
RBCs, whole entire blood
47
What is the RBC count in men?
4.6 to 6.2 million/μL.
48
μL means _____
Micrometer
49
What is the hemoglobin concentration of whole blood in men?
13 to 18 g/dL
50
What is the percentage of whole blood?
100%
51
What is the RBC count in women?
4.2 to 5.4 million/μL
52
What is the hemoglobin concentration of whole blood in women?
12 to 16 g/dL
53
dL means _____
Deciliter
54
In a hematocrit test, what element are the heaviest and settle first?
Erythrocytes aka RBCs.
55
What is the percentage of RBCs in men?
42% to 52% cells
56
What is the percentage of RBCs in women?
37% to 48% cells.
57
What is the buffy coat made up of?
White blood cells and platelets.
58
What is the percentage of buffy coat?
Less than 1%
59
What is the percentage of plasma in a hematocrit test?
55%
60
What is O2?
Oxygen
61
What is CO2?
Carbon dioxide
62
What is HHb?
Deoxyhemoglobin
63
What is HbO2?
Oxyhemoglobin
64
What is H+?
Hydrogen
65
What is HCO3-?
Bicarbonate
66
What is Cl-?
Chloride
67
What is CAH?
Carbon anhydrase
68
What is serum?
The remaining fluid when blood clots and solids are removed.
69
Serum is identical to plasma except for what?
It doesn’t have any fibrinogen.
70
What is fibrinogen?
It forms the framework of a blood clot.
71
Serum = plasma minus the ____.
Clotting factors
72
What is hemopoiesis?
The production of blood.
73
Where does hemopoiesis occur?
In the bone marrow.
74
What is the technical name for RBCs?
Erythrocytes
75
What is erythropoiesis?
RBC production.
76
What is a reticulocyte?
An immature RBC.
77
What do RBCs look like?
Very small, flexible, biconcave discs.
78
What is the size of RBCs?
7.5 μm diameter and 2.0 μm thick at rim.
79
Do RBCs have a nucleus?
No, they are anucleate.
80
Besides a nucleus, what else do RBCs not have?
No cellular organelles and no mitochondria.
81
What is the total number of RBCs in circulation?
4.5 to 6.5 million cells per cubic millimeter of blood.
82
What are the functions of RBCs?
Carry oxygen from the lungs to the cells/tissues and pick up CO2 from the cells/tissues and brings it to the lungs.
83
What do RBCs have to squeeze into?
Blood vessels called capillaries.
84
What is the size of capillaries?
8 μm in diameter.
85
How long are RBCs able to live in circulation?
120 days.
86
Where do RBCs go at the end of their 120 days?
To the spleen, which is called the graveyard for all the old and damaged RBCs.
87
____ of RBC cytoplasm is filled with a protein called ____.
33%, hemoglobin (Hb)
88
How many oxygen molecules can 1 hemoglobin carry?
4 oxygen molecules.
89
What is carbonic anhydrase (CAH)?
It is an enzyme in the RBCs cytoplasm.
90
What is carbonic anhydrase (CAH) needed for?
Needed for CO2 transport.
91
Hemoglobin simultaneously carries ____ and ____.
Oxygen, carbon dioxide
92
What is the structure of a hemoglobin?
Hemoglobin is made up of heme and globin. Heme is made up of iron (Fe) placed within a ringlike structure. Globin is the protein, made up of alpha and beta chains.
93
Each Hb molecule consists of how many protein chains? What are they called?
4, globins.
94
How many alpha chains and beta chains does an adult Hb have?
2 alpha chains (alpha 1, alpha 2) and 2 beta chains (beta 1, beta 2).
95
What are the oxygen molecules attached to on a hemoglobin?
Attached to the iron molecule.
96
What is the carbon dioxide attached to on a hemoglobin? What is this called?
Attached to the globin chains. This is called carbamino hemoglobin.
97
The bond between hemoglobin and oxygen is ____ and ____.
Loose and reversible
98
What are thrombocytes?
Platelets
99
What are leukocytes?
White blood cells
100
What are the 7 kinds of formed elements?
Erythrocytes, platelets, and 5 types of leukocytes.
101
What are the 5 types of leukocytes?
Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes.
102
What are platelets?
Cell fragments from special cell in bone marrow.
103
The components of blood are continually ____.
Replaced
104
What are the three major categories of blood plasma proteins?
Albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen.
105
What is the structure of an RBC?
Hemoglobin and carbon anhydrase in the cytoplasm of RBCs, glycolipids on the outer membrane, and inner membrane surface has proteins spectrin and actin.
106
Which plasma proteins are the smallest and most abundant?
Albumins
107
Albumins make up how much of the plasma proteins?
60%
108
What are the functions of albumins?
Transport solutes, buffer plasma pH, contribute to viscosity and osmotic pressure, influence blood pressure, flow, and fluid balance.
109
What makes blood stay within the blood vessels? Why?
Albumins because they can hold onto water.
110
What would happen if there were insufficient albumins?
Blood would leak out into the tissue spaces.
111
Globulins make up how much of the plasma proteins?
26%
112
What are the functions of globulins?
Solute transport, clotting, and immunity.
113
What are the 3 subclasses of globulins?
Alpha, beta, and gamma globulins.
114
Which globulins are the antibodies?
Gamma globulins
115
What are the functions of alpha and beta globulins?
Transport heavy metals, some ions, and hormones.
116
Fibrinogens make up how much of the plasma proteins?
4%
117
Fibrinogen is the soluble precursor of ____.
Fibrin
118
What is fibrin?
A sticky protein that forms the framework of a blood clot.
119
What organ produces all the major proteins except gamma globulins?
The liver.
120
What are gamma globulins produced by?
Plasma cells called lymphocytes.
121
What produces all 7 formed elements?
Red bone marrow
122
All cells belonging to connective tissue have a common embryonic origin called ____.
Mesenchyme
123
What is the process of the formation of blood cells?
o The mesenchyme receives a signal to form blood cells.
o It forms a pluripotent stem cell.
o Once the pluripotent stem cell receives the cell signal, it forms colony-forming unit (CFU).
o The pluripotent either turns into a lymphoid hematopoiesis or a myeloid hematopoiesis.
o The myeloid stem cell becomes an erythrocyte CFU.
o The erythrocyte CFU undergoes a series of divisions to become smaller and smaller in size. It loses its organelles and starts to accumulate Hb. It finally releases/ejects its nucleus and becomes a reticulocyte (immature RBC).
124
What is a colony-forming unit?
Specialized stem cells only producing one class of formed element of blood.
125
What is lymphoid hematopoiesis?
Blood formation in the lymphoid organs.
126
What is myeloid hematopoiesis?
Blood formation in the red bone marrow.
127
What do lymphoid stem cells make?
Only lymphocytes
128
What do myeloid stem cells make?
All blood cells except for lymphocytes.
129
What percentage of the total RBCs do reticulocytes make up?
1%
130
What is the time frame for a hematopoietic stem cell to become a reticulocyte?
15 days
131
What is the time frame it takes for a reticulocyte to become an erythrocyte?
1-3 days
132
What is a reticulocyte?
An immature RBC.
133
What is an erythrocyte?
A mature RBC.
134
What 2 organs regulate RBC production?
The kidneys and the liver.
135
What is the percentage of RBC production by the kidneys?
90%
136
What is the percentage of RBC production by the liver?
10%
137
How do the kidneys regulate RBC production?
o The kidneys release a glycoprotein called erythropoietic (EPO).
o When O2 content of arterial blood falls:
It stimulates the kidneys to release EPO.
EPO stimulates the bone marrow to release more RBCs in circulation.
This increases oxygen carrying capacity of blood.
This is a negative feedback mechanism.
138
Where do the RBCs go for destruction when they are old and damaged?
The spleen
139
What breaks down the hemoglobin in RBCs? What does it break it down into?
Macrophages break down the hemoglobin into heme and globin.
140
What happens to globin after it is broken down from hemoglobin? What happens to it?
The globin is broken down even more into amino acids. The amino acids are either used by the cells or stored.
141
What happens to the heme after it is broken down from hemoglobin?
The heme is broken down into iron and the ringlike structure.
142
What happens to the iron after it is broken down from heme?
Iron combines with transferrin and is transported to all cells of the body to be used or stored.
143
What is transferrin?
A transport protein.
144
What are the iron molecules stored as after being broken down from heme?
Iron is stored as ferritin. When the ferritin storage is at capacity, iron is then stored to hemosiderin.
145
What is the difference between ferritin and hemosiderin?
Ferritin is a smaller molecule; hemosiderin is a bigger molecule.
146
What is the ringlike structure broken down into after being broken down from heme?
It is broken down into biliverdin.
147
What color is biliverdin?
Green
148
What is biliverdin broken down into?
Bilirubin
149
What color is bilirubin?
Yellow-green
150
What does bilirubin combine with and where is it transported?
It combines with albumin and is transported to the liver.
151
What is bilirubin released as from the liver?
Bile
152
What converts bilirubin in the large intestine? What is it converted into?
Bacteria in the large intestine converts bilirubin to stercobilin and urobilin.
153
What gives feces the brown color and urine the yellow color?
Stercobilin and urobilin
154
How is RBC count maintained?
Through negative feedback.
155
What is hypoxemia?
Oxygen deficiency in the blood.
156
What causes hypoxemia?
A drop in RBC count.
157
What is the process of negative feedback control in erythrocyte homeostasis?
o There is a drop in RBC count.
o Hypoxemia occurs.
o Kidneys produce erythropoietin which stimulates bone marrow to release more RBCs.
o RBC count increase in 3 to 4 days.
158
What is anemia?
A deficiency of either RBCs or hemoglobin.
159
What are examples of 5 different types of anemia and what are their medical causes?
o Iron-deficiency anemia caused by dietary iron deficiency.
o Anemia due to renal insufficiency caused by deficiency of EPO secretion.
o Pernicious anemia caused by deficiency of intrinsic factor leading to inadequate vitamin B12.
o Hypoplastic and aplastic anemia caused by destruction of myeloid tissue by radiation, viruses, some drugs or poisons, or autoimmune disease.
160
What is the difference between the lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells?
The lymphoid stem cells make lymphocytes. The myeloid stem cells make all the other blood cells.
161
What is the distinction between agranulocytes and granulocytes?
Granulocytes are present within the cytoplasm in the form of granules while agranulocytes exist without granules.
162
What leukocytes are granulocytes?
Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.
163
What leukocytes are agranulocytes?
Lymphocytes and monocytes.
164
What is phagocytosis?
Destruction of microorganisms and any dead tissue by phagocytes.
165
What are phagocytes?
Cells that engulf foreign matter.
166
What is chemotaxis?
Attraction of the WBCs to the site of infection.
167
What is diapedesis/emigration?
Squeezing between endothelial cells.
168
What are the functions of neutrophils?
o Phagocytize (kill) bacteria.
o Release antimicrobial chemicals.
169
What are the functions of eosinophils?
Phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes, allergens, and inflammatory chemicals.
170
What are the functions of basophils?
o Secretes histamine (a vasodilator), which increases blood flow to a tissue.
o Secrete heparin (an anticoagulant), which prevents clotting.
171
What are the functions of lymphocytes?
o Destroy cancer cells, cells infected with viruses, and foreign cells.
o Present antigens to activate other cells of immune system.
o Secrete antibodies.
172
What are the functions of monocytes?
o Transform into macrophages.
o Phagocytize pathogens, dead neutrophils, and debris of dead cells.
o Present antigens to activate other cells of immune system.
173
How does a differential WBC count work?
It identifies what percentage of the total WBC count consists of each type of leukocyte.
174
What is the percentage of neutrophils in a differential WBC count?
60% to 70%
175
What is the percentage of eosinophils in a differential WBC count?
2% to 4%
176
What is the percentage of basophils in a differential WBC count?
Less than 0.5%
177
What is the percentage of lymphocytes in a differential WBC count?
25% to 33%
178
What is the percentage of monocytes in a differential WBC count?
3% to 8%
179
What does a complete blood count include the values of?
o Hematocrit
o Hemoglobin concentration
o Total count for RBCs, reticulocytes, WBCs, and platelets.
o Differential WBC count
o RBC size and hemoglobin concentration per RBC.
180
What is leukopoiesis?
Production of white blood cells.
181
What is thrombopoiesis?
Production of platelets.
182
How are platelets formed?
o Thrombopoiesis is stimulated by a hormone from the liver and kidney called thrombopoietin.
o Some hematopoietic stem cells develop receptors for thrombopoietin and become megakaryoblasts which are cells committed to the platelet-producing line.
o The megakaryoblast duplicates its DNA repeatedly and transforms into a megakaryocyte.
o A megakaryocyte sprouts long tendrils called proplatelets that protrude through the endothelium.
o The blood flow shears off proplatelets which break up into platelets as they travel in the bloodstream.
183
How do platelets differ structurally and functionally from other formed elements?
Platelets are not complete cells; they are small fragments of cells. They aid in blood clotting.
184
What are the 4 primary mechanisms involved in hemostasis?
Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting, and repair.
185
What are the 3 stages involved in the platelet plug formation?
When a blood vessel is cut:
Platelets are released.
The platelets bind with the collagen fibers in the outer most layer (tunica external).
Platelets release serotonin, ADP, and thromboxane A2. The release of these chemicals helps in the formation of a loose plug of platelets.
186
What is the definition of a clot?
Coagulation of blood. A mass of blood that forms when platelets, proteins, and cells stick together.
187
What is clotting (coagulation)?
An important process that prevents excessive bleeding when a blood vessel is injured.
188
What are clotting factors?
Also called procoagulants, which promote the formation of blood clots more durable than platelets plugs.
189
What are the 4 major stages in the blood-clotting process?
When a blood vessel is cut, first a vascular spasm occurs. A vascular spasm is the contraction of a blood vessel. Then, a platelet plug forms. Formations of clots happens. Lastly, the blood vessel is repaired, and the blood clot is broken.
190
How do the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways differ?
The extrinsic pathway has few steps, takes less time to form a clot, and is activated by tissue factors outside of the blood vessel. The intrinsic pathways has more steps, takes longer to form a clot, and is activated inside the blood vessel without tissue factors.
191
What is the common pathway?
Once factor 10 is activated, the remaining steps in the intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms are identical.
192
What are the steps of the common pathways?
o Factor 10 combines with factor 5 and calcium to produce prothrombin activator.
o This enzyme acts on a globulin called prothrombin and converts it to the enzyme thrombin.
o Thrombin then converts fibrinogen into shorter strands of fibrin.
o Factor 8 cross-links these strands to create a dense aggregation that forms the structural framework of a blood clot.
193
What is clot retraction?
After a clot has formed, spinous pseudopods of the platelets adhere to strands of fibrin and contract. This pulls on the fibrin threads and draws the edges of the broken vessel together, like a drawstring closing a purse.
194
What is the role of vitamin K in the clotting process?
The synthesis of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10 require vitamin K.
195
What is the difference between blood groups and blood types?
Blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of antigens on the surface of your RBCs. Blood types are determined based on if you have anti D antigens or not.
196
What are the different blood types?
A, B, AB, and O.
197
What is your blood type if you have the presence of D antigen in your blood?
Positive
198
What is your blood type if you don’t have the presence of D antigen in your blood?
Negative
199
What is the role of surface antigens on RBCs in determining blood groups?
Whichever antigen/s you have on the surface of your RBCs is the blood group type that you have.
200
What are blood types based on?
Blood types are based on the interactions between antigens and antibodies.
201
A person with blood type A has which antigen/s on the surface of their RBCs?
Antigen A
202
A person with blood type B has which antigen/s on the surface of their RBCs?
Antigen B
203
A person with blood type AB has which antigen/s on the surface of their RBCs?
Both antigen A and B
204
A person with blood type O has which antigen/s on the surface of their RBCs?
Neither A nor B
205
Anti-A antibodies bind to which antigen?
Antigen A
206
Anti-B binds to which antigen?
Antigen B
207
How does the presence or absence of Rh antigen on RBCs determine whether a person is Rh positive or Rh negative?
A person who is Rh positive won’t make anti-Rh antibodies. A person who is Rh negative will make anti-Rh antibodies.
208
Blood type A can donate to which blood types?
A or AB
209
Blood type B can donate to which blood types?
B or AB
210
Blood type AB can donate to which blood types?
AB
211
Blood type O can donate to which blood types?
O, A, B, and AB
212
Blood type A can receive blood from which blood types?
O or A
213
Blood type B can receive blood from which blood types?
O or B
214
Blood type AB can receive blood from which blood types?
O, A, B, and AB
215
Blood type O can receive blood from which blood types?
O
216
What blood type is called the universal donor?
Type O
217
What blood type is called the universal recipient?
Type AB
218
What happens when an incorrect ABO or Rh blood type is transfused?
If incompatible blood is given in a transfusion, the patient’s immune system attacks the donor cells. This reaction can cause shock, kidney failure, circulatory collapse, and death.
219
What is hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?
It can occur if an Rh- mother has formed antibodies and is pregnant with a second Rh+ child. Anti-D antibodies can cross the placenta agglutinate fetal erythrocytes. Agglutinated RBCs hemolyze, and the baby is born with hemolytic anemia
220
What is given as a preventative for hemolytic disease of the newborn?
The mother is given rhoGAM during pregnancy. It binds fetal agglutinogens in her blood so she will not form anti-D antigens.
221
What is hemolytic disease of the newborn also called?
Erythroblastosis fetalis
222
What is the major function of the heart?
Pump blood throughout the body.
223
What is the location of the heart?
The heart lies within the mediastinum between the lungs.
224
What is the pericardium?
A sac that encloses the heart.
225
What is the structure of the pericardium?
It has 2 layers – an outer fibrous pericardium and inner serous pericardium.
226
What is the function of the pericardium?
It separates the heart from the lungs and allows the heart to move freely as it beats.
227
What is the fibrous pericardium?
It is a tough collagenous sac. It surrounds the heart but is not attached to it.
228
What is the serous pericardium?
It is a simple squamous epithelium overlying a thin layer of elastic tissue.
229
What does the serous pericardium cover?
It covers the heart surface.
230
What is the membrane that covers the heart surface called?
The visceral layer of the serous pericardium. Also called the epicardium.
231
What is the membrane that lines the inside of the fibrous pericardium called?
The parietal layer of the serous pericardium.
232
What is the pericardial cavity?
It’s the space between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium.
233
What is pericardial fluid?
A fluid discharged by the serous pericardium.
234
Where is the pericardial fluid found?
In the pericardial cavity.
235
What is the function of the pericardial fluid?
It lubricates the membranes and allows the heart to beat with minimal friction.
236
What 3 layers does the heart wall consist of?
Epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium.
237
What is the outermost layer of the heart?
The epicardium
238
Describe the epicardium.
It is thin and translucent in most areas, however, in other places it includes a thick layer of adipose tissue.
239
What is the function of the thick layer of adipose tissue on the heart?
It encloses the major coronary blood vessels and protects them from compression.
240
What is the innermost layer of the heart?
The endocardium
241
Describe the endocardium.
It is a simple squamous epithelium overlying a thin areolar tissue layer; however, it has no adipose tissue.
242
Where is the endocardium found?
It lines the interior of the heart chambers, covers the valve surfaces, and is continuous with the endothelium of the blood vessels.
243
What is the layer in between the epicardium and endocardium?
The myocardium
244
What is the function of the myocardium?
It performs the work of the heart.
245
What is the thickest layer of the heart wall?
The myocardium
246
What is myocardium composed of?
Cardiac muscle
247
Why is the myocardium the thickest layer?
Because it performs the work of the heart. Its thickness is proportional to the workload on the individual chambers.
248
What makes up the fibrous skeleton?
A framework of collagenous and elastic fibers.
249
How many chambers does the heart have?
4
250
What are the 2 superior chambers called?
The right and left atria (atria for plural, atrium for singular).
251
What type of chambers are the right and left atria?
They are receiving chambers for blood returning to the heart by way of the great veins.
252
What are the right and left auricles?
They are earlike flaps on each atrium that slightly increases its volume.
253
What is the structure of the atria?
They have thin flaccid walls corresponding to their light workload.
254
What is the function of the atria?
Pump blood into the ventricles below.
255
What separates the atria?
The interatrial septum.
256
What do the right atrium and both auricles exhibit?
Pectinate muscles
257
What are pectinate muscles?
Internal ridges of myocardium.
258
What are the 2 inferior chambers?
The left and right ventricles
259
What is the function of the ventricles?
They eject blood into the arteries and keep it flowing around the body.
260
What separates the ventricles?
A thick muscular wall called the interventricular septum.
261
Where does the right ventricle pump blood to?
It pumps blood only to the lungs and back to the left atrium.
262
What chamber bears the greatest workload of all 4 chambers?
The left ventricle
263
Why is the left ventricle and septum, two to four times as thick as the right ventricle?
Because it bears the greatest workload of all 4 chambers.
264
Where does the left ventricle pump blood to?
It pumps blood through the entire body.
265
Both ventricles exhibit internal ridges called ____.
Trabeculae carneae
266
What is the function of trabeculae carneae?
It keeps the ventricular walls from clinging to each other.
267
What are the boundaries of the 4 chambers marked by?
The 3 sulci (grooves).
268
What are the sulci made up of?
They are largely filled with fat and the coronary blood vessels.
269
What are the 3 different sulci?
The coronary sulcus, the anterior interventricular sulcus, and the posterior interventricular sulcus.
270
Where is the coronary sulcus located?
It encircles the heart near the base and separates the atria above from the ventricles below.
271
What are the anterior and posterior interventricular sulci located?
They extend obliquely down the heart from the coronary sulcus toward the apex.
272
What interventricular sulci is on the front of the heart?
The anterior interventricular sulcus
273
What interventricular sulci is on the back of the heart?
The posterior interventricular sulcus.
274
What part(s) of the heart harbors the largest of the coronary blood vessels?
The coronary sulcus and the 2 interventricular sulci.
275
What is needed for the heart to pump blood effectively?
The heart needs valves that ensure a one-way flow.
276
Where are the heart valves located?
There is a valve between each atrium and its ventricle, and another at the exit from each ventricle into its great artery.
277
Does the heart have valves where the great veins empty into the atria?
No
278
What do the heart valves consist of?
Fibrous flaps of tissue covered with endocardium.
279
What are the fibrous flaps of tissues of the heart valves called?
Cusps or leaflets.
280
What valve regulates the openings between the atrias and ventricles?
The atrioventricular valves
281
What is the right atrioventricular valve called? Why?
The tricuspid valve. It has 3 cusps.
282
How many cusps does the left atrioventricular valve have?
It has 2 cusps.
283
What is the left AV valve also known as?
The mitral valve.
284
What connects the valve cusps to the conical papillary muscles on the floor of the ventricles?
Stringy tendinous chords called chordae tendineae.
285
What is the function of the chordae tendineae?
They prevent the AV valves from flipping inside out or bulging into the atria when the ventricles contract.
286
Each papillary muscle has 2 or 3 basal attachments to what?
The trabeculae carneae of the heart wall.
287
What are the semilunar valves?
The pulmonary and aortic valves.
288
What is the function of the semilunar valves?
They regulate the flow of blood from the ventricles into the great arteries.
289
What is the function of the pulmonary valve specifically?
It controls the opening from the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk.
290
What is the function of the aortic valve specifically?
It controls the opening from the left ventricle into the aorta.
291
How many cusps do the aortic and pulmonary valves have? What do they look like?
Each has 3 cusps that are shaped like shirt pockets.
292
What happens when blood is ejected from the ventricles?
It pushes through the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic) from below and presses their cusps against the arterial walls.
293
What happens when the ventricles relax?
o Arterial blood flows back into the ventricles, but quickly fills the cusps.
o The inflated pockets meet at the center and quickly seal the opening, so little blood flows back into the ventricles.
294
Why don’t the semilunar valves require or possess tendinous chords (chordae tendineae)?
Because of the way they are attached to the arterial wall. They can’t prolapse any more than a shirt pocket turns inside out if you jam your hand into it.
295
Do the semilunar valves open and close by any muscular effort of their own?
No
296
How do the semilunar valves open and close?
The cusps are simply pushed open and closed by changes in blood pressure that occur as the heart chambers contract and relax.
297
Where does blood enter the heart?
It enters the right atrium from the superior and inferior venae cavae.
298
Where does blood travel to from the right atrium?
It flows through the right AV valve into the right ventricle.
299
What forces the pulmonary valve open?
Contraction of the right ventricle.
300
Where does blood travel to from the right ventricle?
It flows through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary trunk.
301
What blood vessels distribute blood to the lungs? What does the blood unload/load?
The right and left pulmonary arteries. The blood drops off carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen.
302
Blood returns from the lungs to the heart by what blood vessel? What part of the heart does the blood return to?
Blood returns from the lungs via the pulmonary veins to the left atrium.
303
Where does blood travel to from the left atrium?
It flows through the left AV valve into the left ventricle.
304
What forces the aortic valve open?
Contraction of the left ventricle.
305
Contraction of the left and right ventricles is ____.
Simultaneous
306
Where does blood travel to from the left ventricle?
It travels through the aortic valve into the ascending aorta.
307
What happens to blood in the aorta?
It is distributed to every organ in the body where it drops off oxygen and picks up carbon dioxide.
308
Blood is kept entirely separate on the ____ and _____ sides of the heart.
Right, left
309
The myocardium has its own supply of ____.
Arteries and capillaries that deliver blood to every muscle cell.
310
What is the function of the systemic circuit?
It supplies blood to every organ of the body, including other parts of the lungs and the wall of the heart itself.
311
What is the coronary circulation?
A system of blood vessels that serve the wall of the heart.
312
What are the major vessels of the coronary circulation?
The right and left coronary arteries.
313
What 2 branches does the left coronary artery divide into?
The anterior interventricular branch and the circumflex branch.
314
What 2 branches does the right coronary artery divide into?
The right marginal branch and the posterior interventricular branch.
315
What does the right coronary artery supply?
The right atrium and sinoatrial node (pacemaker).
316
Why is the energy demand of the cardiac muscle so critical?
An interruption of the blood supply to any part of the myocardium can cause necrosis within minutes.
317
What can cause a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?
A fatty deposit or blood clot in a coronary artery.
318
The points where 2 arteries come together is called ____.
Arterial anastomoses.
319
What is the function of arterial anastomoses?
They provide alternative routes of blood flow (collateral circulation) that can supply the heart tissue with blood if the primary route becomes obstructed.
320
When does arterial blood peak in organs other than the heart? When does it diminish?
o Flow usually peaks when the heart contracts and ejects blood into the systemic arteries. It diminishes when the ventricles relax and refill.
321
When does arterial blood peak in the coronary arteries?
Flow peaks when the heart relaxes.
322
When does blood flow increase in coronary blood vessels?
During ventricular relaxation.
323
What is veinous drainage?
The route by which blood leaves an organ.
324
Why is the heart described as autorhythmic?
Because it doesn’t depend on the nervous system for its rhythm.
325
What allows the heart to be on its own without relying on the nervous system?
It has its own built-in pacemaker and electrical system.
326
Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle are both ____.
Striated
327
What is a cardiomyocyte?
A cardiac muscle cell.
328
What is the cell shape and dimensions of a cardiomyocyte.
Cardiomyocytes are short, branched and roughly rectangular.
329
Describe the nucleus of a cardiomyocyte.
A cardiomyocyte typically has 1 centrally located nucleus
330
Through the branches, each cardiomyocyte contacts several others and collectively they form ____.
A network throughout each pair of heart chambers – one in the atria and one in the ventricles.
331
What does the cardiomyocyte lack that skeletal muscle fibers have?
Terminal cisterns
332
Do cardiomyocytes have mitochondria?
Yes, due to the continuous need for contraction.
333
Cardiomyocytes are joined end to end by thick connections called ____.
Intercalated discs.
334
What is an intercalated disc?
A complex steplike structure with 3 distinctive features.
335
What are the 3 distinctive features of an intercalated disc?
Interdigitating folds, mechanical junctions, and electrical junctions.
336
What are interdigitating folds?
The plasma membrane at the end of the cell is folded somewhat like the bottom of an egg carton.
337
What are mechanical junctions?
The cells are tightly joined by 2 types of mechanical junctions: the fascia adherens and desmosomes.
338
Which of the 2 mechanical junctions if the most extensive?
The fascia adherens.
339
What are electrical junctions?
The intercalated discs also contain gap junctions, which form channels that allow ions to flow from the cytoplasm of 1 cardiomyocyte directly to the next.
340
What are the contractile proteins of a cardiomyocyte?
Actin and myosin
341
What is the heartbeat coordinated by?
A cardiac conduction system.
342
What is the cardiac conduction system composed of?
It is composed of an internal pacemaker and nervelike conduction pathways through the myocardium.
343
344
How does the cardiac conduction system generate and conduct rhythmic electrical signals?
o The sinoatrial (SA) node fires.
o Excitation spreads through atrial myocardium.
o The atrioventricular (AV) node fires.
o Excitation spreads down AV bundle.
o The subendocardial branches (Purkinje fibers) distribute excitation through ventricular myocardium.
345
What is an arrhythmia?
A condition in which the heart beats with an irregular or abnormal rhythm.
346
What is ventricular fibrillation?
The ventricles quiver instead of contracting normally. This prohibits the heart from pumping blood causing collapse and cardiac arrest.
347
What is atrial fibrillation?
A weak crippling contraction in the atria, appearing in the ECG as chaotic, high-frequency depolarizations.
348
What is a heart block?
A failure of any part of the cardiac conduction system to conduct signals, usually as the result of disease and degeneration of conduction system fibers.
349
What is an atrial flutter?
A type of abnormal heart rhythm that occurs when the chambers beat faster than normal and not always in coordination.
350
What is defibrillation?
An emergency procedure in which the heart is given a strong electrical shock with a pair of paddle electrodes.
351
What is tachycardia?
A persistent, resting adult heart rate above 100 bpm.
352
What causes tachycardia?
It can be caused by stress, anxiety, stimulants, heart disease, or fever.
353
What is bradycardia?
A persistent resting adult hear rate below 60 bpm.
354
When is bradycardia common?
During sleep and in endurance-trained athletes.
355
What is systole?
The contraction phase when the heart pumps blood out.
356
What is diastole?
The relaxation phase when the heart fills with blood.
357
What is a sinus rhythm?
The normal heartbeat triggered by the SA node.
358
How are action potentials propagated in cardiac muscle?
Via branching of the cells and cell: cell communication through intercalated discs. The intercalated discs contain gap junctions which allow positively charged ions (cations) to move between cells to depolarize the next cell.
359
What cardiac events generates the P wave?
Atrial depolarization
360
What cardiac event generates the QRS complex?
Ventricular depolarization
361
What cardiac event generates the T wave?
Ventricular repolarization
362
What are the sources of ATP used by cardiac muscle?
o Cardiac muscle is very rich in myoglobin which is a short-term source for aerobic respiration.
o It is also rich in glycogen which is for stored energy.
363
What does cardiac muscle depend on to make ATP?
Cardiac muscle depends almost exclusively on anerobic respiration to make ATP.
364
When given the heart rate, how do you calculate the time of 1 completed cardiac cycle?
Take the number 60 and divide it by the heart rate. This will give you the duration of 1 cardiac cycle in seconds.
365
What 2 phases make up the cardiac cycle?
Diastole and systole
366
Listening to the sounds made by the body is called ____.
Auscultation
367
The first and second heart beats, symbolized S1 and S2, are often described as a ____.
"Lubb-dupp”
368
Between S1 and S2, which heart sound is louder and longer, and which heart sound is a little softer and sharper?
S1 is louder and longer. S2 is a little softer and sharper.
369
What cardiac event is responsible for the “lubb-dupp” (S1 and S2) sound?
The closing of the valves.
370
What cardiac event is responsible for the “lubb” S1 sound?
The closing of the tricuspid and mitral valve.
371
How do the tricuspid and mitral valves close?
The papillary muscles close shut the tricuspid valve and mitral valve by pulling on the chordae tendineae.
372
What cardiac event is responsible for the “dubb” S2 sound?
The closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves.
373
What causes the aortic and pulmonary valves close?
When the ventricles relax, blood flows back into the aorta and pulmonary trunk which causes the valves to close.
374
What is cardiac output?
The amount ejected by each ventricle in 1 minute.
375
What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?
Cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume
376
Define cardiac reserve.
The difference between the maximum and resting cardiac output is called the cardiac reserve.
377
What are action potentials?
They are changes in resting membrane potential that travels for a long distance.
378
What is voltage?
A charge separation
379
What are the 3 voltage gated channels?
o Voltage gated sodium (Na+)
o Voltage gated calcium (Ca2+)
o Voltage gated potassium (K+)
380
Voltage gated sodium (Na+) channel opens and closes ____.
Fast
381
Voltage gated potassium (K+) channel opens and closes ____.
Slowly
382
What are the 3 phases of action potentials?
o Depolarization
o Repolarization
o Hyperpolarization
383
What is depolarization?
A decrease in polarity (less negative).
384
What is repolarization?
Returns to polarized/resting membrane potential.
385
What is hyperpolarization?
An increase in polarity (more negative).
386
What generates and distributes action potentials throughout the cardiac muscle?
The intrinsic conduction system.
387
Intrinsic means ____.
Within
388
Conduction means ____.
Generate and distribute
389
What are the 6 parts of the intrinsic conduction system (ICS)?
o Sinoatrial node (SA node)
o Internodal pathways
o Atrioventricular or AV node
o AV bundle of His
o Right and left bundle branches
o Purkinje fibers or subendocardial branches.
390
What do modified cardiomyocytes/cardiac muscle cells lose? What does this mean?
They lose actin and myosin. This means they cannot contract.
391
What are the cells that spontaneously generate action potentials and distribute them throughout the cardiac muscle called?
Autorhythmic cells
392
Autorhythmic cells make up what percentage of the heart?
Less than 1%
393
Where is the SA node located?
In the posterior wall of the right atrium. Below the SVC entrance.
394
What is the SA node called/referred to?
The pacemaker of the heart.
395
What is the normal rate of the SA node?
80-100 beats/minute.
396
How big is the SA node?
15mm ellipsoidal tissue.
397
What is the main function of the SA node?
It generates impulses for contractions of the heart.
398
Where do action potentials generated at the SA node travel through the atria?
By internodal pathways.
399
Where do the action potentials travel to after reaching the atria?
They come to the AV node.
400
Where is the AV node located?
On the interventricular septum, superior to the tricuspid valve.
401
How long do the AP’s delay at the AV node so that the atria can contract?
100 msec
402
Where is the AV bundle/bundle of HIS located?
On the interventricular septum.
403
The AV bundle/bundle of HIS branches into what? What is the location?
Branches to right and left bundle branches which travel on either side of interventricular septum, right up to the apex.
404
The bundle branches become bigger in diameter called what?
Purkinje fibers/subendocardial network.
405
Does the conduction system have a resting membrane potential? Why or why not?
No because they must constantly contract.
406
What are the steps of the action potentials of the conduction system?
o At the end of hyperpolarization (#4 on graph) the membrane slowly depolarizes to -40mv (which is the threshold).
o This happens because the membrane is leaky to sodium ions, so sodium enters.
o Depolarization to threshold occurs.
o Slow depolarization (#2a on graph) is called unstable resting membrane potential or prepotential or pacemaker potential.
o After the threshold (#2b on graph) voltage gated calcium channels open. Calcium enters and membrane potential is 0 or +20mv.
o Voltage gated calcium channels close.
o Voltage gated potassium channels open. Potassium rushes out and membrane is repolarized.
o As voltage gated potassium channels close slowly, potassium leaks out more causing hyperpolarization.
o At the end of hyperpolarization, it starts all over again.
407
What is an ECG/EKG?
An electrocardiogram
408
What does an ECG/EKG record?
The electrical activity of the heart.
409
The ECG is the sum of what?
Adding up the action potential of the cardiac muscle and the conduction system.
410
What is a straight line in an ECG called?
An isoelectric line.
411
What is a cardiac cycle?
All events in 1 single heartbeat.
412
A cardiac cycle is a __________ that happens after the _________.
Mechanical event, electrical event
413
What is the electrical event?
The action potential.
414
How long does 1 cardiac cycle last?
0.8 seconds
415
The R-R wave is 1 ____?
Cardiac cycle
416
How do you figure out how many cardiac cycles occur in 1 minute?
You divide 60 seconds (1 minute) by 0.8 seconds (R-R wave). 60/0.8 = 75 beats/min.
417
Why does the heart contract?
To pump blood.
418
What is the heart never completely empty of?
Blood
419
Why does the heart relax?
To fill with blood.
420
What are the discharging chambers?
The ventricles
421
What measures the systole?
The QT interval
422
What is the QT interval?
Beginning of Q to the end of T on an ECG.
423
What measures the diastole?
End of T to the next R.
424
What are the 5 stages of a cardiac cycle?
o 1a. Isovolumetric relaxation
o 1b. Ventricular filling
o 1c. Atrial contraction
o 2a. Isovolumetric contraction
o 2b. Ventricular ejection
425
What happens in ventricular filling of the cardiac cycle?
o There is minimal amount of blood in the ventricles.
o The aortic and pulmonary valves are closed.
o ¾ of the ventricles are filled with blood due to gravity/pressure gradient.
o P wave occurs.
426
What happens in atrial contraction of the cardiac cycle?
o After the P wave occurs, the atrial contraction begins.
o It pushes the remaining ¼ of the blood into the ventricles.
o QRS wave occurs; depolarization of the ventricles happens.
427
What is end diastolic volume (EDV)?
The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.
428
What is the measurement of EDV?
130mL of blood
429
What happens in isovolumetric contraction of the cardiac cycle?
o After the QRS wave, the ventricles start to contract from the apex of heart.
o The papillary muscles close shut the tricuspid and mitral valves by pulling on the chordae tendineae.
o This creates the S1 “lubb” sound.
430
What does isovolumetric mean?
Iso means same, volumetric has to do with volume. So, it means no change in the volume of blood.
431
What happens in ventricular ejection of the cardiac cycle?
o As the ventricles contract, they generate pressure to open the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves and eject blood into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.
o T wave occurs; ventricular repolarization happens.
432
What blood vessel is used to measure the blood pressure of the aorta?
The brachial artery.
433
What is the blood pressure of the aorta at the height of systole?
120 mm of Hg
434
What is the systolic blood pressure of the pulmonary trunk?
25 mm of Hg
435
What is end systolic volume (ESV)?
The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of systole.
436
What is the measurement of ESV?
60mL of blood.
437
What is stroke volume?
The amount of blood pumped by the ventricles per stroke/beat.
438
How do you calculate stroke volume?
EDV – ESV
439
What happens in isovolumetric relaxation of the cardiac cycle?
o After the T wave, the ventricles start to relax.
o Blood flows backwards into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.
o This causes the aortic and pulmonary valves to close and makes the “dubb” S2 sound.
440
What is the diastolic blood pressure of the aorta?
80 mm of Hg
441
What is the diastolic blood pressure of the pulmonary trunk?
8 mm of Hg
442
What does mm of Hg mean?
Millimeters of mercury.
443
What is a dicrotic notch?
A brief (small) increase in aortic pressure. In an aortic pressure graph, it is shown as a double peak.
444
Why is there a brief increase in aortic pressure?
Because of the backflow of blood into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.
445
Physiologically, what does the dicrotic notch symbolize?
It signifies the end of ventricular contraction.
446
What are the 4 heart structures that you listen to using a stethoscope?
Mitral valve, tricuspid valve, aortic valve, and pulmonary valve.
447
Where is the location of the mitral valve heart sound?
Left 5th intercostal space.
448
Where is the location of the tricuspid valve heart sound?
Right 5th intercostal space.
449
Where is the location of the aortic valve heart sound?
Left 2nd intercostal space.
450
Where is the location of the pulmonary valve heart sound?
Right 2nd intercostal space.
451
What are capillaries?
Microscopic vessels that connect the smallest arteries to the smallest veins.
452
The pathways of blood flow, steps 4 through 6, is the ____ circuit.
Pulmonary
453
The pathway of blood flow, steps 9-11, is the ____ circuit.
Systemic
454
What are the 2 major divisions of the cardiovascular system?
The pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit.
455
What is the function of the pulmonary circuit?
It carries blood to the lungs for gas exchange and returns it to the heart.
456
What part of the heart supplies the pulmonary circuit?
The right half of the heart.
457
What part of the heart supplies the systemic circuit?
The left half of the heart.
458
What part of the body does the superior vena cava drain blood?
The upper body
459
What part of the body does the inferior vena cava drain blood?
Everything below the diaphragm.
460
What are the great vessels?
The major arteries and veins entering and leaving the heart. Called great veins, great arteries.
461
What is pericarditis?
Inflammation of the pericardium.
462
The epicardium is also called ____.
Visceral layer of the serous pericardium.
463
How is the myocardium organized? What does it form?
It's organized into bundles that spiral around the heart, forming the vortex of the heart.
464
When the ventricles contract, they exhibit a _____ that enhances the ____.
Twisting or wringing motion, ejection of blood.
465
Blood flows to serve ____.
Tissue needs
466
What 3 factors help in circulation (flow of blood)?
Blood flow, blood pressure, and total peripheral resistance.
467
Blood flow = ____.
Cardiac output
468
What is blood flow?
The volume of blood flowing through the entire body in a given period of time.
469
What is blood flow measured in?
mL/min or L/min
470
What is blood pressure?
The force exerted by the blood on its vessel wall.
471
When does blood flow?
Only when there is a pressure gradient.
472
F = ____.
Blood flow
473
F can also be equal to ____.
Cardiac output
474
Formula: BP =
(Triangle)Pr
475
(Triangle) =
Gradient
476
Pr =
Blood pressure
477
Greater the pressure, greater the ____.
Blood flow
478
What is total peripheral resistance (TPR)?
The combined obstruction of all arterioles of the body.
479
In total peripheral resistance (TPR), peripheral refers to ____?
The arterioles.
480
Peripheral means ____.
On the outskirt.
481
In total peripheral resistance (TPR), resistance refers to ____?
Obstruction or constriction.
482
Greater the obstruction, less the ____.
Blood flow.
483
What is the formula for blood pressure?
(Triangle)PR divided by TPR.
484
What is the formula for cardiac output?
MABP divided by TPR.
485
What does MABP stand for?
Mean arterial blood pressure.
486
What is the formula for MABP?
CO x TRP
487
The body maintains homeostasis by ____ and ____.
CO and TPR.
488
How do you calculate MABP?
o Measure systolic BP and diastolic BP
o Calculate pulse pressure (PP) = Systolic BP – Diastolic BP
o MABP = (Pulse Pressure divided by 3) + Diastolic BP
489
What is the range of MABP?
90-110 mm of Hg
490
What nervous system has control over all the blood vessels?
The sympathetic nervous system.
491
What nervous system has no effect over the blood vessels?
The parasympathetic nervous system.
492
What nervous system is activated when the MABP falls below 90 mm of HG?
The sympathetic nervous system.
493
What happens when the MABP falls below 90 mm of HG?
o The sympathetic nervous system is activated.
o It keeps the blood vessels slightly contracted all the time.
o It stimulates the kidneys to release renin.
494
What is vasomotor tone?
The degree to which blood vessels contract or relax.
495
What happens to the skin, digestive tract, and urinary system when the MABP falls below 90 mm of Hg?
o The skin is cold and clammy.
o No digestion.
o Decrease in urine output.
496
What is renin?
An enzyme.
497
What happens when the kidneys are stimulated to release renin?
o The liver makes a plasma protein called angiotensinogen (inactive plasma protein).
o Renin acts on Angiotensinogen and converts it into Angiotensin1 (active).
o Angiotensin1 is converted in the lungs to angiotensin2 by an enzyme called angiotensin converting enzyme.
498
What 5 important factors does Angiotensin2 have?
o It is a potent vasoconstrictor.
o Stimulates thirst center.
o Directly stimulates kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water.
o Stimulates the adrenal gland (located on top of the kidneys) to release a hormone called aldoesterone.
o Stimulates the posterior pituitary to release Antidiuretics hormone to retain water.
499
What does the hormone aldosterone do?
It indirectly stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water.
500
What blood vessels are affected when the MABP falls below 90 mm of Hg?
Blood vessels of the skin, digestive tract, and urinary system.
501
What happens to the kidneys when the MABP falls below 90 mm of Hg?
The kidneys are stimulated to release renin into the blood vessels.
502
Why does MABP fall below 90 mm of Hg?
Because a loss of blood.
503
What do the 5 factors of angiotensin2 help with?
They help with homeostasis.
504
What does it mean that angiotensin2 is a potent vasoconstrictor?
It causes intense vasoconstriction of blood vessels of the skin, digestive tract, and urinary system.
505
How does angiotensin2 being a potent vasoconstrictor help in homeostasis?
It increases the TPR. When there is an increase in TPR, the MABP goes up.
506
What happens when angiotensin2 stimulates the thirst center?
It increases the blood volume, which then increases the cardiac output.
507
How does angiotensin2 stimulating the thirst center help in homeostasis?
It increases the cardiac output, which increases the MABP.
508
How does angiotensin2 directly stimulating the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water help in homeostasis?
Reabsorption increases the blood volume, which increases cardiac output, and the MABP goes up.
509
How does angiotensin2 stimulating the adrenal gland to release aldoesterone help in homeostasis?
Mineralocorticoid increases the blood volume, which increases the cardiac output, and the MABP goes up.
510
Antidiuretic hormone is also called ____?
Vasopressin
511
How does angiotensin2 simulating the posterior pituitary to release antidiuretic hormone help in homeostasis?
Retaining water increases the blood volume, which increases the cardiac output, and the MABP goes up.
512
What type of feedback is the process the body goes through after the MABP falls below 90 mm of Hg?
Negative feedback
513
What part of your brainstem receives signals from sensory neurons when there are changes in blood pressure, carbon dioxide, pH, and oxygen?
The medulla oblongata.
514
What sensory neurons respond to changes in blood pressure?
Baroreceptors
515
What sensory neurons respond to changes in carbon dioxide, pH, and oxygen?
Chemoreceptors
516
What autonomic nervous system does the medulla oblongata influence?
The medulla oblongata influences whichever autonomic nervous system that needs to react based on the signals it receives.
517
Long term control of the MABP is by ____.
The kidneys
518
Short term control of the MABP is by ____.
TPR
519
What 3 factors is TPR influenced by?
Blood viscosity, the length of the blood vessels, and has an inverse relation (indirectly related) to fourth power of radius of blood vessels.
520
In terms of TPR: greater the viscosity, ____.
Greater the TPR.
521
In terms of TPR: greater the length of the blood vessels, ____.
Greater the TPR.
522
In terms of TPR: greater the radius, ____.
Greater the TPR.
523
Which of the 3 factors that influence TPR, has the greatest influence?
The radius
524
What autonomic nervous system controls the radius of the blood vessels?
The sympathetic NS.
525
Is TPR directly or indirectly related to blood viscosity?
Directly
526
Is TPR directly or indirectly related to blood vessel length?
Directly
527
Is TPR directly or indirectly related to the fourth power of the radius of blood vessels?
Indirectly
528
What is the ratio of TPR to blood viscosity?
1:1
529
What is the ratio of TPR to blood vessel length.
1:1
530
What is the ratio of TPR to the fourth power of the radius of blood vessels?
1:4
531
What is velocity?
Speed
532
The velocity of blood flow is inversely related to what?
The cross-sectional area of the blood vessel
533
What is the measurement of the cross-sectional area of the aorta?
2.5cm2
534
What is the velocity of blood flow in the aorta?
40-50 cm/sec
535
What is the cross-sectional area of the capillary?
4500cm2
536
What is the velocity of blood flow in a capillary?
0.03 cm/sec
537
What is the cross-sectional area of a vein?
8cm2
538
What is the velocity of blood flow in a vein?
10cm/sec
539
Does blood flow the fastest in the aorta, a capillary or a vein?
The aorta
540
Why does blood flow the fastest in the aorta?
Blood flows with gravity which is why it is the fastest.
541
Does blood flow the slowest in the aorta, a capillary or a vein?
A capillary
542
Why does blood flow the slowest in a capillary?
To not damage the capillary. They have thin walls.
543
Why does blood flow slower in the veins than the aorta?
Blood in the veins flows against gravity while blood in the aorta flows with gravity.
544
What are the 3 mechanisms of capillary exchange?
Diffusion, transcytosis, and bulk flow.
545
What is diffusion?
The movement of solutes from the capillaries to the cells.
546
What is transcytosis?
A vesicle-mediated transport.
547
What is bulk flow?
The movement of massive amounts of fluid and solutes from the capillaries to interstitial fluid to the cells, and vice versa.
548
What is bulk flow needed for?
To maintain the volume and composition of interstitial fluid.
549
Bulk flow includes what 2 functions?
Filtration and reabsorption
550
Where does the filtration function of bulk flow happen?
It happens at the arterial end of the capillary.
551
Why does the filtration function of bulk flow happen at the arterial end of the capillary?
Because of blood (hydrostatic) pressure. Blood (hydrostatic) pressure pushes out.
552
Where does the reabsorption function of bulk flow happen?
It happens at the venular end of the capillary.
553
Why does the reabsorption function of bulk flow happen at the venular end of the capillary?
Because of osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure pulls in.
554
What is the BP of the capillary arterial end?
35 mm of Hg
555
What is the BP of the capillary venular end?
25 mm of Hg
556
What is the osmotic pressure of blood?
15 mm of Hg
557
What are blood vessels?
Pipes or tubes that carry blood.
558
How many types of blood vessels are there?
5
559
What are the 5 types of blood vessels?
o Arteries
o Arterioles
o Capillaries
o Venules
o Veins
560
Arteries becomes smaller arteries called ____.
Arterioles
561
Arterioles lead on to ____.
Capillaries
562
Capillaries lead on to smaller and medium sized veins called ____.
Venules
563
Venules lead on to ____.
Veins
564
What are arteries?
Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart.
565
What are veins?
Blood vessels that carry blood back to the heart.
566
What do capillaries connect?
The smallest arteries to the smallest veins.
567
Most arteries carry ____.
Oxygenated blood
568
There is 1 artery that does not carry oxygenated blood. What is it called?
Pulmonary artery
569
What kind of blood does the pulmonary artery carry?
Deoxygenated blood
570
Most veins carry ____.
Deoxygenated blood
571
There is 1 vein that does not carry deoxygenated blood. What is it called?
Pulmonary veins
572
What kind of blood does the pulmonary vein carry?
Oxygenated blood
573
What are arterioles?
Smaller arteries
574
What are arterioles typically called? Why?
Resistance vessels, because they are the ones that are restricting the flow of blood to the capillaries.
575
What does it mean that it is a closed circulatory system?
A pipe/tube will start at one place and come back again to the same place.
576
What are capillaries also called?
Exchange vessels
577
Why are capillaries called exchange vessels?
Because oxygen and nutrients are exchanged from the capillaries to the cells. Waste products and carbon dioxide are taken from the cells back into the capillaries.
578
What are the thinnest, smallest, and microscopic blood vessels?
Capillaries
579
What 3 layers make up the blood vessel wall?
Tunica interna, Tunica media, and tunica externa.
580
What is the innermost layer of the blood vessel wall?
Tunica interna
581
What is the middle layer of the blood vessel wall?
Tunica media
582
What is the outermost layer of the blood vessel wall?
Tunica externa
583
What is lumen of a blood vessel?
The central space through which blood flows.
584
Which layer of the blood vessel wall is closest to the blood?
Tunica interna
585
What type of epithelium is the tunica interna layer of a blood vessel made up of? What is it called?
Simple squamous epithelium. Endothelium
586
Which arteries are bigger? Elastic or muscular?
Elastic
587
What are the main elastic/conducting arteries?
Aorta, common carotid, subclavian, pulmonary trunk, and common iliac arteries.
588
What are the main muscular arteries?
Brachial, femoral, renal, and splenic arteries.
589
The autonomic nervous system controls the ____ muscle, _____ muscle, and the ____.
Smooth, cardiac, glands
590
Which autonomic NS controls smooth muscle?
Sympathetic NS
591
What artery is used to measure blood pressure? What tool is used?
Brachial artery, sphygmomanometer.
592
What is systolic pressure?
Peak arterial blood pressure taken during ventricular contraction (ventricular systole).
593
What is diastolic pressure?
Minimum arterial blood pressure taken during ventricular relaxation (diastole) between heart beats.
594
What is pulse pressure?
The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.
595
How do you calculate pulse pressure?
Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure
596
Does the heart spend more time in diastole or systole?
Diastole
597
Exchanges between the blood and surrounding tissues are made only through ____.
Capillary walls
598
What is venous return?
The flow of blood back to the heart.
599
Is angiotensinogen an active or inactive plasma protein?
Inactive plasma protein
600
Is angiotensin1 active or inactive?
Active
601
Where are chemoreceptors contained?
The carotid body and and aortic bodies
602
Where are baroreceptors contained?
In the carotid sinus
603
Elastic arteries are also called _____. Why?
Pressure reservoirs because they are able to withstand that much of a pressure gradient from the left ventricle when it contracts and relaxes.
604
Elastic arteries become smaller and become ____ arteries.
Muscular
605
Muscular arteries are also called _____ arteries. Why?
Distributing because they distribute blood to specific organs.
606
What is vasodilation?
The widening of a blood vessel.
607
What is vasoconstriction?
The narrowing of a blood vessel.
608
How does vasodilation happen?
It occurs from relaxation of the smooth muscle, allowing blood pressure to expand the vessel.
609
How does vasoconstriction happen?
It occurs when the smooth muscle of the tunica media contracts.
610
Why do arteries have so much more elastic than veins do?
Veins are subjected to less pressure than arteries so they have less need for elasticity.
611
Which arteries are bigger? Elastic or muscular arteries?
Elastic
612
Describe the role of arterioles in regulation of blood flow from the arteries into
the capillaries
The smooth muscle lining of arterioles allows them to actively change their diameter, either constricting to reduce blood flow or dilating to increase flow.
613
Describe the difference between filtration and reabsorption in a capillary.
Filtration is the movement of blood from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues. Reabsorption is the movement of fluid from the tissues back into the blood vessel.
614
What is the main purpose of the respiratory system?
For air to come in and go out.
615
What are the 4 steps of respiratory physiology?
1. Pulmonary ventilation
2. Exchanges of respiratory gases
3. Transport of respiratory gases (both oxygen and carbon dioxide) by the blood.
4. Exchange of oxygen from oxygenated blood to the cells and carbon dioxide from the cells to deoxygenated blood.
616
What is pulmonary ventilation?
Breathing
617
What 2 exchanges of respiratory gases occurs?
1. Oxygen from the lungs to deoxygenated blood.
2. Carbon dioxide from the deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
618
The process of the exchanging of respiratory gases is also called ____.
External respiration
619
What part of the blood transports the respiratory gases?
RBCs, specifically hemoglobin transports these gases.
620
The exchange of oxygen from oxygenated blood to the cells and carbon dioxide from the cells to deoxygenated blood is also called ____ or ____.
Cellular respiration or the Krebs' cycle.
621
What system performs steps 1 and 2 of respiratory physiology?
The respiratory system
622
What system performs steps 3 and 4 of respiratory physiology?
The circulatory system
623
What are the 13 structures of the respiratory system in order?
o (1) Nose
o (2) Nasal cavity
o (3) Pharynx (throat)
o (4) Larynx
o (5) Trachea
o (6) Right and left main/primary bronchi
o (7) Secondary bronchi
o (8) Tertiary bronchi
o (9) Bronchioles
o (10) Terminal bronchioles
o (11) Respiratory bronchioles
o (12) Alveolar ducts
o (13) Alveolus
624
What 2 tracts is the pharynx common to?
Both the respiratory tract and digestive tract.
625
How many secondary bronchi are on the right side and how many are on the left side?
3 secondary bronchi on the right side and 2 on the left side.
626
From the ____ to the ____ is the conducting zone of the respiratory system?
Nose, terminal bronchioles.
627
Why is from the nose to the terminal bronchioles called the conducting zone of the respiratory tract?
Because only air passes through. No gas exchange.
628
From the ____ to the ____ is the respiratory zone of the respiratory system.
Respiratory bronchioles, alveolus.
629
Why is from the respiratory bronchioles to the alveolus called the respiratory zone?
Because the exchange of respiratory gases are taking place.
630
What is considered the upper respiratory system?
The nose, nasal cavity, and pharynx.
631
What is considered the lower respiratory system?
From the larynx to the lungs.
632
What is the only external visible part of the respiratory system?
The nose
633
What are the 3 functions of the nose?
Air is filtered, warmed and humidified.
It a resonating chamber for speech.
It houses the olfactory epithelium – sense of smell.
634
What is the structural framework of the nose?
Bones and hyaline cartilage
635
What are the 5 external structures of the nose?
* Bridge
* Root
* External Nares
* Apex
* Dorsum nasi
REMEMBER B.R.E.A.D
636
What is the root of the nose made up of?
Frontal bone
637
What bone is the bridge of the nose?
The nasal bone
638
What is the dorsum nasi of the nose?
The sharp anterior border of the nose.
639
What is the apex of the nose?
The pointed tip of the nose.
640
What is the apex flared by? What direction is it flared?
Cartilages, laterally.
641
What are the external nares?
Nostrils which are the openings on the outside.
642
What is the philtrum?
An area inferior to the nose.
643
What are the 5 internal structures of the nose?
* Floor of nasal cavity
* Midline nasal septum
* Nasal cavity
* Nasal vestibule
* Roof of nasal cavity
644
Where is the nasal cavity located?
Posterior to the external nares.
645
What is the midline nasal septum made up of anteriorly?
Nasal cartilage.
646
What is the midline nasal septum made up of posteriorly?
Vomer and perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone.
647
Where is the nasal vestibule located?
Within the nasal cavity, posterior to the external nares.
648
What does the nasal vestibule have?
Course guard hairs called vibrissae.
649
What is the function of vibrissae ?
They block small insect and debris from entering the nose.
650
What is the roof of the nasal cavity made up of?
Sphenoid and ethmoid bone.
651
What is the floor of the nasal cavity made up of?
Hard palate
652
What part of the nasal cavity is lined by olfactory epithelium?
The roof of the nasal cavity.
653
What type of epithelium is olfactory epithelium?
Pseudostratified ciliated (non-motile) columnar epithelium.
654
What sense is olfactory epithelium?
Sense of smell.
655
What is the rest of the nasal cavity lined by except for the vestibule?
Respiratory epithelium
656
What type of epithelium is respiratory epithelium?
Respiratory epithelium is pseudostratified ciliated (ciliated meaning motile, it moves) columnar epithelium with goblet cells (secretes mucus).
657
What is the chamber behind the nasal vestibule made up of?
3 folds of tissue
658
What are the 3 folds of tissue that make up the chamber behind the nasal vestibule?
Superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae.
659
What is meatus?
The narrow air passage beneath each concha
660
What is the anatomical location of the pharynx?
It extends from the base of the skull to C4.
661
What is the pharynx?
A fibromuscular tube.
662
What is the pharynx commonly called?
The throat
663
The pharynx continues down the ____.
Esophagus
664
What are the 3 parts of the pharynx?
Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx
665
Where is the nasopharynx located?
Posterior to the nasal cavity
666
What is the nasopharynx lined with? Why?
It is lined with respiratory epithelium because air passes through it.
667
High up on the nasopharynx wall, posteriorly is a collection of ____ called ____ or ____.
Lymphoid tissue, pharyngeal tonsil, adenoids.
668
What opens up into the nasopharynx?
An auditory/eustachian tube.
669
Surrounding the auditory/eustachian tube, there is a collection of ____ called ____.
Lymphoid tissue, tubal tonsils.
670
Where is the oropharynx located?
Posterior to the oval cavity
671
What is the oropharynx lined with? Why?
It is lined with stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium because air and food passes through it.
672
What is at the base of the tongue?
The lingual tonsil
673
What is on the lateral walls of the oropharynx?
The palatine tonsil. ** This is the tonsil you typically think of.
674
Where is the laryngopharynx located?
Posterior to the larynx.
675
What is the laryngopharynx lined with? Why?
It is lined with a stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium because air and water pass through it.
676
The laryngopharynx continues down (into) the ____.
Esophagus
677
The larynx is also called the ____.
Voice box
678
What is the larynx?
It's a cartilaginous tube.
679
Anatomically, where is the larynx located?
It extends from C4-C6.
680
The larynx continues down the ____.
Trachea
681
The larynx is made up of how many cartilages?
9
682
How many paired and unpaired cartilages is the larynx made up of?
3 pairs cartilages and 3 unpaired cartilages.
683
What are the 3 paired cartilages that make up the larynx?
Arytenoid
Corniculate
Cuneiform
684
What are the 3 unpaired cartilages that make up the larynx?
Thyroid
Cricoid
Epiglottis
685
Except for the epiglottis, all of the laryngeal cartilages are made up of ____.
Hyaline cartilage
686
What type of cartilage is the epiglottis made up of?
Elastic cartilage
687
Out of the 8 hyaline cartilages of the larynx, which is the largest?
The thyroid
688
What is the shape of the thyroid?
Has a shield shape.
689
Where does the thyroid fuse and what does it form?
It fuses in the midline and forms the "laryngeal prominence" or Adam's apple.
690
Why is the Adam's apple more prominent in males?
Because of the hormone testosterone.
691
At the ____ border of the thyroid cartilage, the ____ divides into the ____ and ____.
Superior, common carotid, external carotid artery, internal carotid artery.
692
From the thyroid to the ____ cartilages, seen on the posterior view, a pair of ____ are attached, and they are called ____.
Arytenoid, ligaments, vocal cords/vocal ligaments/true vocal cords.
693
The medial pair of ligaments, also called the vocal cords/vocal ligaments/true vocal cords, function in what?
They function in the production of speech.
694
What is the space between the true vocal cords called?
The glottis
695
There is a lateral pair of ligaments on the interior wall of the larynx that are called ____.
Vestibular folds/ligaments or false vocal cords.
696
What is the function of the false vocal cords.
They aid in swallowing.
697
What is the trachea also called?
The windpipe
698
What is the trachea?
A rough walled artery (air holder).
699
The trachea is anterior to the ____.
Esophagus.
700
Anatomically, where is the trachea located?
It extends from C6-T5.
701
What is the length and diameter of the trachea?
It is 12 cm long and 2 cm in diameter.
702
How many layers is the tracheal wall made up of?
3
703
What are the 3 layers of the tracheal wall?
Mucosa
Submucosa
Adventitia
704
What type of epithelium and connective tissue is the mucosa of the tracheal wall?
Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium and areolar tissue.
705
What is the submucosa layer of the tracheal wall consist of?
Mucus secreting glands.
706
What is the submucosa layer of the tracheal wall supported by?
16-20 "C" shaped rings of hyaline cartilage, incomplete posteriorly towards the esophagus.
707
What is the submucosa layer of the tracheal wall covered by?
Smooth muscle called trachealis.
708
What is the outermost layer of the tracheal wall?
The adventitia.
709
What is the adventitia layer of the tracheal wall made up of?
Collagen fibers
710
The trachea ends by dividing into what? Where does it divide at?
The right and left main/primary bronchi at T5
711
What is the last piece of the tracheal cartilage called before it divides into the left and right main bronchi?
Carina
712
What is carina?
A sensitive mucosa.
713
The right main bronchi is ____, ____, and ____ with the ____.
Shorter, wider, vertical, trachea.
714
The epithelium of the bronchial tree ____.
Changes
715
What are the epithelium changes of the bronchial tree?
The epithelium changes from pseudostratified ciliated columnar to simple columnar to simple cuboidal and then simple squamous.
716
The cartilages of the bronchial tree _____.
Change
717
What are the cartilage changes of the bronchial tree?
The cartilages changes from hyaline cartilage plates to irregular plates and no cartilage at the level of the bronchioles.
718
As the amount of cartilage ____, smooth muscle in the bronchioles ____, and this is under the control of which autonomic nervous system? The broncho ____.
Decreases, increases, sympathetic NS. Dilates
719
What is the first step in respiratory physiology?
Pulmonary ventilation/breathing.
720
What type of process is inhalation?
An active process.
721
How long does inhalation last for?
2 seconds
722
What type of process is exhalation?
A passive process.
723
How long does exhalation last for?
3 seconds
724
How long is 1 respiratory rate/breath?
5 seconds
725
What 2 actions are involved in pulmonary ventilation/breathing?
Inhale and exhale.
726
How many breaths are there in a min?
12-14 breaths/min.
727
What is quiet respiration?
Breathing while at rest; effortless and automatic.
728
What is forced respiration?
Deep or rapid breathing, such as during exercise or playing an instrument.
729
What are the 3 factors in pulmonary ventilation?
* Skeletal muscles of respiration
* Pressures
* Gas laws
730
What are the 2 skeletal muscles of respiration?
The diaphragm and the intercostal muscles.
731
How much of the respiration work does the diaphragm do?
2/3 or 75%
732
What nerve supplies the diaphragm?
The phrenic nerve.
733
What is the shape of the diaphragm?
Dome shaped
734
What happens when the diaphragm contracts?
It flattens down, which increases the superior inferior diameter of the thoracic cavity.
735
How much of the respiration work do the intercostal muscles do?
1/3 or 25%
736
Where are the intercostal muscles located?
Between the ribs
737
What happens when the intercostal muscles contract?
They increase the interior posterior diameter of the thoracic cavity, which increases the thoracic cavity volume.
738
What is atmospheric pressure (Patm)?
The pressure exerted by all the gases of the atmosphere.
739
What is alveolar/pulmonary pressure (Palv)?
The pressure exerted by gases in the alveolus (pressure in the lungs).
740
Alveolar/pulmonary pressure can be ____, ____, or ____ atmospheric pressure.
Equal to, lesser than, greater than.
741
What is intrapleural pressure (Pip)?
The pressure exerted by gases in the pleural cavity (pressure outside of the lungs, but in the pleural cavity).
742
Is intrapleural pressure always negative or positive?
Negative
743
What is the range of intrapleural pressure (Pip)?
-4 to -6 mm of Hg
744
What is Boyle's Law?
The pressure exerted by gases inversely related to the volume of the container. P = 1/volume.
745
What is the relationship between volume and pressure in regards to gas laws?
As the volume increases, the pressure decreases. When the volume decreases, the pressure increases.
746
At the beginning of respiration, Palv ____ Patm.
Equals
747
What is a spirometry?
It measures the amount of air in the respiratory tract.
748
What 4 volumes are measured using a spirometry?
* Tidal volume (TV)
* Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
* Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
* Residual volume (RV)
749
What is tidal volume?
The amount of air passing in and out of the respiratory tract (500mL).
750
What is inspiratory reserve volume?
The max amount of air inhaled.
751
What is expiratory reserve volume?
The max amount of air exhaled.
752
What is residual volume?
The amount of air always in the lungs.
753
What 4 capacities can be calculated with a spirometry?
* Vital capacity (VC)
* Total lung capacity (TLC)
* Function residual capacity (FRC)
* Inspiratory capacity (IC)
754
What is vital capacity?
The total amount of exchangeable air.
755
What is the formula for vital capacity?
TV + IRV + ERV = VC
756
What is the formula for total lung capacity?
TV + IRV + ERV + RV = TLC
757
What is the formula for function residual capacity?
ERV + RV = FRC
758
What is the formula for inspiratory capacity?
TV + IRV = IC
759
What is the formula for cardiac output?
Stroke volume x heart rate
760
What is the formula for minute ventilatory volume (MVV)?
Respiratory rate x tidal volume
761
What is dead air space?
The amount of air in the conducting zone of the respiratory tract.
762
____ lb of body weight = ____ ml of dead air space
1, 1
763
What is the formula for alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)?
Alveolar ventilation rate (AVR) = respiratory rate x (TV – dead space air)
764
What is Dalton's Law of Partial Pressure?
The total atmospheric pressure is the sum of the partial pressure of the individual gases.
765
What is the formula for Dalton's Law of Partial Pressure?
Patm = PN2 + PO2 + PCO2 + PH20 + P noble gases
(760 mm of Hg = 500 + 160 + 0.3)
766
What is Henry's Law of solubility?
At air water interface, the amount of gas that diffuses depends on the partial pressure and its solubility.
767
Oxygen is transported from the ____ to all the ____ of our body.
Lungs, cells
768
Carbon dioxide is transported from the ____ to the ____.
Cells, lungs
769
What color is oxygenated blood? Where is it seen?
It’s bright red and is seen in the arteries.
770
What is blood in the arteries called?
Arterial blood
771
What color is deoxygenated blood? Where is it seen?
It’s dark red and is seen in the veins.
772
What is blood in the veins called?
Veinous blood.
773
What is the volume of blood in an adult human?
4 to 6L of blood.
774
What are the functions of RBCs?
Carry oxygen from the lungs to the cells/tissues and pick up CO2 from the cells/tissues and brings it to the lungs.
775
____ of RBC cytoplasm is filled with a protein called ____.
33%, hemoglobin (Hb)
776
How many oxygen molecules can 1 hemoglobin carry?
4 oxygen molecules
777
Hemoglobin simultaneously carries ____ and ____.
Oxygen, carbon dioxide
778
What is the structure of a hemoglobin?
Hemoglobin is made up of heme and globin. Heme is made up of iron (Fe) placed within a ringlike structure. Globin is the protein, made up of alpha and beta chains.
779
Each Hb molecule consists of how many protein chains? What are they called?
4, globins
780
How many alpha chains and beta chains does an adult Hb have?
2 alpha chains (alpha 1, alpha 2) and 2 beta chains (beta 1, beta 2).
781
What are the oxygen molecules attached to on a hemoglobin?
Attached to the iron molecule.
782
What is the carbon dioxide attached to on a hemoglobin? What is this called?
Attached to the globin chains. This is called carbamino hemoglobin.
783
The bond between hemoglobin and oxygen is ____ and ____.
Loose, reversible
784
Barometric pressure = ____.
Atmospheric pressure
785
What is systemic gas exchange?
The unloading of oxygen and loading of carbon dioxide at the systemic capillaries.
786
What is total lung capacity?
The maximum amount of air that the lungs can contain.
787
What is function residual capacity?
The amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration; the amount that can never be voluntary exhaled.
788
What is inspiratory capacity?
The maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration.
789
What are the 9 functions of the respiratory system?
1. Gas exchange
2. Communication
3. Olfaction
4. Acid-base balance
5. Blood pressure regulation
6. Platelet production
7. Blood and lymph flow
8. Blood filtration
9. Expulsion of abdominal components
790
What is the gas exchange function of the respiratory system?
It provides for oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange between blood and air.
791
What is the communication function of the respiratory system?
It serves for speech and other vocalization (laughing, crying).
792
What is the olfaction function of the respiratory system?
It provides the sense of smell.
793
What is the acid-base balance function of the respiratory system?
By eliminating carbon dioxide, it helps control the pH of the body fluids.
794
What is the blood pressure regulation function of the respiratory system?
The lungs carry out a step in synthesizing angiotensin II, a hormone that regulates blood pressure.
795
What is the platelet production function of the respiratory system?
More than half of one's blood platelets are made by megakaryocytes in the lungs.
796
What is the blood and lymph flow function of the respiratory system?
Breathing creates pressure gradients between the thorax and abdomen that promote the flow of lymph and venous blood.
797
What is the blood filtration function of the respiratory system?
The lungs filter small blood clots from the bloodstream and dissolve them.
798
What is the expulsion of abdominal contents function of the respiratory system?
Breath-holding and abdominal contraction help to expel abdominal contents during urination, defecation, and childbirth.
799
800
What does the respiratory zone of the respiratory system consist of?
It consists of the alveoli and other gas-exchanging regions of the distal airways.
801
What does the conducting zone of the respiratory system consist of?
It consists of passages that serve only for airflow.
802
The nasal cavity extends from the ____ to the ____.
external nares, internal nares.
803
What does the floor of the nasal cavity separate? What does this allow?
It separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity. It allows you to breath while you chew.
804
What type of epithelium is the nasal vestibule lined with?
Stratified squamous epithelium.
805
What do the muscles of the pharynx assist in?
They assist in swallowing and speech.
806
Why is the trachea anterior compared to the esophagus which is posterior?
We can survive without food for nearly a month. We can survive 7-10 days without water. Without air, our cells can only survive for 3-4 minutes. So, air is more important than food and water. That is why the trachea is position anteriorly (in the front).
807
What is the main function of the larynx?
To keep food and drink out of the airway.
808
What is the largest of the paired cartilages?
Arytenoid
809
What is the epiglottis?
A flap of tissue that guards the superior opening of the larynx.
810
What is the function of the epiglottis?
It prevents food and fluid from entering the lungs and windpipe.
811
What position is the epiglottis in at rest? What does this do?
It stands almost vertically, allowing air to pass into the larynx and lungs.
812
What muscles control the vocal cords?
The deep intrinsic muscles.
813
What muscles connect the larynx to the hyoid bone?
The superior extrinsic muscles.
814
What layer of the trachea wall is the inner lining?
Mucosa
815
What layer of the trachea wall is the middle layer?
Submucosa layer
816
What does the gap in the C-rings (in the trachea) allow?
the gap in C-rings allows room for the esophagus to expand as swallowed food passes by.
817
The lung has a ____ and an ____.
Base, apex.
818
What is the shape of the base of the lung? What is it resting on?
A broad concave portion. The diaphragm.
819
What is the apex of the lung? Where does it project?
The tip of the lung. It projects just above the clavicle.
820
The costal surface of the lung is pressed against the ____.
Ribcage
821
The mediastinal surface of the lung faces ____ towards the ____.
Medially, heart.
822
How many lobes does the right lung have?
3
823
How many lobes does the left lung have?
2
824
What is the bronchial tree?
A branching system of air tubes in each lung.
825
What blood vessels services the bronchial tree?
The brachial artery.
826
Where is the parietal pleura located?
It adheres to mediastinum, inner surface of ribcage, and superior surface of the diaphragm.
827
What is the serous membrane that covers the lungs?
Visceral pleura
828
What is the pleural cavity?
A potential space between pleurae.
829
What does the pleural cavity contain?
Pleural fluid.
830
What are the functions of the pleurae and pleural fluid?
* Reduce friction
* Create pressure gradient (lower pressure than atmospheric pressure; assists lung inflation).
831
What type of epithelium do the bronchioles have? What 2 components does the bronchiole epithelium not have?
Ciliated cuboidal epithelium. Mucous gland or goblet cell.
