Final Exam Flashcards

1
Q

When drugs are absorbed in the GI where are they circulated first?

A

liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What organ/ system is in association with absorption in ADME?

A

Circulatory system / GI system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What organ/ system is in association with distribution in ADME?

A

Circulatory system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What organ/ system is in association with metabolism in ADME?

A

Liver

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What organ/ system is in association with excretion in ADME?

A

Kidneys

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what is a half life?

A

The time required for half of a given drug to me removed from the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What indicates a toxic therapeutic index?

A

The closer to 1 the greater the danger of toxicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does a high therapeutic index (TI) mean?

A

safer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the 6 rights of medication?

D, D, P, RO, T, RE

A
  • drug
    -dose
    -patient
    -route
    -time
  • reason
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what are NSAIDS highly bound to?

A

protiens

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

what are the C/I of taking asprin ?

A
  • children w/ viral infection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

if you give a child asprin what disease are they at risk for?

A

Reye’s Syndrome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what are the syptoms of chronic use of ASA (asprin)?

T, HL, CNS, GIU

A

tinnitus, hearing loss, CNS changes (breathing), GI upset

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

when preforming an assesment before administering aspirin what should the nurse look for as an indication NOT to administer the medication to the patient?

VS, AT

A

vinegar smell
aspirin triad

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is aspirin triad?

a, np, r

A

-asthma
- nasal polyps
- rhinitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what should the nuirse educate the patient on about Aspirin?

SAU, BW/OT, H

A

severe abdominal upset or pain
bruising w/o trauma
hematuria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what is ketorolac (Toradol)?

A

analgesic equivalent to morphine but doesnt cause any chnages in conciousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what is ketoralac (Toradol) used to treat?

A

pain treatment for post op ortho trauma and surgery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what are the adverse effects of Ketorolac (toradol)?

RI, GIP, N

A

renal impairment
GI pain
nausea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is the limit days for ketorolac (toradol)?

A

5 days due to risk of GI bleed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what is tylenol used to treat?

A

nonopiod analegisc: mild to moderate pain
antipyretic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

what are the C/I of taking tylenol?

A, SLD, CA

A
  • allergy
  • severe liver disease
  • chronic alcoholic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the adverse effects of Tylenol?

NAHH

A

nausea
anemia
hepatotoxcity ( toxic liver)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what is the antidote for a tylenol overdose?

A

acetylcysteine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

when should acetylcystenine be started for a acetaminophen OD?

A

within 10 hours of OD

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what is allopurinol (zyloprim) used to treat?

A

gout attacks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

how does allopurinol (zyloprim) prevent gout attacks?

A

inhibits uric acid production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are the C/I of allopurinol (zyloprim)?

GI, D, R (SJS)

A
  • GI upset
  • drowsiness
  • rash: stevens johnson syndrome
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what should the patient be educated on before administration of allopurinol (zyloprim)?

IFI, TWF, AD

A
  • increase fluid intake
  • take with food
  • avoid driving
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what is the diffrence between emperic and definitive therapy?

A

E: antibotic therapy prior to results of blood culture
D: a narrow spectrum antibotic that only kills specific bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are the most common adverse effects of antibitoics?

GIU: N/V, D

A

GI upset
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what do all antibitocs block?

A

oral contraceptive pills

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what kind of hypersenitive reaction should the nurse look for when a patient is taking antibiotics?

EPI

A
  • edema
  • purtitus
  • inspiration/ expiratory wheezing
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what is the patho of docusate (colace)?

A

softens stool and makes the lining of intestine wall slick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what are the C/I of docusate (colace)?

IO,UAP

A

intestinal obstruction
undiagnosed abdomial pain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are the adverse affects of taking docusate (colace)?

DAOV

A

decreased absorption of vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what should the nurse educate the patient on when taking docusate (colace)?

A

increase fluid intake

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking ondansetron (zofran)?

H. D, PQTI

A
  • headache
  • dizziness
  • prolonged QT interval
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what should the nurse understand before administering ondansetron (zofran)?

preg category

A

pregnancy category b; can be associated with cleft palate when taken during first trimester

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what is metoclorpomaide used to treat?

DGE

A

delayed gastric emptying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what is the C/I of taking metoclopramide (reglan)?

CNS

A
  • pt’s with a seizure disorder
  • increased cns depression when taken with alcohol
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the adverse affects of taking metoclopramide (reglan)?

s, dm, f, ha

A

sedation
dry mouth
fatigue
headache

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

what should the nurse understand before administering metoclopramide (reglan)?

timing

A

admin 30 minutes before meal and bed times

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

What is the patho behind antacids?

A

It neutralizes excess hydrochloric acid (HCl) in the stomach

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is the use of antacids?

A

Relives indigestion and heartburn

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

What are the C/I of taking antacids?

A
  • antacids can block absorption of other meds
  • DO NOT GIVE any magnesium products
  • causes electrolyte disturbances
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What are the adverse affects of taking antacids?

Mg, Al, Ca

A

It varies on the type but
Mg- GI upset
Al- constipation
Ca- kidney stones and gas

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What should the nurse assess in a patient taking antacids?

HTN, MI

A

HTN
heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What should the nurse educate the patient on when taking antacids?

A
  • long term self medication w/ antacids mask manifestations of a serious underlying condition
  • separate antacids by 2 hours from other meds
  • pregnancy category A
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

when is a pt at risk for hypoglycemia?

A

when insulin is at its peak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what type of insulin is lispro ?

1-2 peak, 3-5

A

rapid acting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is glargine insulin?

A

long acting insulin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what is the C/ I of taking levothyroxine (synthroid)?

MI, AI, H

A

MI
adrenal insufficiency
hyperthyroidism

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking levothyroxine (synthroid)?

I, T, H , A, S, F

A

insomnia
tremors
headache
anxiety
sweating
fever

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is the adverse effects of overdosage of levothyroxine (synthroid)?

A

cardiac issues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

when is thyroid medication supposed to be taken?

A

early in the morning 30 -60 minutes before food on an empty stomach

57
Q

What do beta 1 blockers effect?

DHR, DCC

A

Decreased HR
Decreased cardiac contractility

58
Q

What do cardioselective beta blockers affect?

A

heart

59
Q

What do beta 2 receptors effect?

V, BC, DHR

A

vasodilation
bronchoconstriction
Delayed hypoglycemic recovery

60
Q

What are beta blockers used to treat?

POM/H, PMI

A
  • prevention of migraine/ headaches
  • post MI
61
Q

What are the C/I of taking beta blockers?

HB, B, PVD, DIG, DU, A

A
  • heart block
  • bradycardia
  • PVD
  • Digoxin
  • diuretics
  • asthma
62
Q

what is the FDA BLACK BOX WARNING for Beta blockers?

rebound

A

FDA black box: DO NOT ABRUPTLY STOP, taper off over a period of 1-2 weeks
abrupt withdrawal with result in MI, rebound HTN, and tachycardia

63
Q

What are the adverse effects of taking beta blockers?

5 b’s

A

bradycardia
breathing problems
blood sugar masking
bad HF
bad for falls

64
Q

What are ACE inhibitors used to treat?

HF, HTN, PMI

A

heart failure
HTN
post MI

65
Q

What are the c/I of taking ACE inhibitors?

A
  • do not give to pregnant women
  • Black people do not respond well to ACE inhibitors
66
Q

what is the FDA BBW when taking ACE Inhibitor?

A

fetal toxcity

67
Q

What are the most common adverse effects of taking ACE inhibitors?

AACE

A

A- void during pregnancy
A- ngioedema
C- ough
E- levated K+

68
Q

What should the nurse educate the patient on when taking ACE inhibitors?

DTN

A

DO NOT TAKE NSAIDS

69
Q

What are the interactions when taking calcium channel blockers?

A, HTN

A

angina
Hypotension
MI

70
Q

What does CCB interact with?

GFJ

A

grapefruit juice ( increased effect)

71
Q

What is atrovastatin ( Lipitor) used to treat?

A

Reduce LDL levels and total cholesterol levels

72
Q

What are the adverse effects of taking atorvastatin ( Lipitor)?

DS, M+ JP, REDDISH BROWN

A

difficulty sleeping
myalgia and joint pain
rhabdomyolysis causing reddish brown urine

73
Q

What are the contraindications of taking atrovastatin ( Lipitor) ?

Px, LD

A

pregnancy category X
liver disease

74
Q

What should the nurse educate the patient on when taking atrovastatin ( Lipitor)?

Meal

A

take with evening meal or at bedtime

75
Q

What is the antidote for warfarin?

A

Vitamin K

76
Q

What labs need to be monitored for warfarin?

A

INR and PT

77
Q

what labs need to be monitored with a pt taking heparin?

A

They need to monitor aPTT

78
Q

What is the mechanism of action of Digoxin?

IC, ISV

A

increased contractility
increase SV which decreases HR

79
Q

what is digoxin used to treat?

A

heart failure

80
Q

What are the C/I of taking digoxin?

HB, VFIB

A
  • heart block
    -V-fib
81
Q

What are the adverse effects of taking digoxin?

H, F, B, NTI

A

headache, fatigue
bradycardia
narrow TI so they have a higher chance of toxicity

82
Q

What kind of assessment should the nurse preform on a pt taking dig?

CA, AP, EKMG,SDL, RF

A
  • complete assessment ( confusion, constipation, decreased HR and BP, yellow and green halos)
  • apical pulse for a full minute
  • electrolytes K and Mg
  • serum dig levels
  • renal function
83
Q

What should the nurse understand before administering Digoxin?

HIHR, MRLD, AWM

A
  • Hold if HR is below 60BPM or above 100 BPM
  • may require loading dose
  • administer w/ meals but not those high in fiber
84
Q

What should the nurse educate the patient taking digoxin on?

A

check HR before taking

85
Q

What are the early signs of dig toxicity?

BAD VAN

A

B- bradycardia
A- anorexia
D- diarrhea

V- visual disturbances
A- abdominal cramping
N- nausea and vomiting

86
Q

What is the antidote for dig toxicity?

DF

A

Digoxin immune fab AKA: Digifab

87
Q

What are the contraindicated for beta adrenergic agonist?

Cardiac

A

uncontrolled HTN
cardiac dysrhythmias
high risk for stroke

88
Q

What are the adverse effect of taking beta adrenergic agonists?

3 T’s

A
  • tachycardia
  • tremors
  • trouble sleeping
89
Q

What should the nurse educate the patient on when taking albuterol?

A

Shake it before you take it

90
Q

What is salemterol (LABA) mainly used to treat?

A

COPD

91
Q

What are the adverse effects of taking salmeterol (LABA)?

HTN, NM/SP

A

HTN
neuromuscular and skeletal pain

92
Q

What should the nurse educate the patient on when taking corticosteroids?

A
  • rinse your mouth after
  • take steroids last
93
Q

What is diphenhydramine (Benadryl) used to treat?

MS, POS, AR

A

motion sickness
promotion of sleep
allergic reaction

94
Q

What is atropine (anticholinergic) used to treat?

B, Death rattle, A

A
  • bradycardia
  • antidote anticholinesterase inhibitor toxicity
  • dry up mucous membranes
95
Q

What are the contraindications of taking atropine (anticholinergic)?

CAG, GI/GUO, UC

A

closed angle glaucoma
GI or GU obstruction
severe ulcerative colitis

96
Q

What are benzodiazepines used to treat?

A, AW, I, MS

A

anxiety, alcohol withdrawal, insomnia, muscle spasms

97
Q

What are the contraindications/ interactions of taking benzodiazepines?

NAG, CNSD, GFJ

A
  • narrow angle glaucoma
  • dont mix w/ other CNS depressants and alcohol
  • don’t drink grapefruit juice
98
Q

What are the four different categories of CNS depressants?

Benzo, H, Bar, MR

A

benzodiazepines
hypnotics
barbiturates
muscle relaxers

99
Q

What is the FDA BBW for benzodiazepines?

RFA, PD, DCW/BOO

A
  • risk for abuse
  • physical dependence
  • dont combine w/ other benzo’s or opioids
100
Q

What are the adverse effects of taking benzodiazepines?

HYPO, C, SS, A, N/V, DM

A

Hypotension
confusion
slurred speech
ataxia
nausea
vomiting
dry mouth

101
Q

What should the nurse understand before administering benzodiazepine?

Paradoxical and rebound

A
  • Paradoxical excitation causing hyperactivity and aggressive behavior may occur in all all ages
  • rebound disinhibition may occur in older adults after tapering
  • rebound insomnia may occur if abruptly stopped
102
Q

What should the nurse educate the patient on before taking benzodiazepines?

WO, TWF, CPS, DS/DD

A
  • wean off to stop
  • take with food to avoid GI upset
  • change positions slowly to prevent falls
  • do both skip doses or double dose
103
Q

what is the antidote for benzodiazepines?

A

Flumazenil

104
Q

What can flumazenil (antidote) cause?

A

abruptly withdrawal including seizures in long term user

105
Q

what is dextroamphetamine sulfate used to treat?

A, N

A

ADHD and narolepsy

106
Q

what are the C/I of taking dextroamphetamine sulfate?

aggrevates and do not

A
  • aggrevates anxeity disorder, tourettes, HTN
  • DO NOT admin to pt who has received MAOI therapy
107
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking dextroamphetamine sulfate?

CP, R, M, BV, I, T, GIU

A

cardiac problems
( tachycardia, HTN, angina, dysrhytmias)
restlessness
mania
blurred vision
insomnia
tremors
GI upset
( N/V, diarrhea, anorexia, weight loss )

108
Q

what should the nurse understand before administering dextroamphetamine sulfate?

DH, DNAL

A

drug holidays
do not administer later than noon

109
Q

what should the nurse educate the patient on when taking dextroamphetamine sulfate?

AC, DNTOTC, AE

A
  • avoid caffeine
  • DO NOT take any OTC cough or cold medication w/o first consulting the HCP
  • administer early in the day
110
Q

what are “triptans” sumatriptan used to treat?

A

actue migranes

111
Q

what are the C/I of taking “triptans” sumatriptan?

CD

A

cardiovascular disease

112
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking “triptans” sumatriptan?

N/V, CV, P, F

A

coronary vasoconstrict ( neck amd chest tightness)
paresthesia’s
flushing

113
Q

what should the nurse educate the pt on when taking “triptans” sumatriptan?

aura

A

take at the first sign of migraines

114
Q

what are opiods used to treat?

A
  • moderate to severe pain
  • supression of the cough reflex
  • treatment of chronic diarrhea
115
Q

what are the C/I of taking opiods?

A, EICP, SA, PI

A
  • asthma/ respiratory insufficiency
  • elevated ICP
  • sleep apnea
  • paralytic ileus
116
Q

what is the FDA BBW for opiods?

DNCWB

A

do not combine with benzodiazepines

117
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking opiods?

DR, S, N/V, C UR, I, PPP

A
  • decreased respiratory
  • sedation
  • N/V
  • constipation
  • Urinary retention
  • itching
  • pinpoint pupils
118
Q

what are the two reasons a nurse should hold a dose of opiods?

A

hold dose if:
RR is less than 10
pt is sedated and not arousable even w/ stimulation

119
Q

what should the nurse educate a patient on when taking opiods?

IIO: F F SS

A

increase intake of:
fiber
fluids
stool softners

120
Q

what is prednisone used to treat?

steriod

A
  • inflammation
  • exacerbations of chronic respiratory illnesses
121
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking corticosteriods?

A
  • hyperglycemia
  • HTN
  • poor wound healing
  • weight gain
  • peptic ulcer
  • emotional instability
122
Q

what is lasix used to treat?

HTN, ME

A
  • HTN
  • manage edema associated w/ HF, hepatic or renal diseases
123
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking Lasix?

T, GIU, HYPO, HG/U

A
  • tinnitus
  • GI upset
  • hypokalcemia
  • hyper glycemia/ uricemia
124
Q

what is spironolactone used to treat?

HTN, RKL, HF

A
  • HTN
  • reversing K+ loss
  • HF
125
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking spironalactone?

GIU, DIZZ, H, UF

A
  • GI upset
  • dizziness
  • headache
  • urinary frequency
126
Q

what are the C/I of taking spironalactone?

L, A, N

A
  • lithium
  • ACE inhibitors
  • NSAIDS
127
Q

what is the outcome of infusing famotidine too quickly IV?

A

hypotension

128
Q

what are the common adverse effects of taking famotidine?

H, D

A

headache and diarrhea

129
Q

what s/s should the nurse report to the HCP for a pt taking famotidine?

BTS, IR/LL, B, ST, R

A
  • black tarry stools
  • irregular renal and liver labs
  • bruising
  • sore thorat
  • rash
130
Q

what should the nurse educate a pt taking famotidine on?

A
  • smoking decreases effective
  • take 1 to 2 hours before antacids
131
Q

what are the C/I of taking SSRI’s?

M, L, METO, B, W, SJW

A

highly protien bound
MAOIs
lithium
metoclopramide
benzo
warfarin
st john’s wort

132
Q

What are the adverse effects of taking SSRI’s?

3D, A, SS

A

3 d’s
asthenia
serotnin syndrome

133
Q

what is phenytoin (dilantin) used to treat?

A

patrial seizures

134
Q

what are the C/I of taking phenytoin (dilantin)?

B,HPBD, MDI

A

bradycardia
highly protein bound drug
many drug interactions

135
Q

what should the nurse understand before administering phenytoin (dilantin)?

measles

A
  • if the pt has a measles type of rash contact HCP and hold dose
  • review baseline eyes, neuromuscular, CBC, and liver function
136
Q

what is the only solution that phenytoin (dilantin) can be infused w?

A

normal saline

137
Q

what is carbidopa- levodopa used to treat?

A

parkinson’s disease

138
Q

what are the C/I of taking Carbidopa- levidopa?

NAG, MM, NMAOI B, AP

A
  • narrow angle glaucoma
  • activates malignant melanoma
  • nonselective MAOI
  • benzo’s
  • antipyschotics