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Human Anatomy & Physiology II > Final Exam > Flashcards

Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

What are the major components of the cardiovascular system?

A

The heart and the blood vessels.

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2
Q

What is cardiology?

A

The study of the heart.

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3
Q

What is angiology?

A

The study of the blood vessels.

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4
Q

What kind of tissue is blood?

A

A specialized connective tissue.

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5
Q

Why is blood a connective tissue?

A

It is made up of cells and ECM.

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6
Q

What is hematology?

A

The study of blood.

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7
Q

What are the major functions of blood?

A

Transportation, protection, and regulation.

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8
Q

What is the transport function of blood?

A

Blood carries/transports O2, CO2, nutrients, wastes, hormones, and stem cells.

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9
Q

Oxygen is transported from the ____ to all the ____ of our body.

A

Lungs, cells

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10
Q

Organic nutrients are transported from the ____ to all the ____ for use or for storage.

A

Digestive tract, cells

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11
Q

Carbon dioxide is transported from the ____ to the ____.

A

Cells, lungs

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12
Q

Waste products are transported from the ____ to the ____ for ____.

A

Cells, kidneys, excretion

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13
Q

What are examples of the waste products transported from the cells to the kidneys?

A

Bilirubin, creatinine, nucleic acids, and ammonia.

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14
Q

Hormones are ____ produced by ____.

A

Chemical messengers, endocrine glands

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15
Q

What is the protection function of blood?

A

Blood protects us from inflammation, limits the spread of infection, destroys microorganisms and cancer cells, neutralizes toxins, and initiates clotting.

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16
Q

What blood cells protect us from infections?

A

White blood cells

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17
Q

What cell fragments brings about a mechanism called clotting?

A

Platelets

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18
Q

What is the regulation function of blood?

A

Blood regulates fluid balance, stabilizes pH of ECF, and controls body temperature.

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19
Q

Blood regulates the ____ and ____ of ECF.

A

Volume, composition

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20
Q

What maintains the pH of ECF?

A

The proteins in blood.

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21
Q

When the body is overheating, how do the blood vessels regulate body temperature?

A

Through vasodilation.

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22
Q

When the body is shivering, how do blood vessels regulate body temperature?

A

Through constriction.

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23
Q

What are the physical characteristics of blood?

A

Color, volume, pH, osmolarity, viscosity, and temperature.

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24
Q

What color is oxygenated blood? Where is it seen?

A

It’s bright red and is seen in the arteries.

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25
Q

What is blood in the arteries called?

A

Arterial blood

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26
Q

What color is deoxygenated blood? Where is it seen?

A

It’s dark red and is seen in the veins.

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27
Q

What is blood in the veins called?

A

Veinous blood

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28
Q

What is the volume of blood in an adult human?

A

4 to 6L of blood.

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29
Q

What is the range pH of blood?

A

7.35 to 7.45

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30
Q

What is the pH of arterial blood?

A

7.45

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31
Q

What is the pH of veinous blood?

A

7.35

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32
Q

Why is the pH of arterial blood higher than veinous blood?

A

Arterial blood has less carbon dioxide, so it has more oxygen. Veinous blood has more carbon dioxide, so it has less oxygen.

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33
Q

What is osmolarity?

A

Total concentration of solute particles.

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34
Q

What is the osmolarity of blood?

A

300 milli osm/liter

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35
Q

What is viscosity?

A

Thickness of blood

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36
Q

What is the temperature of blood?

A

Slightly warmer than body temp, 38 C or 100.4F

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37
Q

What is blood plasma?

A

Matrix of blood (ECM).

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38
Q

What is blood plasma made up of?

A

Water, plasma proteins, and whatever the blood transports.

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39
Q

How much of the plasma is made up of water?

A

92%

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40
Q

How much of the plasma is made up of plasma proteins?

A

6% to 8%

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41
Q

How much of the plasma is made up of whatever the blood transports?

A

1% to 2%

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42
Q

What are formed elements? How many kinds are there?

A

Cell and cell fragments. 7

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43
Q

____ and the ____ make up blood.

A

Plasma, 7 formed elements

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44
Q

What is a hematocrit test?

A

A blood tests that measures the percentage of red blood cells in your blood.

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45
Q

What is venipuncture?

A

Puncture of a vein to withdraw a blood sample.

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46
Q

The ratio of ____ to the ____ is called hematocrit or packed cell volume (PCV).

A

RBCs, whole entire blood

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47
Q

What is the RBC count in men?

A

4.6 to 6.2 million/μL.

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48
Q

μL means _____

A

Micrometer

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49
Q

What is the hemoglobin concentration of whole blood in men?

A

13 to 18 g/dL

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50
Q

What is the percentage of whole blood?

A

100%

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51
Q

What is the RBC count in women?

A

4.2 to 5.4 million/μL

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52
Q

What is the hemoglobin concentration of whole blood in women?

A

12 to 16 g/dL

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53
Q

dL means _____

A

Deciliter

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54
Q

In a hematocrit test, what element are the heaviest and settle first?

A

Erythrocytes aka RBCs.

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55
Q

What is the percentage of RBCs in men?

A

42% to 52% cells

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56
Q

What is the percentage of RBCs in women?

A

37% to 48% cells.

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57
Q

What is the buffy coat made up of?

A

White blood cells and platelets.

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58
Q

What is the percentage of buffy coat?

A

Less than 1%

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59
Q

What is the percentage of plasma in a hematocrit test?

A

55%

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60
Q

What is O2?

A

Oxygen

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61
Q

What is CO2?

A

Carbon dioxide

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62
Q

What is HHb?

A

Deoxyhemoglobin

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63
Q

What is HbO2?

A

Oxyhemoglobin

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64
Q

What is H+?

A

Hydrogen

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65
Q

What is HCO3-?

A

Bicarbonate

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66
Q

What is Cl-?

A

Chloride

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67
Q

What is CAH?

A

Carbon anhydrase

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68
Q

What is serum?

A

The remaining fluid when blood clots and solids are removed.

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69
Q

Serum is identical to plasma except for what?

A

It doesn’t have any fibrinogen.

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70
Q

What is fibrinogen?

A

It forms the framework of a blood clot.

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71
Q

Serum = plasma minus the ____.

A

Clotting factors

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72
Q

What is hemopoiesis?

A

The production of blood.

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73
Q

Where does hemopoiesis occur?

A

In the bone marrow.

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74
Q

What is the technical name for RBCs?

A

Erythrocytes

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75
Q

What is erythropoiesis?

A

RBC production.

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76
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

An immature RBC.

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77
Q

What do RBCs look like?

A

Very small, flexible, biconcave discs.

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78
Q

What is the size of RBCs?

A

7.5 μm diameter and 2.0 μm thick at rim.

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79
Q

Do RBCs have a nucleus?

A

No, they are anucleate.

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80
Q

Besides a nucleus, what else do RBCs not have?

A

No cellular organelles and no mitochondria.

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81
Q

What is the total number of RBCs in circulation?

A

4.5 to 6.5 million cells per cubic millimeter of blood.

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82
Q

What are the functions of RBCs?

A

Carry oxygen from the lungs to the cells/tissues and pick up CO2 from the cells/tissues and brings it to the lungs.

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83
Q

What do RBCs have to squeeze into?

A

Blood vessels called capillaries.

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84
Q

What is the size of capillaries?

A

8 μm in diameter.

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85
Q

How long are RBCs able to live in circulation?

A

120 days.

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86
Q

Where do RBCs go at the end of their 120 days?

A

To the spleen, which is called the graveyard for all the old and damaged RBCs.

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87
Q

____ of RBC cytoplasm is filled with a protein called ____.

A

33%, hemoglobin (Hb)

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88
Q

How many oxygen molecules can 1 hemoglobin carry?

A

4 oxygen molecules.

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89
Q

What is carbonic anhydrase (CAH)?

A

It is an enzyme in the RBCs cytoplasm.

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90
Q

What is carbonic anhydrase (CAH) needed for?

A

Needed for CO2 transport.

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91
Q

Hemoglobin simultaneously carries ____ and ____.

A

Oxygen, carbon dioxide

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92
Q

What is the structure of a hemoglobin?

A

Hemoglobin is made up of heme and globin. Heme is made up of iron (Fe) placed within a ringlike structure. Globin is the protein, made up of alpha and beta chains.

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93
Q

Each Hb molecule consists of how many protein chains? What are they called?

A

4, globins.

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94
Q

How many alpha chains and beta chains does an adult Hb have?

A

2 alpha chains (alpha 1, alpha 2) and 2 beta chains (beta 1, beta 2).

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95
Q

What are the oxygen molecules attached to on a hemoglobin?

A

Attached to the iron molecule.

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96
Q

What is the carbon dioxide attached to on a hemoglobin? What is this called?

A

Attached to the globin chains. This is called carbamino hemoglobin.

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97
Q

The bond between hemoglobin and oxygen is ____ and ____.

A

Loose and reversible

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98
Q

What are thrombocytes?

A

Platelets

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99
Q

What are leukocytes?

A

White blood cells

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100
Q

What are the 7 kinds of formed elements?

A

Erythrocytes, platelets, and 5 types of leukocytes.

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101
Q

What are the 5 types of leukocytes?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils, lymphocytes, and monocytes.

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102
Q

What are platelets?

A

Cell fragments from special cell in bone marrow.

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103
Q

The components of blood are continually ____.

A

Replaced

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104
Q

What are the three major categories of blood plasma proteins?

A

Albumins, globulins, and fibrinogen.

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105
Q

What is the structure of an RBC?

A

Hemoglobin and carbon anhydrase in the cytoplasm of RBCs, glycolipids on the outer membrane, and inner membrane surface has proteins spectrin and actin.

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106
Q

Which plasma proteins are the smallest and most abundant?

A

Albumins

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107
Q

Albumins make up how much of the plasma proteins?

A

60%

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108
Q

What are the functions of albumins?

A

Transport solutes, buffer plasma pH, contribute to viscosity and osmotic pressure, influence blood pressure, flow, and fluid balance.

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109
Q

What makes blood stay within the blood vessels? Why?

A

Albumins because they can hold onto water.

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110
Q

What would happen if there were insufficient albumins?

A

Blood would leak out into the tissue spaces.

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111
Q

Globulins make up how much of the plasma proteins?

A

26%

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112
Q

What are the functions of globulins?

A

Solute transport, clotting, and immunity.

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113
Q

What are the 3 subclasses of globulins?

A

Alpha, beta, and gamma globulins.

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114
Q

Which globulins are the antibodies?

A

Gamma globulins

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115
Q

What are the functions of alpha and beta globulins?

A

Transport heavy metals, some ions, and hormones.

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116
Q

Fibrinogens make up how much of the plasma proteins?

A

4%

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117
Q

Fibrinogen is the soluble precursor of ____.

A

Fibrin

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118
Q

What is fibrin?

A

A sticky protein that forms the framework of a blood clot.

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119
Q

What organ produces all the major proteins except gamma globulins?

A

The liver.

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120
Q

What are gamma globulins produced by?

A

Plasma cells called lymphocytes.

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121
Q

What produces all 7 formed elements?

A

Red bone marrow

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122
Q

All cells belonging to connective tissue have a common embryonic origin called ____.

A

Mesenchyme

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123
Q

What is the process of the formation of blood cells?

A

o The mesenchyme receives a signal to form blood cells.
o It forms a pluripotent stem cell.
o Once the pluripotent stem cell receives the cell signal, it forms colony-forming unit (CFU).
o The pluripotent either turns into a lymphoid hematopoiesis or a myeloid hematopoiesis.
o The myeloid stem cell becomes an erythrocyte CFU.
o The erythrocyte CFU undergoes a series of divisions to become smaller and smaller in size. It loses its organelles and starts to accumulate Hb. It finally releases/ejects its nucleus and becomes a reticulocyte (immature RBC).

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124
Q

What is a colony-forming unit?

A

Specialized stem cells only producing one class of formed element of blood.

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125
Q

What is lymphoid hematopoiesis?

A

Blood formation in the lymphoid organs.

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126
Q

What is myeloid hematopoiesis?

A

Blood formation in the red bone marrow.

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127
Q

What do lymphoid stem cells make?

A

Only lymphocytes

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128
Q

What do myeloid stem cells make?

A

All blood cells except for lymphocytes.

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129
Q

What percentage of the total RBCs do reticulocytes make up?

A

1%

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130
Q

What is the time frame for a hematopoietic stem cell to become a reticulocyte?

A

15 days

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131
Q

What is the time frame it takes for a reticulocyte to become an erythrocyte?

A

1-3 days

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132
Q

What is a reticulocyte?

A

An immature RBC.

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133
Q

What is an erythrocyte?

A

A mature RBC.

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134
Q

What 2 organs regulate RBC production?

A

The kidneys and the liver.

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135
Q

What is the percentage of RBC production by the kidneys?

A

90%

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136
Q

What is the percentage of RBC production by the liver?

A

10%

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137
Q

How do the kidneys regulate RBC production?

A

o The kidneys release a glycoprotein called erythropoietic (EPO).
o When O2 content of arterial blood falls:
 It stimulates the kidneys to release EPO.
 EPO stimulates the bone marrow to release more RBCs in circulation.
 This increases oxygen carrying capacity of blood.
 This is a negative feedback mechanism.

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138
Q

Where do the RBCs go for destruction when they are old and damaged?

A

The spleen

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139
Q

What breaks down the hemoglobin in RBCs? What does it break it down into?

A

Macrophages break down the hemoglobin into heme and globin.

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140
Q

What happens to globin after it is broken down from hemoglobin? What happens to it?

A

The globin is broken down even more into amino acids. The amino acids are either used by the cells or stored.

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141
Q

What happens to the heme after it is broken down from hemoglobin?

A

The heme is broken down into iron and the ringlike structure.

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142
Q

What happens to the iron after it is broken down from heme?

A

Iron combines with transferrin and is transported to all cells of the body to be used or stored.

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143
Q

What is transferrin?

A

A transport protein.

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144
Q

What are the iron molecules stored as after being broken down from heme?

A

Iron is stored as ferritin. When the ferritin storage is at capacity, iron is then stored to hemosiderin.

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145
Q

What is the difference between ferritin and hemosiderin?

A

Ferritin is a smaller molecule; hemosiderin is a bigger molecule.

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146
Q

What is the ringlike structure broken down into after being broken down from heme?

A

It is broken down into biliverdin.

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147
Q

What color is biliverdin?

A

Green

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148
Q

What is biliverdin broken down into?

A

Bilirubin

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149
Q

What color is bilirubin?

A

Yellow-green

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150
Q

What does bilirubin combine with and where is it transported?

A

It combines with albumin and is transported to the liver.

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151
Q

What is bilirubin released as from the liver?

A

Bile

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152
Q

What converts bilirubin in the large intestine? What is it converted into?

A

Bacteria in the large intestine converts bilirubin to stercobilin and urobilin.

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153
Q

What gives feces the brown color and urine the yellow color?

A

Stercobilin and urobilin

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154
Q

How is RBC count maintained?

A

Through negative feedback.

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155
Q

What is hypoxemia?

A

Oxygen deficiency in the blood.

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156
Q

What causes hypoxemia?

A

A drop in RBC count.

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157
Q

What is the process of negative feedback control in erythrocyte homeostasis?

A

o There is a drop in RBC count.
o Hypoxemia occurs.
o Kidneys produce erythropoietin which stimulates bone marrow to release more RBCs.
o RBC count increase in 3 to 4 days.

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158
Q

What is anemia?

A

A deficiency of either RBCs or hemoglobin.

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159
Q

What are examples of 5 different types of anemia and what are their medical causes?

A

o Iron-deficiency anemia caused by dietary iron deficiency.
o Anemia due to renal insufficiency caused by deficiency of EPO secretion.
o Pernicious anemia caused by deficiency of intrinsic factor leading to inadequate vitamin B12.
o Hypoplastic and aplastic anemia caused by destruction of myeloid tissue by radiation, viruses, some drugs or poisons, or autoimmune disease.

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160
Q

What is the difference between the lymphoid stem cells and myeloid stem cells?

A

The lymphoid stem cells make lymphocytes. The myeloid stem cells make all the other blood cells.

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161
Q

What is the distinction between agranulocytes and granulocytes?

A

Granulocytes are present within the cytoplasm in the form of granules while agranulocytes exist without granules.

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162
Q

What leukocytes are granulocytes?

A

Neutrophils, eosinophils, and basophils.

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163
Q

What leukocytes are agranulocytes?

A

Lymphocytes and monocytes.

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164
Q

What is phagocytosis?

A

Destruction of microorganisms and any dead tissue by phagocytes.

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165
Q

What are phagocytes?

A

Cells that engulf foreign matter.

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166
Q

What is chemotaxis?

A

Attraction of the WBCs to the site of infection.

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167
Q

What is diapedesis/emigration?

A

Squeezing between endothelial cells.

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168
Q

What are the functions of neutrophils?

A

o Phagocytize (kill) bacteria.
o Release antimicrobial chemicals.

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169
Q

What are the functions of eosinophils?

A

Phagocytize antigen-antibody complexes, allergens, and inflammatory chemicals.

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170
Q

What are the functions of basophils?

A

o Secretes histamine (a vasodilator), which increases blood flow to a tissue.
o Secrete heparin (an anticoagulant), which prevents clotting.

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171
Q

What are the functions of lymphocytes?

A

o Destroy cancer cells, cells infected with viruses, and foreign cells.
o Present antigens to activate other cells of immune system.
o Secrete antibodies.

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172
Q

What are the functions of monocytes?

A

o Transform into macrophages.
o Phagocytize pathogens, dead neutrophils, and debris of dead cells.
o Present antigens to activate other cells of immune system.

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173
Q

How does a differential WBC count work?

A

It identifies what percentage of the total WBC count consists of each type of leukocyte.

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174
Q

What is the percentage of neutrophils in a differential WBC count?

A

60% to 70%

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175
Q

What is the percentage of eosinophils in a differential WBC count?

A

2% to 4%

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176
Q

What is the percentage of basophils in a differential WBC count?

A

Less than 0.5%

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177
Q

What is the percentage of lymphocytes in a differential WBC count?

A

25% to 33%

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178
Q

What is the percentage of monocytes in a differential WBC count?

A

3% to 8%

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179
Q

What does a complete blood count include the values of?

A

o Hematocrit
o Hemoglobin concentration
o Total count for RBCs, reticulocytes, WBCs, and platelets.
o Differential WBC count
o RBC size and hemoglobin concentration per RBC.

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180
Q

What is leukopoiesis?

A

Production of white blood cells.

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181
Q

What is thrombopoiesis?

A

Production of platelets.

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182
Q

How are platelets formed?

A

o Thrombopoiesis is stimulated by a hormone from the liver and kidney called thrombopoietin.
o Some hematopoietic stem cells develop receptors for thrombopoietin and become megakaryoblasts which are cells committed to the platelet-producing line.
o The megakaryoblast duplicates its DNA repeatedly and transforms into a megakaryocyte.
o A megakaryocyte sprouts long tendrils called proplatelets that protrude through the endothelium.
o The blood flow shears off proplatelets which break up into platelets as they travel in the bloodstream.

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183
Q

How do platelets differ structurally and functionally from other formed elements?

A

Platelets are not complete cells; they are small fragments of cells. They aid in blood clotting.

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184
Q

What are the 4 primary mechanisms involved in hemostasis?

A

Vascular spasm, platelet plug formation, clotting, and repair.

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185
Q

What are the 3 stages involved in the platelet plug formation?

A

When a blood vessel is cut:
 Platelets are released.
 The platelets bind with the collagen fibers in the outer most layer (tunica external).
 Platelets release serotonin, ADP, and thromboxane A2. The release of these chemicals helps in the formation of a loose plug of platelets.

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186
Q

What is the definition of a clot?

A

Coagulation of blood. A mass of blood that forms when platelets, proteins, and cells stick together.

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187
Q

What is clotting (coagulation)?

A

An important process that prevents excessive bleeding when a blood vessel is injured.

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188
Q

What are clotting factors?

A

Also called procoagulants, which promote the formation of blood clots more durable than platelets plugs.

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189
Q

What are the 4 major stages in the blood-clotting process?

A

When a blood vessel is cut, first a vascular spasm occurs. A vascular spasm is the contraction of a blood vessel. Then, a platelet plug forms. Formations of clots happens. Lastly, the blood vessel is repaired, and the blood clot is broken.

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190
Q

How do the extrinsic and intrinsic pathways differ?

A

The extrinsic pathway has few steps, takes less time to form a clot, and is activated by tissue factors outside of the blood vessel. The intrinsic pathways has more steps, takes longer to form a clot, and is activated inside the blood vessel without tissue factors.

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191
Q

What is the common pathway?

A

Once factor 10 is activated, the remaining steps in the intrinsic and extrinsic mechanisms are identical.

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192
Q

What are the steps of the common pathways?

A

o Factor 10 combines with factor 5 and calcium to produce prothrombin activator.
o This enzyme acts on a globulin called prothrombin and converts it to the enzyme thrombin.
o Thrombin then converts fibrinogen into shorter strands of fibrin.
o Factor 8 cross-links these strands to create a dense aggregation that forms the structural framework of a blood clot.

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193
Q

What is clot retraction?

A

After a clot has formed, spinous pseudopods of the platelets adhere to strands of fibrin and contract. This pulls on the fibrin threads and draws the edges of the broken vessel together, like a drawstring closing a purse.

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194
Q

What is the role of vitamin K in the clotting process?

A

The synthesis of factors 2, 7, 9, and 10 require vitamin K.

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195
Q

What is the difference between blood groups and blood types?

A

Blood groups are determined by the presence or absence of antigens on the surface of your RBCs. Blood types are determined based on if you have anti D antigens or not.

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196
Q

What are the different blood types?

A

A, B, AB, and O.

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197
Q

What is your blood type if you have the presence of D antigen in your blood?

A

Positive

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198
Q

What is your blood type if you don’t have the presence of D antigen in your blood?

A

Negative

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199
Q

What is the role of surface antigens on RBCs in determining blood groups?

A

Whichever antigen/s you have on the surface of your RBCs is the blood group type that you have.

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200
Q

What are blood types based on?

A

Blood types are based on the interactions between antigens and antibodies.

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201
Q

A person with blood type A has which antigen/s on the surface of their RBCs?

A

Antigen A

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202
Q

A person with blood type B has which antigen/s on the surface of their RBCs?

A

Antigen B

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203
Q

A person with blood type AB has which antigen/s on the surface of their RBCs?

A

Both antigen A and B

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204
Q

A person with blood type O has which antigen/s on the surface of their RBCs?

A

Neither A nor B

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205
Q

Anti-A antibodies bind to which antigen?

A

Antigen A

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206
Q

Anti-B binds to which antigen?

A

Antigen B

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207
Q

How does the presence or absence of Rh antigen on RBCs determine whether a person is Rh positive or Rh negative?

A

A person who is Rh positive won’t make anti-Rh antibodies. A person who is Rh negative will make anti-Rh antibodies.

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208
Q

Blood type A can donate to which blood types?

A

A or AB

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209
Q

Blood type B can donate to which blood types?

A

B or AB

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210
Q

Blood type AB can donate to which blood types?

A

AB

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211
Q

Blood type O can donate to which blood types?

A

O, A, B, and AB

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212
Q

Blood type A can receive blood from which blood types?

A

O or A

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213
Q

Blood type B can receive blood from which blood types?

A

O or B

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214
Q

Blood type AB can receive blood from which blood types?

A

O, A, B, and AB

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215
Q

Blood type O can receive blood from which blood types?

A

O

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216
Q

What blood type is called the universal donor?

A

Type O

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217
Q

What blood type is called the universal recipient?

A

Type AB

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218
Q

What happens when an incorrect ABO or Rh blood type is transfused?

A

If incompatible blood is given in a transfusion, the patient’s immune system attacks the donor cells. This reaction can cause shock, kidney failure, circulatory collapse, and death.

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219
Q

What is hemolytic disease of the newborn (HDN)?

A

It can occur if an Rh- mother has formed antibodies and is pregnant with a second Rh+ child. Anti-D antibodies can cross the placenta agglutinate fetal erythrocytes. Agglutinated RBCs hemolyze, and the baby is born with hemolytic anemia

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220
Q

What is given as a preventative for hemolytic disease of the newborn?

A

The mother is given rhoGAM during pregnancy. It binds fetal agglutinogens in her blood so she will not form anti-D antigens.

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221
Q

What is hemolytic disease of the newborn also called?

A

Erythroblastosis fetalis

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222
Q

What is the major function of the heart?

A

Pump blood throughout the body.

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223
Q

What is the location of the heart?

A

The heart lies within the mediastinum between the lungs.

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224
Q

What is the pericardium?

A

A sac that encloses the heart.

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225
Q

What is the structure of the pericardium?

A

It has 2 layers – an outer fibrous pericardium and inner serous pericardium.

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226
Q

What is the function of the pericardium?

A

It separates the heart from the lungs and allows the heart to move freely as it beats.

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227
Q

What is the fibrous pericardium?

A

It is a tough collagenous sac. It surrounds the heart but is not attached to it.

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228
Q

What is the serous pericardium?

A

It is a simple squamous epithelium overlying a thin layer of elastic tissue.

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229
Q

What does the serous pericardium cover?

A

It covers the heart surface.

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230
Q

What is the membrane that covers the heart surface called?

A

The visceral layer of the serous pericardium. Also called the epicardium.

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231
Q

What is the membrane that lines the inside of the fibrous pericardium called?

A

The parietal layer of the serous pericardium.

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232
Q

What is the pericardial cavity?

A

It’s the space between the parietal and visceral layers of the serous pericardium.

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233
Q

What is pericardial fluid?

A

A fluid discharged by the serous pericardium.

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234
Q

Where is the pericardial fluid found?

A

In the pericardial cavity.

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235
Q

What is the function of the pericardial fluid?

A

It lubricates the membranes and allows the heart to beat with minimal friction.

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236
Q

What 3 layers does the heart wall consist of?

A

Epicardium, myocardium, and endocardium.

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237
Q

What is the outermost layer of the heart?

A

The epicardium

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238
Q

Describe the epicardium.

A

It is thin and translucent in most areas, however, in other places it includes a thick layer of adipose tissue.

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239
Q

What is the function of the thick layer of adipose tissue on the heart?

A

It encloses the major coronary blood vessels and protects them from compression.

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240
Q

What is the innermost layer of the heart?

A

The endocardium

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241
Q

Describe the endocardium.

A

It is a simple squamous epithelium overlying a thin areolar tissue layer; however, it has no adipose tissue.

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242
Q

Where is the endocardium found?

A

It lines the interior of the heart chambers, covers the valve surfaces, and is continuous with the endothelium of the blood vessels.

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243
Q

What is the layer in between the epicardium and endocardium?

A

The myocardium

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244
Q

What is the function of the myocardium?

A

It performs the work of the heart.

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245
Q

What is the thickest layer of the heart wall?

A

The myocardium

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246
Q

What is myocardium composed of?

A

Cardiac muscle

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247
Q

Why is the myocardium the thickest layer?

A

Because it performs the work of the heart. Its thickness is proportional to the workload on the individual chambers.

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248
Q

What makes up the fibrous skeleton?

A

A framework of collagenous and elastic fibers.

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249
Q

How many chambers does the heart have?

A

4

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250
Q

What are the 2 superior chambers called?

A

The right and left atria (atria for plural, atrium for singular).

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251
Q

What type of chambers are the right and left atria?

A

They are receiving chambers for blood returning to the heart by way of the great veins.

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252
Q

What are the right and left auricles?

A

They are earlike flaps on each atrium that slightly increases its volume.

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253
Q

What is the structure of the atria?

A

They have thin flaccid walls corresponding to their light workload.

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254
Q

What is the function of the atria?

A

Pump blood into the ventricles below.

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255
Q

What separates the atria?

A

The interatrial septum.

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256
Q

What do the right atrium and both auricles exhibit?

A

Pectinate muscles

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257
Q

What are pectinate muscles?

A

Internal ridges of myocardium.

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258
Q

What are the 2 inferior chambers?

A

The left and right ventricles

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259
Q

What is the function of the ventricles?

A

They eject blood into the arteries and keep it flowing around the body.

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260
Q

What separates the ventricles?

A

A thick muscular wall called the interventricular septum.

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261
Q

Where does the right ventricle pump blood to?

A

It pumps blood only to the lungs and back to the left atrium.

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262
Q

What chamber bears the greatest workload of all 4 chambers?

A

The left ventricle

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263
Q

Why is the left ventricle and septum, two to four times as thick as the right ventricle?

A

Because it bears the greatest workload of all 4 chambers.

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264
Q

Where does the left ventricle pump blood to?

A

It pumps blood through the entire body.

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265
Q

Both ventricles exhibit internal ridges called ____.

A

Trabeculae carneae

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266
Q

What is the function of trabeculae carneae?

A

It keeps the ventricular walls from clinging to each other.

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267
Q

What are the boundaries of the 4 chambers marked by?

A

The 3 sulci (grooves).

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268
Q

What are the sulci made up of?

A

They are largely filled with fat and the coronary blood vessels.

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269
Q

What are the 3 different sulci?

A

The coronary sulcus, the anterior interventricular sulcus, and the posterior interventricular sulcus.

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270
Q

Where is the coronary sulcus located?

A

It encircles the heart near the base and separates the atria above from the ventricles below.

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271
Q

What are the anterior and posterior interventricular sulci located?

A

They extend obliquely down the heart from the coronary sulcus toward the apex.

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272
Q

What interventricular sulci is on the front of the heart?

A

The anterior interventricular sulcus

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273
Q

What interventricular sulci is on the back of the heart?

A

The posterior interventricular sulcus.

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274
Q

What part(s) of the heart harbors the largest of the coronary blood vessels?

A

The coronary sulcus and the 2 interventricular sulci.

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275
Q

What is needed for the heart to pump blood effectively?

A

The heart needs valves that ensure a one-way flow.

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276
Q

Where are the heart valves located?

A

There is a valve between each atrium and its ventricle, and another at the exit from each ventricle into its great artery.

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277
Q

Does the heart have valves where the great veins empty into the atria?

A

No

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278
Q

What do the heart valves consist of?

A

Fibrous flaps of tissue covered with endocardium.

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279
Q

What are the fibrous flaps of tissues of the heart valves called?

A

Cusps or leaflets.

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280
Q

What valve regulates the openings between the atrias and ventricles?

A

The atrioventricular valves

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281
Q

What is the right atrioventricular valve called? Why?

A

The tricuspid valve. It has 3 cusps.

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282
Q

How many cusps does the left atrioventricular valve have?

A

It has 2 cusps.

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283
Q

What is the left AV valve also known as?

A

The mitral valve.

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284
Q

What connects the valve cusps to the conical papillary muscles on the floor of the ventricles?

A

Stringy tendinous chords called chordae tendineae.

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285
Q

What is the function of the chordae tendineae?

A

They prevent the AV valves from flipping inside out or bulging into the atria when the ventricles contract.

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286
Q

Each papillary muscle has 2 or 3 basal attachments to what?

A

The trabeculae carneae of the heart wall.

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287
Q

What are the semilunar valves?

A

The pulmonary and aortic valves.

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288
Q

What is the function of the semilunar valves?

A

They regulate the flow of blood from the ventricles into the great arteries.

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289
Q

What is the function of the pulmonary valve specifically?

A

It controls the opening from the right ventricle into the pulmonary trunk.

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290
Q

What is the function of the aortic valve specifically?

A

It controls the opening from the left ventricle into the aorta.

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291
Q

How many cusps do the aortic and pulmonary valves have? What do they look like?

A

Each has 3 cusps that are shaped like shirt pockets.

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292
Q

What happens when blood is ejected from the ventricles?

A

It pushes through the semilunar valves (pulmonary and aortic) from below and presses their cusps against the arterial walls.

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293
Q

What happens when the ventricles relax?

A

o Arterial blood flows back into the ventricles, but quickly fills the cusps.
o The inflated pockets meet at the center and quickly seal the opening, so little blood flows back into the ventricles.

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294
Q

Why don’t the semilunar valves require or possess tendinous chords (chordae tendineae)?

A

Because of the way they are attached to the arterial wall. They can’t prolapse any more than a shirt pocket turns inside out if you jam your hand into it.

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295
Q

Do the semilunar valves open and close by any muscular effort of their own?

A

No

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296
Q

How do the semilunar valves open and close?

A

The cusps are simply pushed open and closed by changes in blood pressure that occur as the heart chambers contract and relax.

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297
Q

Where does blood enter the heart?

A

It enters the right atrium from the superior and inferior venae cavae.

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298
Q

Where does blood travel to from the right atrium?

A

It flows through the right AV valve into the right ventricle.

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299
Q

What forces the pulmonary valve open?

A

Contraction of the right ventricle.

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300
Q

Where does blood travel to from the right ventricle?

A

It flows through the pulmonary valve into the pulmonary trunk.

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301
Q

What blood vessels distribute blood to the lungs? What does the blood unload/load?

A

The right and left pulmonary arteries. The blood drops off carbon dioxide and picks up oxygen.

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302
Q

Blood returns from the lungs to the heart by what blood vessel? What part of the heart does the blood return to?

A

Blood returns from the lungs via the pulmonary veins to the left atrium.

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303
Q

Where does blood travel to from the left atrium?

A

It flows through the left AV valve into the left ventricle.

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304
Q

What forces the aortic valve open?

A

Contraction of the left ventricle.

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305
Q

Contraction of the left and right ventricles is ____.

A

Simultaneous

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306
Q

Where does blood travel to from the left ventricle?

A

It travels through the aortic valve into the ascending aorta.

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307
Q

What happens to blood in the aorta?

A

It is distributed to every organ in the body where it drops off oxygen and picks up carbon dioxide.

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308
Q

Blood is kept entirely separate on the ____ and _____ sides of the heart.

A

Right, left

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309
Q

The myocardium has its own supply of ____.

A

Arteries and capillaries that deliver blood to every muscle cell.

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310
Q

What is the function of the systemic circuit?

A

It supplies blood to every organ of the body, including other parts of the lungs and the wall of the heart itself.

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311
Q

What is the coronary circulation?

A

A system of blood vessels that serve the wall of the heart.

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312
Q

What are the major vessels of the coronary circulation?

A

The right and left coronary arteries.

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313
Q

What 2 branches does the left coronary artery divide into?

A

The anterior interventricular branch and the circumflex branch.

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314
Q

What 2 branches does the right coronary artery divide into?

A

The right marginal branch and the posterior interventricular branch.

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315
Q

What does the right coronary artery supply?

A

The right atrium and sinoatrial node (pacemaker).

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316
Q

Why is the energy demand of the cardiac muscle so critical?

A

An interruption of the blood supply to any part of the myocardium can cause necrosis within minutes.

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317
Q

What can cause a myocardial infarction (heart attack)?

A

A fatty deposit or blood clot in a coronary artery.

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318
Q

The points where 2 arteries come together is called ____.

A

Arterial anastomoses.

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319
Q

What is the function of arterial anastomoses?

A

They provide alternative routes of blood flow (collateral circulation) that can supply the heart tissue with blood if the primary route becomes obstructed.

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320
Q

When does arterial blood peak in organs other than the heart? When does it diminish?

A

o Flow usually peaks when the heart contracts and ejects blood into the systemic arteries. It diminishes when the ventricles relax and refill.

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321
Q

When does arterial blood peak in the coronary arteries?

A

Flow peaks when the heart relaxes.

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322
Q

When does blood flow increase in coronary blood vessels?

A

During ventricular relaxation.

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323
Q

What is veinous drainage?

A

The route by which blood leaves an organ.

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324
Q

Why is the heart described as autorhythmic?

A

Because it doesn’t depend on the nervous system for its rhythm.

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325
Q

What allows the heart to be on its own without relying on the nervous system?

A

It has its own built-in pacemaker and electrical system.

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326
Q

Cardiac muscle and skeletal muscle are both ____.

A

Striated

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327
Q

What is a cardiomyocyte?

A

A cardiac muscle cell.

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328
Q

What is the cell shape and dimensions of a cardiomyocyte.

A

Cardiomyocytes are short, branched and roughly rectangular.

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329
Q

Describe the nucleus of a cardiomyocyte.

A

A cardiomyocyte typically has 1 centrally located nucleus

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330
Q

Through the branches, each cardiomyocyte contacts several others and collectively they form ____.

A

A network throughout each pair of heart chambers – one in the atria and one in the ventricles.

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331
Q

What does the cardiomyocyte lack that skeletal muscle fibers have?

A

Terminal cisterns

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332
Q

Do cardiomyocytes have mitochondria?

A

Yes, due to the continuous need for contraction.

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333
Q

Cardiomyocytes are joined end to end by thick connections called ____.

A

Intercalated discs.

334
Q

What is an intercalated disc?

A

A complex steplike structure with 3 distinctive features.

335
Q

What are the 3 distinctive features of an intercalated disc?

A

Interdigitating folds, mechanical junctions, and electrical junctions.

336
Q

What are interdigitating folds?

A

The plasma membrane at the end of the cell is folded somewhat like the bottom of an egg carton.

337
Q

What are mechanical junctions?

A

The cells are tightly joined by 2 types of mechanical junctions: the fascia adherens and desmosomes.

338
Q

Which of the 2 mechanical junctions if the most extensive?

A

The fascia adherens.

339
Q

What are electrical junctions?

A

The intercalated discs also contain gap junctions, which form channels that allow ions to flow from the cytoplasm of 1 cardiomyocyte directly to the next.

340
Q

What are the contractile proteins of a cardiomyocyte?

A

Actin and myosin

341
Q

What is the heartbeat coordinated by?

A

A cardiac conduction system.

342
Q

What is the cardiac conduction system composed of?

A

It is composed of an internal pacemaker and nervelike conduction pathways through the myocardium.

343
Q
A
344
Q

How does the cardiac conduction system generate and conduct rhythmic electrical signals?

A

o The sinoatrial (SA) node fires.
o Excitation spreads through atrial myocardium.
o The atrioventricular (AV) node fires.
o Excitation spreads down AV bundle.
o The subendocardial branches (Purkinje fibers) distribute excitation through ventricular myocardium.

345
Q

What is an arrhythmia?

A

A condition in which the heart beats with an irregular or abnormal rhythm.

346
Q

What is ventricular fibrillation?

A

The ventricles quiver instead of contracting normally. This prohibits the heart from pumping blood causing collapse and cardiac arrest.

347
Q

What is atrial fibrillation?

A

A weak crippling contraction in the atria, appearing in the ECG as chaotic, high-frequency depolarizations.

348
Q

What is a heart block?

A

A failure of any part of the cardiac conduction system to conduct signals, usually as the result of disease and degeneration of conduction system fibers.

349
Q

What is an atrial flutter?

A

A type of abnormal heart rhythm that occurs when the chambers beat faster than normal and not always in coordination.

350
Q

What is defibrillation?

A

An emergency procedure in which the heart is given a strong electrical shock with a pair of paddle electrodes.

351
Q

What is tachycardia?

A

A persistent, resting adult heart rate above 100 bpm.

352
Q

What causes tachycardia?

A

It can be caused by stress, anxiety, stimulants, heart disease, or fever.

353
Q

What is bradycardia?

A

A persistent resting adult hear rate below 60 bpm.

354
Q

When is bradycardia common?

A

During sleep and in endurance-trained athletes.

355
Q

What is systole?

A

The contraction phase when the heart pumps blood out.

356
Q

What is diastole?

A

The relaxation phase when the heart fills with blood.

357
Q

What is a sinus rhythm?

A

The normal heartbeat triggered by the SA node.

358
Q

How are action potentials propagated in cardiac muscle?

A

Via branching of the cells and cell: cell communication through intercalated discs. The intercalated discs contain gap junctions which allow positively charged ions (cations) to move between cells to depolarize the next cell.

359
Q

What cardiac events generates the P wave?

A

Atrial depolarization

360
Q

What cardiac event generates the QRS complex?

A

Ventricular depolarization

361
Q

What cardiac event generates the T wave?

A

Ventricular repolarization

362
Q

What are the sources of ATP used by cardiac muscle?

A

o Cardiac muscle is very rich in myoglobin which is a short-term source for aerobic respiration.
o It is also rich in glycogen which is for stored energy.

363
Q

What does cardiac muscle depend on to make ATP?

A

Cardiac muscle depends almost exclusively on anerobic respiration to make ATP.

364
Q

When given the heart rate, how do you calculate the time of 1 completed cardiac cycle?

A

Take the number 60 and divide it by the heart rate. This will give you the duration of 1 cardiac cycle in seconds.

365
Q

What 2 phases make up the cardiac cycle?

A

Diastole and systole

366
Q

Listening to the sounds made by the body is called ____.

A

Auscultation

367
Q

The first and second heart beats, symbolized S1 and S2, are often described as a ____.

A

“Lubb-dupp”

368
Q

Between S1 and S2, which heart sound is louder and longer, and which heart sound is a little softer and sharper?

A

S1 is louder and longer. S2 is a little softer and sharper.

369
Q

What cardiac event is responsible for the “lubb-dupp” (S1 and S2) sound?

A

The closing of the valves.

370
Q

What cardiac event is responsible for the “lubb” S1 sound?

A

The closing of the tricuspid and mitral valve.

371
Q

How do the tricuspid and mitral valves close?

A

The papillary muscles close shut the tricuspid valve and mitral valve by pulling on the chordae tendineae.

372
Q

What cardiac event is responsible for the “dubb” S2 sound?

A

The closing of the aortic and pulmonary valves.

373
Q

What causes the aortic and pulmonary valves close?

A

When the ventricles relax, blood flows back into the aorta and pulmonary trunk which causes the valves to close.

374
Q

What is cardiac output?

A

The amount ejected by each ventricle in 1 minute.

375
Q

What is the formula for calculating cardiac output?

A

Cardiac output = heart rate x stroke volume

376
Q

Define cardiac reserve.

A

The difference between the maximum and resting cardiac output is called the cardiac reserve.

377
Q

What are action potentials?

A

They are changes in resting membrane potential that travels for a long distance.

378
Q

What is voltage?

A

A charge separation

379
Q

What are the 3 voltage gated channels?

A

o Voltage gated sodium (Na+)
o Voltage gated calcium (Ca2+)
o Voltage gated potassium (K+)

380
Q

Voltage gated sodium (Na+) channel opens and closes ____.

A

Fast

381
Q

Voltage gated potassium (K+) channel opens and closes ____.

A

Slowly

382
Q

What are the 3 phases of action potentials?

A

o Depolarization
o Repolarization
o Hyperpolarization

383
Q

What is depolarization?

A

A decrease in polarity (less negative).

384
Q

What is repolarization?

A

Returns to polarized/resting membrane potential.

385
Q

What is hyperpolarization?

A

An increase in polarity (more negative).

386
Q

What generates and distributes action potentials throughout the cardiac muscle?

A

The intrinsic conduction system.

387
Q

Intrinsic means ____.

A

Within

388
Q

Conduction means ____.

A

Generate and distribute

389
Q

What are the 6 parts of the intrinsic conduction system (ICS)?

A

o Sinoatrial node (SA node)
o Internodal pathways
o Atrioventricular or AV node
o AV bundle of His
o Right and left bundle branches
o Purkinje fibers or subendocardial branches.

390
Q

What do modified cardiomyocytes/cardiac muscle cells lose? What does this mean?

A

They lose actin and myosin. This means they cannot contract.

391
Q

What are the cells that spontaneously generate action potentials and distribute them throughout the cardiac muscle called?

A

Autorhythmic cells

392
Q

Autorhythmic cells make up what percentage of the heart?

A

Less than 1%

393
Q

Where is the SA node located?

A

In the posterior wall of the right atrium. Below the SVC entrance.

394
Q

What is the SA node called/referred to?

A

The pacemaker of the heart.

395
Q

What is the normal rate of the SA node?

A

80-100 beats/minute.

396
Q

How big is the SA node?

A

15mm ellipsoidal tissue.

397
Q

What is the main function of the SA node?

A

It generates impulses for contractions of the heart.

398
Q

Where do action potentials generated at the SA node travel through the atria?

A

By internodal pathways.

399
Q

Where do the action potentials travel to after reaching the atria?

A

They come to the AV node.

400
Q

Where is the AV node located?

A

On the interventricular septum, superior to the tricuspid valve.

401
Q

How long do the AP’s delay at the AV node so that the atria can contract?

A

100 msec

402
Q

Where is the AV bundle/bundle of HIS located?

A

On the interventricular septum.

403
Q

The AV bundle/bundle of HIS branches into what? What is the location?

A

Branches to right and left bundle branches which travel on either side of interventricular septum, right up to the apex.

404
Q

The bundle branches become bigger in diameter called what?

A

Purkinje fibers/subendocardial network.

405
Q

Does the conduction system have a resting membrane potential? Why or why not?

A

No because they must constantly contract.

406
Q

What are the steps of the action potentials of the conduction system?

A

o At the end of hyperpolarization (#4 on graph) the membrane slowly depolarizes to -40mv (which is the threshold).
o This happens because the membrane is leaky to sodium ions, so sodium enters.
o Depolarization to threshold occurs.
o Slow depolarization (#2a on graph) is called unstable resting membrane potential or prepotential or pacemaker potential.
o After the threshold (#2b on graph) voltage gated calcium channels open. Calcium enters and membrane potential is 0 or +20mv.
o Voltage gated calcium channels close.
o Voltage gated potassium channels open. Potassium rushes out and membrane is repolarized.
o As voltage gated potassium channels close slowly, potassium leaks out more causing hyperpolarization.
o At the end of hyperpolarization, it starts all over again.

407
Q

What is an ECG/EKG?

A

An electrocardiogram

408
Q

What does an ECG/EKG record?

A

The electrical activity of the heart.

409
Q

The ECG is the sum of what?

A

Adding up the action potential of the cardiac muscle and the conduction system.

410
Q

What is a straight line in an ECG called?

A

An isoelectric line.

411
Q

What is a cardiac cycle?

A

All events in 1 single heartbeat.

412
Q

A cardiac cycle is a __________ that happens after the _________.

A

Mechanical event, electrical event

413
Q

What is the electrical event?

A

The action potential.

414
Q

How long does 1 cardiac cycle last?

A

0.8 seconds

415
Q

The R-R wave is 1 ____?

A

Cardiac cycle

416
Q

How do you figure out how many cardiac cycles occur in 1 minute?

A

You divide 60 seconds (1 minute) by 0.8 seconds (R-R wave). 60/0.8 = 75 beats/min.

417
Q

Why does the heart contract?

A

To pump blood.

418
Q

What is the heart never completely empty of?

A

Blood

419
Q

Why does the heart relax?

A

To fill with blood.

420
Q

What are the discharging chambers?

A

The ventricles

421
Q

What measures the systole?

A

The QT interval

422
Q

What is the QT interval?

A

Beginning of Q to the end of T on an ECG.

423
Q

What measures the diastole?

A

End of T to the next R.

424
Q

What are the 5 stages of a cardiac cycle?

A

o 1a. Isovolumetric relaxation
o 1b. Ventricular filling
o 1c. Atrial contraction
o 2a. Isovolumetric contraction
o 2b. Ventricular ejection

425
Q

What happens in ventricular filling of the cardiac cycle?

A

o There is minimal amount of blood in the ventricles.
o The aortic and pulmonary valves are closed.
o ¾ of the ventricles are filled with blood due to gravity/pressure gradient.
o P wave occurs.

426
Q

What happens in atrial contraction of the cardiac cycle?

A

o After the P wave occurs, the atrial contraction begins.
o It pushes the remaining ¼ of the blood into the ventricles.
o QRS wave occurs; depolarization of the ventricles happens.

427
Q

What is end diastolic volume (EDV)?

A

The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of diastole.

428
Q

What is the measurement of EDV?

A

130mL of blood

429
Q

What happens in isovolumetric contraction of the cardiac cycle?

A

o After the QRS wave, the ventricles start to contract from the apex of heart.
o The papillary muscles close shut the tricuspid and mitral valves by pulling on the chordae tendineae.
o This creates the S1 “lubb” sound.

430
Q

What does isovolumetric mean?

A

Iso means same, volumetric has to do with volume. So, it means no change in the volume of blood.

431
Q

What happens in ventricular ejection of the cardiac cycle?

A

o As the ventricles contract, they generate pressure to open the aortic and pulmonary semilunar valves and eject blood into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.
o T wave occurs; ventricular repolarization happens.

432
Q

What blood vessel is used to measure the blood pressure of the aorta?

A

The brachial artery.

433
Q

What is the blood pressure of the aorta at the height of systole?

A

120 mm of Hg

434
Q

What is the systolic blood pressure of the pulmonary trunk?

A

25 mm of Hg

435
Q

What is end systolic volume (ESV)?

A

The volume of blood in the ventricles at the end of systole.

436
Q

What is the measurement of ESV?

A

60mL of blood.

437
Q

What is stroke volume?

A

The amount of blood pumped by the ventricles per stroke/beat.

438
Q

How do you calculate stroke volume?

A

EDV – ESV

439
Q

What happens in isovolumetric relaxation of the cardiac cycle?

A

o After the T wave, the ventricles start to relax.
o Blood flows backwards into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.
o This causes the aortic and pulmonary valves to close and makes the “dubb” S2 sound.

440
Q

What is the diastolic blood pressure of the aorta?

A

80 mm of Hg

441
Q

What is the diastolic blood pressure of the pulmonary trunk?

A

8 mm of Hg

442
Q

What does mm of Hg mean?

A

Millimeters of mercury.

443
Q

What is a dicrotic notch?

A

A brief (small) increase in aortic pressure. In an aortic pressure graph, it is shown as a double peak.

444
Q

Why is there a brief increase in aortic pressure?

A

Because of the backflow of blood into the aorta and pulmonary trunk.

445
Q

Physiologically, what does the dicrotic notch symbolize?

A

It signifies the end of ventricular contraction.

446
Q

What are the 4 heart structures that you listen to using a stethoscope?

A

Mitral valve, tricuspid valve, aortic valve, and pulmonary valve.

447
Q

Where is the location of the mitral valve heart sound?

A

Left 5th intercostal space.

448
Q

Where is the location of the tricuspid valve heart sound?

A

Right 5th intercostal space.

449
Q

Where is the location of the aortic valve heart sound?

A

Left 2nd intercostal space.

450
Q

Where is the location of the pulmonary valve heart sound?

A

Right 2nd intercostal space.

451
Q

What are capillaries?

A

Microscopic vessels that connect the smallest arteries to the smallest veins.

452
Q

The pathways of blood flow, steps 4 through 6, is the ____ circuit.

A

Pulmonary

453
Q

The pathway of blood flow, steps 9-11, is the ____ circuit.

A

Systemic

454
Q

What are the 2 major divisions of the cardiovascular system?

A

The pulmonary circuit and the systemic circuit.

455
Q

What is the function of the pulmonary circuit?

A

It carries blood to the lungs for gas exchange and returns it to the heart.

456
Q

What part of the heart supplies the pulmonary circuit?

A

The right half of the heart.

457
Q

What part of the heart supplies the systemic circuit?

A

The left half of the heart.

458
Q

What part of the body does the superior vena cava drain blood?

A

The upper body

459
Q

What part of the body does the inferior vena cava drain blood?

A

Everything below the diaphragm.

460
Q

What are the great vessels?

A

The major arteries and veins entering and leaving the heart. Called great veins, great arteries.

461
Q

What is pericarditis?

A

Inflammation of the pericardium.

462
Q

The epicardium is also called ____.

A

Visceral layer of the serous pericardium.

463
Q

How is the myocardium organized? What does it form?

A

It’s organized into bundles that spiral around the heart, forming the vortex of the heart.

464
Q

When the ventricles contract, they exhibit a _____ that enhances the ____.

A

Twisting or wringing motion, ejection of blood.

465
Q

Blood flows to serve ____.

A

Tissue needs

466
Q

What 3 factors help in circulation (flow of blood)?

A

Blood flow, blood pressure, and total peripheral resistance.

467
Q

Blood flow = ____.

A

Cardiac output

468
Q

What is blood flow?

A

The volume of blood flowing through the entire body in a given period of time.

469
Q

What is blood flow measured in?

A

mL/min or L/min

470
Q

What is blood pressure?

A

The force exerted by the blood on its vessel wall.

471
Q

When does blood flow?

A

Only when there is a pressure gradient.

472
Q

F = ____.

A

Blood flow

473
Q

F can also be equal to ____.

A

Cardiac output

474
Q

Formula: BP =

A

(Triangle)Pr

475
Q

(Triangle) =

A

Gradient

476
Q

Pr =

A

Blood pressure

477
Q

Greater the pressure, greater the ____.

A

Blood flow

478
Q

What is total peripheral resistance (TPR)?

A

The combined obstruction of all arterioles of the body.

479
Q

In total peripheral resistance (TPR), peripheral refers to ____?

A

The arterioles.

480
Q

Peripheral means ____.

A

On the outskirt.

481
Q

In total peripheral resistance (TPR), resistance refers to ____?

A

Obstruction or constriction.

482
Q

Greater the obstruction, less the ____.

A

Blood flow.

483
Q

What is the formula for blood pressure?

A

(Triangle)PR divided by TPR.

484
Q

What is the formula for cardiac output?

A

MABP divided by TPR.

485
Q

What does MABP stand for?

A

Mean arterial blood pressure.

486
Q

What is the formula for MABP?

A

CO x TRP

487
Q

The body maintains homeostasis by ____ and ____.

A

CO and TPR.

488
Q

How do you calculate MABP?

A

o Measure systolic BP and diastolic BP
o Calculate pulse pressure (PP) = Systolic BP – Diastolic BP
o MABP = (Pulse Pressure divided by 3) + Diastolic BP

489
Q

What is the range of MABP?

A

90-110 mm of Hg

490
Q

What nervous system has control over all the blood vessels?

A

The sympathetic nervous system.

491
Q

What nervous system has no effect over the blood vessels?

A

The parasympathetic nervous system.

492
Q

What nervous system is activated when the MABP falls below 90 mm of HG?

A

The sympathetic nervous system.

493
Q

What happens when the MABP falls below 90 mm of HG?

A

o The sympathetic nervous system is activated.
o It keeps the blood vessels slightly contracted all the time.
o It stimulates the kidneys to release renin.

494
Q

What is vasomotor tone?

A

The degree to which blood vessels contract or relax.

495
Q

What happens to the skin, digestive tract, and urinary system when the MABP falls below 90 mm of Hg?

A

o The skin is cold and clammy.
o No digestion.
o Decrease in urine output.

496
Q

What is renin?

A

An enzyme.

497
Q

What happens when the kidneys are stimulated to release renin?

A

o The liver makes a plasma protein called angiotensinogen (inactive plasma protein).
o Renin acts on Angiotensinogen and converts it into Angiotensin1 (active).
o Angiotensin1 is converted in the lungs to angiotensin2 by an enzyme called angiotensin converting enzyme.

498
Q

What 5 important factors does Angiotensin2 have?

A

o It is a potent vasoconstrictor.
o Stimulates thirst center.
o Directly stimulates kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water.
o Stimulates the adrenal gland (located on top of the kidneys) to release a hormone called aldoesterone.
o Stimulates the posterior pituitary to release Antidiuretics hormone to retain water.

499
Q

What does the hormone aldosterone do?

A

It indirectly stimulates the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water.

500
Q

What blood vessels are affected when the MABP falls below 90 mm of Hg?

A

Blood vessels of the skin, digestive tract, and urinary system.

501
Q

What happens to the kidneys when the MABP falls below 90 mm of Hg?

A

The kidneys are stimulated to release renin into the blood vessels.

502
Q

Why does MABP fall below 90 mm of Hg?

A

Because a loss of blood.

503
Q

What do the 5 factors of angiotensin2 help with?

A

They help with homeostasis.

504
Q

What does it mean that angiotensin2 is a potent vasoconstrictor?

A

It causes intense vasoconstriction of blood vessels of the skin, digestive tract, and urinary system.

505
Q

How does angiotensin2 being a potent vasoconstrictor help in homeostasis?

A

It increases the TPR. When there is an increase in TPR, the MABP goes up.

506
Q

What happens when angiotensin2 stimulates the thirst center?

A

It increases the blood volume, which then increases the cardiac output.

507
Q

How does angiotensin2 stimulating the thirst center help in homeostasis?

A

It increases the cardiac output, which increases the MABP.

508
Q

How does angiotensin2 directly stimulating the kidneys to reabsorb sodium and water help in homeostasis?

A

Reabsorption increases the blood volume, which increases cardiac output, and the MABP goes up.

509
Q

How does angiotensin2 stimulating the adrenal gland to release aldoesterone help in homeostasis?

A

Mineralocorticoid increases the blood volume, which increases the cardiac output, and the MABP goes up.

510
Q

Antidiuretic hormone is also called ____?

A

Vasopressin

511
Q

How does angiotensin2 simulating the posterior pituitary to release antidiuretic hormone help in homeostasis?

A

Retaining water increases the blood volume, which increases the cardiac output, and the MABP goes up.

512
Q

What type of feedback is the process the body goes through after the MABP falls below 90 mm of Hg?

A

Negative feedback

513
Q

What part of your brainstem receives signals from sensory neurons when there are changes in blood pressure, carbon dioxide, pH, and oxygen?

A

The medulla oblongata.

514
Q

What sensory neurons respond to changes in blood pressure?

A

Baroreceptors

515
Q

What sensory neurons respond to changes in carbon dioxide, pH, and oxygen?

A

Chemoreceptors

516
Q

What autonomic nervous system does the medulla oblongata influence?

A

The medulla oblongata influences whichever autonomic nervous system that needs to react based on the signals it receives.

517
Q

Long term control of the MABP is by ____.

A

The kidneys

518
Q

Short term control of the MABP is by ____.

A

TPR

519
Q

What 3 factors is TPR influenced by?

A

Blood viscosity, the length of the blood vessels, and has an inverse relation (indirectly related) to fourth power of radius of blood vessels.

520
Q

In terms of TPR: greater the viscosity, ____.

A

Greater the TPR.

521
Q

In terms of TPR: greater the length of the blood vessels, ____.

A

Greater the TPR.

522
Q

In terms of TPR: greater the radius, ____.

A

Greater the TPR.

523
Q

Which of the 3 factors that influence TPR, has the greatest influence?

A

The radius

524
Q

What autonomic nervous system controls the radius of the blood vessels?

A

The sympathetic NS.

525
Q

Is TPR directly or indirectly related to blood viscosity?

A

Directly

526
Q

Is TPR directly or indirectly related to blood vessel length?

A

Directly

527
Q

Is TPR directly or indirectly related to the fourth power of the radius of blood vessels?

A

Indirectly

528
Q

What is the ratio of TPR to blood viscosity?

A

1:1

529
Q

What is the ratio of TPR to blood vessel length.

A

1:1

530
Q

What is the ratio of TPR to the fourth power of the radius of blood vessels?

A

1:4

531
Q

What is velocity?

A

Speed

532
Q

The velocity of blood flow is inversely related to what?

A

The cross-sectional area of the blood vessel

533
Q

What is the measurement of the cross-sectional area of the aorta?

A

2.5cm2

534
Q

What is the velocity of blood flow in the aorta?

A

40-50 cm/sec

535
Q

What is the cross-sectional area of the capillary?

A

4500cm2

536
Q

What is the velocity of blood flow in a capillary?

A

0.03 cm/sec

537
Q

What is the cross-sectional area of a vein?

A

8cm2

538
Q

What is the velocity of blood flow in a vein?

A

10cm/sec

539
Q

Does blood flow the fastest in the aorta, a capillary or a vein?

A

The aorta

540
Q

Why does blood flow the fastest in the aorta?

A

Blood flows with gravity which is why it is the fastest.

541
Q

Does blood flow the slowest in the aorta, a capillary or a vein?

A

A capillary

542
Q

Why does blood flow the slowest in a capillary?

A

To not damage the capillary. They have thin walls.

543
Q

Why does blood flow slower in the veins than the aorta?

A

Blood in the veins flows against gravity while blood in the aorta flows with gravity.

544
Q

What are the 3 mechanisms of capillary exchange?

A

Diffusion, transcytosis, and bulk flow.

545
Q

What is diffusion?

A

The movement of solutes from the capillaries to the cells.

546
Q

What is transcytosis?

A

A vesicle-mediated transport.

547
Q

What is bulk flow?

A

The movement of massive amounts of fluid and solutes from the capillaries to interstitial fluid to the cells, and vice versa.

548
Q

What is bulk flow needed for?

A

To maintain the volume and composition of interstitial fluid.

549
Q

Bulk flow includes what 2 functions?

A

Filtration and reabsorption

550
Q

Where does the filtration function of bulk flow happen?

A

It happens at the arterial end of the capillary.

551
Q

Why does the filtration function of bulk flow happen at the arterial end of the capillary?

A

Because of blood (hydrostatic) pressure. Blood (hydrostatic) pressure pushes out.

552
Q

Where does the reabsorption function of bulk flow happen?

A

It happens at the venular end of the capillary.

553
Q

Why does the reabsorption function of bulk flow happen at the venular end of the capillary?

A

Because of osmotic pressure. Osmotic pressure pulls in.

554
Q

What is the BP of the capillary arterial end?

A

35 mm of Hg

555
Q

What is the BP of the capillary venular end?

A

25 mm of Hg

556
Q

What is the osmotic pressure of blood?

A

15 mm of Hg

557
Q

What are blood vessels?

A

Pipes or tubes that carry blood.

558
Q

How many types of blood vessels are there?

A

5

559
Q

What are the 5 types of blood vessels?

A

o Arteries
o Arterioles
o Capillaries
o Venules
o Veins

560
Q

Arteries becomes smaller arteries called ____.

A

Arterioles

561
Q

Arterioles lead on to ____.

A

Capillaries

562
Q

Capillaries lead on to smaller and medium sized veins called ____.

A

Venules

563
Q

Venules lead on to ____.

A

Veins

564
Q

What are arteries?

A

Blood vessels that carry blood away from the heart.

565
Q

What are veins?

A

Blood vessels that carry blood back to the heart.

566
Q

What do capillaries connect?

A

The smallest arteries to the smallest veins.

567
Q

Most arteries carry ____.

A

Oxygenated blood

568
Q

There is 1 artery that does not carry oxygenated blood. What is it called?

A

Pulmonary artery

569
Q

What kind of blood does the pulmonary artery carry?

A

Deoxygenated blood

570
Q

Most veins carry ____.

A

Deoxygenated blood

571
Q

There is 1 vein that does not carry deoxygenated blood. What is it called?

A

Pulmonary veins

572
Q

What kind of blood does the pulmonary vein carry?

A

Oxygenated blood

573
Q

What are arterioles?

A

Smaller arteries

574
Q

What are arterioles typically called? Why?

A

Resistance vessels, because they are the ones that are restricting the flow of blood to the capillaries.

575
Q

What does it mean that it is a closed circulatory system?

A

A pipe/tube will start at one place and come back again to the same place.

576
Q

What are capillaries also called?

A

Exchange vessels

577
Q

Why are capillaries called exchange vessels?

A

Because oxygen and nutrients are exchanged from the capillaries to the cells. Waste products and carbon dioxide are taken from the cells back into the capillaries.

578
Q

What are the thinnest, smallest, and microscopic blood vessels?

A

Capillaries

579
Q

What 3 layers make up the blood vessel wall?

A

Tunica interna, Tunica media, and tunica externa.

580
Q

What is the innermost layer of the blood vessel wall?

A

Tunica interna

581
Q

What is the middle layer of the blood vessel wall?

A

Tunica media

582
Q

What is the outermost layer of the blood vessel wall?

A

Tunica externa

583
Q

What is lumen of a blood vessel?

A

The central space through which blood flows.

584
Q

Which layer of the blood vessel wall is closest to the blood?

A

Tunica interna

585
Q

What type of epithelium is the tunica interna layer of a blood vessel made up of? What is it called?

A

Simple squamous epithelium. Endothelium

586
Q

Which arteries are bigger? Elastic or muscular?

A

Elastic

587
Q

What are the main elastic/conducting arteries?

A

Aorta, common carotid, subclavian, pulmonary trunk, and common iliac arteries.

588
Q

What are the main muscular arteries?

A

Brachial, femoral, renal, and splenic arteries.

589
Q

The autonomic nervous system controls the ____ muscle, _____ muscle, and the ____.

A

Smooth, cardiac, glands

590
Q

Which autonomic NS controls smooth muscle?

A

Sympathetic NS

591
Q

What artery is used to measure blood pressure? What tool is used?

A

Brachial artery, sphygmomanometer.

592
Q

What is systolic pressure?

A

Peak arterial blood pressure taken during ventricular contraction (ventricular systole).

593
Q

What is diastolic pressure?

A

Minimum arterial blood pressure taken during ventricular relaxation (diastole) between heart beats.

594
Q

What is pulse pressure?

A

The difference between systolic and diastolic pressure.

595
Q

How do you calculate pulse pressure?

A

Systolic pressure minus diastolic pressure

596
Q

Does the heart spend more time in diastole or systole?

A

Diastole

597
Q

Exchanges between the blood and surrounding tissues are made only through ____.

A

Capillary walls

598
Q

What is venous return?

A

The flow of blood back to the heart.

599
Q

Is angiotensinogen an active or inactive plasma protein?

A

Inactive plasma protein

600
Q

Is angiotensin1 active or inactive?

A

Active

601
Q

Where are chemoreceptors contained?

A

The carotid body and and aortic bodies

602
Q

Where are baroreceptors contained?

A

In the carotid sinus

603
Q

Elastic arteries are also called _____. Why?

A

Pressure reservoirs because they are able to withstand that much of a pressure gradient from the left ventricle when it contracts and relaxes.

604
Q

Elastic arteries become smaller and become ____ arteries.

A

Muscular

605
Q

Muscular arteries are also called _____ arteries. Why?

A

Distributing because they distribute blood to specific organs.

606
Q

What is vasodilation?

A

The widening of a blood vessel.

607
Q

What is vasoconstriction?

A

The narrowing of a blood vessel.

608
Q

How does vasodilation happen?

A

It occurs from relaxation of the smooth muscle, allowing blood pressure to expand the vessel.

609
Q

How does vasoconstriction happen?

A

It occurs when the smooth muscle of the tunica media contracts.

610
Q

Why do arteries have so much more elastic than veins do?

A

Veins are subjected to less pressure than arteries so they have less need for elasticity.

611
Q

Which arteries are bigger? Elastic or muscular arteries?

A

Elastic

612
Q

Describe the role of arterioles in regulation of blood flow from the arteries into
the capillaries

A

The smooth muscle lining of arterioles allows them to actively change their diameter, either constricting to reduce blood flow or dilating to increase flow.

613
Q

Describe the difference between filtration and reabsorption in a capillary.

A

Filtration is the movement of blood from the blood vessels into the surrounding tissues. Reabsorption is the movement of fluid from the tissues back into the blood vessel.

614
Q

What is the main purpose of the respiratory system?

A

For air to come in and go out.

615
Q

What are the 4 steps of respiratory physiology?

A
  1. Pulmonary ventilation
  2. Exchanges of respiratory gases
  3. Transport of respiratory gases (both oxygen and carbon dioxide) by the blood.
  4. Exchange of oxygen from oxygenated blood to the cells and carbon dioxide from the cells to deoxygenated blood.
616
Q

What is pulmonary ventilation?

A

Breathing

617
Q

What 2 exchanges of respiratory gases occurs?

A
  1. Oxygen from the lungs to deoxygenated blood.
  2. Carbon dioxide from the deoxygenated blood to the lungs.
618
Q

The process of the exchanging of respiratory gases is also called ____.

A

External respiration

619
Q

What part of the blood transports the respiratory gases?

A

RBCs, specifically hemoglobin transports these gases.

620
Q

The exchange of oxygen from oxygenated blood to the cells and carbon dioxide from the cells to deoxygenated blood is also called ____ or ____.

A

Cellular respiration or the Krebs’ cycle.

621
Q

What system performs steps 1 and 2 of respiratory physiology?

A

The respiratory system

622
Q

What system performs steps 3 and 4 of respiratory physiology?

A

The circulatory system

623
Q

What are the 13 structures of the respiratory system in order?

A

o (1) Nose
o (2) Nasal cavity
o (3) Pharynx (throat)
o (4) Larynx
o (5) Trachea
o (6) Right and left main/primary bronchi
o (7) Secondary bronchi
o (8) Tertiary bronchi
o (9) Bronchioles
o (10) Terminal bronchioles
o (11) Respiratory bronchioles
o (12) Alveolar ducts
o (13) Alveolus

624
Q

What 2 tracts is the pharynx common to?

A

Both the respiratory tract and digestive tract.

625
Q

How many secondary bronchi are on the right side and how many are on the left side?

A

3 secondary bronchi on the right side and 2 on the left side.

626
Q

From the ____ to the ____ is the conducting zone of the respiratory system?

A

Nose, terminal bronchioles.

627
Q

Why is from the nose to the terminal bronchioles called the conducting zone of the respiratory tract?

A

Because only air passes through. No gas exchange.

628
Q

From the ____ to the ____ is the respiratory zone of the respiratory system.

A

Respiratory bronchioles, alveolus.

629
Q

Why is from the respiratory bronchioles to the alveolus called the respiratory zone?

A

Because the exchange of respiratory gases are taking place.

630
Q

What is considered the upper respiratory system?

A

The nose, nasal cavity, and pharynx.

631
Q

What is considered the lower respiratory system?

A

From the larynx to the lungs.

632
Q

What is the only external visible part of the respiratory system?

A

The nose

633
Q

What are the 3 functions of the nose?

A

 Air is filtered, warmed and humidified.
 It a resonating chamber for speech.
 It houses the olfactory epithelium – sense of smell.

634
Q

What is the structural framework of the nose?

A

Bones and hyaline cartilage

635
Q

What are the 5 external structures of the nose?

A
  • Bridge
  • Root
  • External Nares
  • Apex
  • Dorsum nasi
    REMEMBER B.R.E.A.D
636
Q

What is the root of the nose made up of?

A

Frontal bone

637
Q

What bone is the bridge of the nose?

A

The nasal bone

638
Q

What is the dorsum nasi of the nose?

A

The sharp anterior border of the nose.

639
Q

What is the apex of the nose?

A

The pointed tip of the nose.

640
Q

What is the apex flared by? What direction is it flared?

A

Cartilages, laterally.

641
Q

What are the external nares?

A

Nostrils which are the openings on the outside.

642
Q

What is the philtrum?

A

An area inferior to the nose.

643
Q

What are the 5 internal structures of the nose?

A
  • Floor of nasal cavity
  • Midline nasal septum
  • Nasal cavity
  • Nasal vestibule
  • Roof of nasal cavity
644
Q

Where is the nasal cavity located?

A

Posterior to the external nares.

645
Q

What is the midline nasal septum made up of anteriorly?

A

Nasal cartilage.

646
Q

What is the midline nasal septum made up of posteriorly?

A

Vomer and perpendicular plate of ethmoid bone.

647
Q

Where is the nasal vestibule located?

A

Within the nasal cavity, posterior to the external nares.

648
Q

What does the nasal vestibule have?

A

Course guard hairs called vibrissae.

649
Q

What is the function of vibrissae ?

A

They block small insect and debris from entering the nose.

650
Q

What is the roof of the nasal cavity made up of?

A

Sphenoid and ethmoid bone.

651
Q

What is the floor of the nasal cavity made up of?

A

Hard palate

652
Q

What part of the nasal cavity is lined by olfactory epithelium?

A

The roof of the nasal cavity.

653
Q

What type of epithelium is olfactory epithelium?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated (non-motile) columnar epithelium.

654
Q

What sense is olfactory epithelium?

A

Sense of smell.

655
Q

What is the rest of the nasal cavity lined by except for the vestibule?

A

Respiratory epithelium

656
Q

What type of epithelium is respiratory epithelium?

A

Respiratory epithelium is pseudostratified ciliated (ciliated meaning motile, it moves) columnar epithelium with goblet cells (secretes mucus).

657
Q

What is the chamber behind the nasal vestibule made up of?

A

3 folds of tissue

658
Q

What are the 3 folds of tissue that make up the chamber behind the nasal vestibule?

A

Superior, middle, and inferior nasal conchae.

659
Q

What is meatus?

A

The narrow air passage beneath each concha

660
Q

What is the anatomical location of the pharynx?

A

It extends from the base of the skull to C4.

661
Q

What is the pharynx?

A

A fibromuscular tube.

662
Q

What is the pharynx commonly called?

A

The throat

663
Q

The pharynx continues down the ____.

A

Esophagus

664
Q

What are the 3 parts of the pharynx?

A

Nasopharynx
Oropharynx
Laryngopharynx

665
Q

Where is the nasopharynx located?

A

Posterior to the nasal cavity

666
Q

What is the nasopharynx lined with? Why?

A

It is lined with respiratory epithelium because air passes through it.

667
Q

High up on the nasopharynx wall, posteriorly is a collection of ____ called ____ or ____.

A

Lymphoid tissue, pharyngeal tonsil, adenoids.

668
Q

What opens up into the nasopharynx?

A

An auditory/eustachian tube.

669
Q

Surrounding the auditory/eustachian tube, there is a collection of ____ called ____.

A

Lymphoid tissue, tubal tonsils.

670
Q

Where is the oropharynx located?

A

Posterior to the oval cavity

671
Q

What is the oropharynx lined with? Why?

A

It is lined with stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium because air and food passes through it.

672
Q

What is at the base of the tongue?

A

The lingual tonsil

673
Q

What is on the lateral walls of the oropharynx?

A

The palatine tonsil. ** This is the tonsil you typically think of.

674
Q

Where is the laryngopharynx located?

A

Posterior to the larynx.

675
Q

What is the laryngopharynx lined with? Why?

A

It is lined with a stratified squamous non-keratinized epithelium because air and water pass through it.

676
Q

The laryngopharynx continues down (into) the ____.

A

Esophagus

677
Q

The larynx is also called the ____.

A

Voice box

678
Q

What is the larynx?

A

It’s a cartilaginous tube.

679
Q

Anatomically, where is the larynx located?

A

It extends from C4-C6.

680
Q

The larynx continues down the ____.

A

Trachea

681
Q

The larynx is made up of how many cartilages?

A

9

682
Q

How many paired and unpaired cartilages is the larynx made up of?

A

3 pairs cartilages and 3 unpaired cartilages.

683
Q

What are the 3 paired cartilages that make up the larynx?

A

Arytenoid
Corniculate
Cuneiform

684
Q

What are the 3 unpaired cartilages that make up the larynx?

A

Thyroid
Cricoid
Epiglottis

685
Q

Except for the epiglottis, all of the laryngeal cartilages are made up of ____.

A

Hyaline cartilage

686
Q

What type of cartilage is the epiglottis made up of?

A

Elastic cartilage

687
Q

Out of the 8 hyaline cartilages of the larynx, which is the largest?

A

The thyroid

688
Q

What is the shape of the thyroid?

A

Has a shield shape.

689
Q

Where does the thyroid fuse and what does it form?

A

It fuses in the midline and forms the “laryngeal prominence” or Adam’s apple.

690
Q

Why is the Adam’s apple more prominent in males?

A

Because of the hormone testosterone.

691
Q

At the ____ border of the thyroid cartilage, the ____ divides into the ____ and ____.

A

Superior, common carotid, external carotid artery, internal carotid artery.

692
Q

From the thyroid to the ____ cartilages, seen on the posterior view, a pair of ____ are attached, and they are called ____.

A

Arytenoid, ligaments, vocal cords/vocal ligaments/true vocal cords.

693
Q

The medial pair of ligaments, also called the vocal cords/vocal ligaments/true vocal cords, function in what?

A

They function in the production of speech.

694
Q

What is the space between the true vocal cords called?

A

The glottis

695
Q

There is a lateral pair of ligaments on the interior wall of the larynx that are called ____.

A

Vestibular folds/ligaments or false vocal cords.

696
Q

What is the function of the false vocal cords.

A

They aid in swallowing.

697
Q

What is the trachea also called?

A

The windpipe

698
Q

What is the trachea?

A

A rough walled artery (air holder).

699
Q

The trachea is anterior to the ____.

A

Esophagus.

700
Q

Anatomically, where is the trachea located?

A

It extends from C6-T5.

701
Q

What is the length and diameter of the trachea?

A

It is 12 cm long and 2 cm in diameter.

702
Q

How many layers is the tracheal wall made up of?

A

3

703
Q

What are the 3 layers of the tracheal wall?

A

Mucosa
Submucosa
Adventitia

704
Q

What type of epithelium and connective tissue is the mucosa of the tracheal wall?

A

Pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium and areolar tissue.

705
Q

What is the submucosa layer of the tracheal wall consist of?

A

Mucus secreting glands.

706
Q

What is the submucosa layer of the tracheal wall supported by?

A

16-20 “C” shaped rings of hyaline cartilage, incomplete posteriorly towards the esophagus.

707
Q

What is the submucosa layer of the tracheal wall covered by?

A

Smooth muscle called trachealis.

708
Q

What is the outermost layer of the tracheal wall?

A

The adventitia.

709
Q

What is the adventitia layer of the tracheal wall made up of?

A

Collagen fibers

710
Q

The trachea ends by dividing into what? Where does it divide at?

A

The right and left main/primary bronchi at T5

711
Q

What is the last piece of the tracheal cartilage called before it divides into the left and right main bronchi?

A

Carina

712
Q

What is carina?

A

A sensitive mucosa.

713
Q

The right main bronchi is ____, ____, and ____ with the ____.

A

Shorter, wider, vertical, trachea.

714
Q

The epithelium of the bronchial tree ____.

A

Changes

715
Q

What are the epithelium changes of the bronchial tree?

A

The epithelium changes from pseudostratified ciliated columnar to simple columnar to simple cuboidal and then simple squamous.

716
Q

The cartilages of the bronchial tree _____.

A

Change

717
Q

What are the cartilage changes of the bronchial tree?

A

The cartilages changes from hyaline cartilage plates to irregular plates and no cartilage at the level of the bronchioles.

718
Q

As the amount of cartilage ____, smooth muscle in the bronchioles ____, and this is under the control of which autonomic nervous system? The broncho ____.

A

Decreases, increases, sympathetic NS. Dilates

719
Q

What is the first step in respiratory physiology?

A

Pulmonary ventilation/breathing.

720
Q

What type of process is inhalation?

A

An active process.

721
Q

How long does inhalation last for?

A

2 seconds

722
Q

What type of process is exhalation?

A

A passive process.

723
Q

How long does exhalation last for?

A

3 seconds

724
Q

How long is 1 respiratory rate/breath?

A

5 seconds

725
Q

What 2 actions are involved in pulmonary ventilation/breathing?

A

Inhale and exhale.

726
Q

How many breaths are there in a min?

A

12-14 breaths/min.

727
Q

What is quiet respiration?

A

Breathing while at rest; effortless and automatic.

728
Q

What is forced respiration?

A

Deep or rapid breathing, such as during exercise or playing an instrument.

729
Q

What are the 3 factors in pulmonary ventilation?

A
  • Skeletal muscles of respiration
  • Pressures
  • Gas laws
730
Q

What are the 2 skeletal muscles of respiration?

A

The diaphragm and the intercostal muscles.

731
Q

How much of the respiration work does the diaphragm do?

A

2/3 or 75%

732
Q

What nerve supplies the diaphragm?

A

The phrenic nerve.

733
Q

What is the shape of the diaphragm?

A

Dome shaped

734
Q

What happens when the diaphragm contracts?

A

It flattens down, which increases the superior inferior diameter of the thoracic cavity.

735
Q

How much of the respiration work do the intercostal muscles do?

A

1/3 or 25%

736
Q

Where are the intercostal muscles located?

A

Between the ribs

737
Q

What happens when the intercostal muscles contract?

A

They increase the interior posterior diameter of the thoracic cavity, which increases the thoracic cavity volume.

738
Q

What is atmospheric pressure (Patm)?

A

The pressure exerted by all the gases of the atmosphere.

739
Q

What is alveolar/pulmonary pressure (Palv)?

A

The pressure exerted by gases in the alveolus (pressure in the lungs).

740
Q

Alveolar/pulmonary pressure can be ____, ____, or ____ atmospheric pressure.

A

Equal to, lesser than, greater than.

741
Q

What is intrapleural pressure (Pip)?

A

The pressure exerted by gases in the pleural cavity (pressure outside of the lungs, but in the pleural cavity).

742
Q

Is intrapleural pressure always negative or positive?

A

Negative

743
Q

What is the range of intrapleural pressure (Pip)?

A

-4 to -6 mm of Hg

744
Q

What is Boyle’s Law?

A

The pressure exerted by gases inversely related to the volume of the container. P = 1/volume.

745
Q

What is the relationship between volume and pressure in regards to gas laws?

A

As the volume increases, the pressure decreases. When the volume decreases, the pressure increases.

746
Q

At the beginning of respiration, Palv ____ Patm.

A

Equals

747
Q

What is a spirometry?

A

It measures the amount of air in the respiratory tract.

748
Q

What 4 volumes are measured using a spirometry?

A
  • Tidal volume (TV)
  • Inspiratory reserve volume (IRV)
  • Expiratory reserve volume (ERV)
  • Residual volume (RV)
749
Q

What is tidal volume?

A

The amount of air passing in and out of the respiratory tract (500mL).

750
Q

What is inspiratory reserve volume?

A

The max amount of air inhaled.

751
Q

What is expiratory reserve volume?

A

The max amount of air exhaled.

752
Q

What is residual volume?

A

The amount of air always in the lungs.

753
Q

What 4 capacities can be calculated with a spirometry?

A
  • Vital capacity (VC)
  • Total lung capacity (TLC)
  • Function residual capacity (FRC)
  • Inspiratory capacity (IC)
754
Q

What is vital capacity?

A

The total amount of exchangeable air.

755
Q

What is the formula for vital capacity?

A

TV + IRV + ERV = VC

756
Q

What is the formula for total lung capacity?

A

TV + IRV + ERV + RV = TLC

757
Q

What is the formula for function residual capacity?

A

ERV + RV = FRC

758
Q

What is the formula for inspiratory capacity?

A

TV + IRV = IC

759
Q

What is the formula for cardiac output?

A

Stroke volume x heart rate

760
Q

What is the formula for minute ventilatory volume (MVV)?

A

Respiratory rate x tidal volume

761
Q

What is dead air space?

A

The amount of air in the conducting zone of the respiratory tract.

762
Q

____ lb of body weight = ____ ml of dead air space

A

1, 1

763
Q

What is the formula for alveolar ventilation rate (AVR)?

A

Alveolar ventilation rate (AVR) = respiratory rate x (TV – dead space air)

764
Q

What is Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure?

A

The total atmospheric pressure is the sum of the partial pressure of the individual gases.

765
Q

What is the formula for Dalton’s Law of Partial Pressure?

A

Patm = PN2 + PO2 + PCO2 + PH20 + P noble gases
(760 mm of Hg = 500 + 160 + 0.3)

766
Q

What is Henry’s Law of solubility?

A

At air water interface, the amount of gas that diffuses depends on the partial pressure and its solubility.

767
Q

Oxygen is transported from the ____ to all the ____ of our body.

A

Lungs, cells

768
Q

Carbon dioxide is transported from the ____ to the ____.

A

Cells, lungs

769
Q

What color is oxygenated blood? Where is it seen?

A

It’s bright red and is seen in the arteries.

770
Q

What is blood in the arteries called?

A

Arterial blood

771
Q

What color is deoxygenated blood? Where is it seen?

A

It’s dark red and is seen in the veins.

772
Q

What is blood in the veins called?

A

Veinous blood.

773
Q

What is the volume of blood in an adult human?

A

4 to 6L of blood.

774
Q

What are the functions of RBCs?

A

Carry oxygen from the lungs to the cells/tissues and pick up CO2 from the cells/tissues and brings it to the lungs.

775
Q

____ of RBC cytoplasm is filled with a protein called ____.

A

33%, hemoglobin (Hb)

776
Q

How many oxygen molecules can 1 hemoglobin carry?

A

4 oxygen molecules

777
Q

Hemoglobin simultaneously carries ____ and ____.

A

Oxygen, carbon dioxide

778
Q

What is the structure of a hemoglobin?

A

Hemoglobin is made up of heme and globin. Heme is made up of iron (Fe) placed within a ringlike structure. Globin is the protein, made up of alpha and beta chains.

779
Q

Each Hb molecule consists of how many protein chains? What are they called?

A

4, globins

780
Q

How many alpha chains and beta chains does an adult Hb have?

A

2 alpha chains (alpha 1, alpha 2) and 2 beta chains (beta 1, beta 2).

781
Q

What are the oxygen molecules attached to on a hemoglobin?

A

Attached to the iron molecule.

782
Q

What is the carbon dioxide attached to on a hemoglobin? What is this called?

A

Attached to the globin chains. This is called carbamino hemoglobin.

783
Q

The bond between hemoglobin and oxygen is ____ and ____.

A

Loose, reversible

784
Q

Barometric pressure = ____.

A

Atmospheric pressure

785
Q

What is systemic gas exchange?

A

The unloading of oxygen and loading of carbon dioxide at the systemic capillaries.

786
Q

What is total lung capacity?

A

The maximum amount of air that the lungs can contain.

787
Q

What is function residual capacity?

A

The amount of air remaining in the lungs after maximum expiration; the amount that can never be voluntary exhaled.

788
Q

What is inspiratory capacity?

A

The maximum amount of air that can be inhaled after a normal tidal expiration.

789
Q

What are the 9 functions of the respiratory system?

A
  1. Gas exchange
  2. Communication
  3. Olfaction
  4. Acid-base balance
  5. Blood pressure regulation
  6. Platelet production
  7. Blood and lymph flow
  8. Blood filtration
  9. Expulsion of abdominal components
790
Q

What is the gas exchange function of the respiratory system?

A

It provides for oxygen and carbon dioxide exchange between blood and air.

791
Q

What is the communication function of the respiratory system?

A

It serves for speech and other vocalization (laughing, crying).

792
Q

What is the olfaction function of the respiratory system?

A

It provides the sense of smell.

793
Q

What is the acid-base balance function of the respiratory system?

A

By eliminating carbon dioxide, it helps control the pH of the body fluids.

794
Q

What is the blood pressure regulation function of the respiratory system?

A

The lungs carry out a step in synthesizing angiotensin II, a hormone that regulates blood pressure.

795
Q

What is the platelet production function of the respiratory system?

A

More than half of one’s blood platelets are made by megakaryocytes in the lungs.

796
Q

What is the blood and lymph flow function of the respiratory system?

A

Breathing creates pressure gradients between the thorax and abdomen that promote the flow of lymph and venous blood.

797
Q

What is the blood filtration function of the respiratory system?

A

The lungs filter small blood clots from the bloodstream and dissolve them.

798
Q

What is the expulsion of abdominal contents function of the respiratory system?

A

Breath-holding and abdominal contraction help to expel abdominal contents during urination, defecation, and childbirth.

799
Q
A
800
Q

What does the respiratory zone of the respiratory system consist of?

A

It consists of the alveoli and other gas-exchanging regions of the distal airways.

801
Q

What does the conducting zone of the respiratory system consist of?

A

It consists of passages that serve only for airflow.

802
Q

The nasal cavity extends from the ____ to the ____.

A

external nares, internal nares.

803
Q

What does the floor of the nasal cavity separate? What does this allow?

A

It separates the nasal cavity from the oral cavity. It allows you to breath while you chew.

804
Q

What type of epithelium is the nasal vestibule lined with?

A

Stratified squamous epithelium.

805
Q

What do the muscles of the pharynx assist in?

A

They assist in swallowing and speech.

806
Q

Why is the trachea anterior compared to the esophagus which is posterior?

A

We can survive without food for nearly a month. We can survive 7-10 days without water. Without air, our cells can only survive for 3-4 minutes. So, air is more important than food and water. That is why the trachea is position anteriorly (in the front).

807
Q

What is the main function of the larynx?

A

To keep food and drink out of the airway.

808
Q

What is the largest of the paired cartilages?

A

Arytenoid

809
Q

What is the epiglottis?

A

A flap of tissue that guards the superior opening of the larynx.

810
Q

What is the function of the epiglottis?

A

It prevents food and fluid from entering the lungs and windpipe.

811
Q

What position is the epiglottis in at rest? What does this do?

A

It stands almost vertically, allowing air to pass into the larynx and lungs.

812
Q

What muscles control the vocal cords?

A

The deep intrinsic muscles.

813
Q

What muscles connect the larynx to the hyoid bone?

A

The superior extrinsic muscles.

814
Q

What layer of the trachea wall is the inner lining?

A

Mucosa

815
Q

What layer of the trachea wall is the middle layer?

A

Submucosa layer

816
Q

What does the gap in the C-rings (in the trachea) allow?

A

the gap in C-rings allows room for the esophagus to expand as swallowed food passes by.

817
Q

The lung has a ____ and an ____.

A

Base, apex.

818
Q

What is the shape of the base of the lung? What is it resting on?

A

A broad concave portion. The diaphragm.

819
Q

What is the apex of the lung? Where does it project?

A

The tip of the lung. It projects just above the clavicle.

820
Q

The costal surface of the lung is pressed against the ____.

A

Ribcage

821
Q

The mediastinal surface of the lung faces ____ towards the ____.

A

Medially, heart.

822
Q

How many lobes does the right lung have?

A

3

823
Q

How many lobes does the left lung have?

A

2

824
Q

What is the bronchial tree?

A

A branching system of air tubes in each lung.

825
Q

What blood vessels services the bronchial tree?

A

The brachial artery.

826
Q

Where is the parietal pleura located?

A

It adheres to mediastinum, inner surface of ribcage, and superior surface of the diaphragm.

827
Q

What is the serous membrane that covers the lungs?

A

Visceral pleura

828
Q

What is the pleural cavity?

A

A potential space between pleurae.

829
Q

What does the pleural cavity contain?

A

Pleural fluid.

830
Q

What are the functions of the pleurae and pleural fluid?

A
  • Reduce friction
  • Create pressure gradient (lower pressure than atmospheric pressure; assists lung inflation).
831
Q

What type of epithelium do the bronchioles have? What 2 components does the bronchiole epithelium not have?

A

Ciliated cuboidal epithelium. Mucous gland or goblet cell.

Human Anatomy & Physiology II (10 decks)

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