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Pharmacology > exam #2 > Flashcards

exam #2 Flashcards

1
Q

what is the diffrence between emperic and definitive therapy?

A
  • E: antibotic therapy prior to results of blood culture
  • D: a narrow spectrum antibotic that only kills specific bacteria
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2
Q

what are the most common adverse effects of antibitoics?

N, V, D

A

GI upset
nausea, vomiting, diarrhea

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3
Q

what do all antibitocs block?

A

oral contraceptive pills

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4
Q

what kind of hypersenitive reaction should the nurse look for when a patient is taking antibiotics?

EPI

A
  • edema
  • purtitus
  • inspiration/ expiratory wheezing
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5
Q

what helps prevent a super infection?

DP

A
  • dairy products
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6
Q

what is penicillin used for?

gram +

A

to prevent and treat gram positive infection like staph/ strep

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7
Q

how does penicillin fight infections on a patho level?

A

it inhibits cell wall synthesis leading to cell lysis

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8
Q

what are the adverse effects of penicillin?

GIU, R/H

A
  • GI upset
  • rash and hives
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9
Q

what are the MDI of penicillin?

A
  • enchances effects of warfrin and decreases effectivness of oral contraceptive
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10
Q

what is important to monitor when administring penicillin?

A
  • monitor electrolytes
  • admin w/ water ONLY
  • safe for preg/ breastfeeding women
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11
Q

how does cephalosporins fight infections on a patho level?

A

they inhibit celll wall and eventually kill

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12
Q

why are cephalosporins used?

broad

A
  • used against gram +/- infections
  • each gen treats a specific bacteria
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13
Q

what are the adverse effects of cephalosporins?

GIU, R, P

A
  • GI upset
  • rash
  • purutitus
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14
Q

what are the MDI of cephalosporins?

A
  • major interactions w/ alcohol
  • cross sensitivity w/ penicillin
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15
Q

what should the nurse educate the patient on before/ during taking cephalosporins?

A
  • take w/ food and avoid alcohol
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16
Q

what is an extravasation?

A

unintended leakage of chemotherapy into the surrounding tissues outside of the IV line

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17
Q

what is the priority with antineoplastic therapy?

A

infection control

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18
Q

what can bone marrow supression lead to?

A
  • neutropenia
  • anemia
  • thrombocytopenia
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19
Q

what steps can be taken to prevent neutropenia?

RT, I, F/PMBR, COC, IFI

A
  • rectal tempurture
  • isolation
  • flowers and plants must be removed
  • continous oral care
  • increased fluid intake
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20
Q

what can be used to prevent stomaitis?

RM, ASF

A
  • rinse mouth with warm water and baking soda avoiding oral irratants
  • avoiding spicy/ acidic foods
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21
Q

what can be done to prevent nausea and vomiting in a patient receiving chemotherapy?

A

give zofran 30-60 minutes before therapy

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22
Q

what are hematopoietic drugs used for?

A
  • reduce the duration of chemotherapy induced anemia, neutropenia, and thrombocytopenia
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23
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking hemapoietic drugs?

BP

A

bone pain

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24
Q

how does filgrastim (neupogen) work on a patho level?

wbc

A

releases colony stimulating factor which stimulates wbc production

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25
Q

what is the use of filgrastim (neupogen)?

A
  • prevent or reduce febrile neutropenia
  • reduce duration and severity of infection
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26
Q

what are monoclonal antibodies and biosimilars?

A

designed to target a specific immune cell or immune cell communicator to enhance or decrease function

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27
Q

what are monoclonal antibodies and biosimilars used for ?

TOC, AD, OT

A
  • treatment of cancer
  • autoimmune disorders
  • organ transplantation
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28
Q

what should the nurse premedicate a pt taking monoclonal antibodies and biosimilars with?

A, D

A

acetaminophen and diphenhydramine

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29
Q

what are DMARDs used for?

A

antinflammatory, analgesic, antiarthritc, with immune modulating effects to slow or stop progression

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30
Q

what is the patho behind DMARDS?

A

inhibitd the movemnt of neutophils, monocytes/macrophages into inflamed damaged joints

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31
Q

what are MDI of DMARDS?

no T or B in DMARDS

A
  • active bacterial infection, herpes zoster, TB/ latent TB
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32
Q

what is the first line defense drug when treating rheumetoid arthritis?

A

methotrexate

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33
Q

what are the MDI of methotrexate?

A
  • liver disease
  • NSAIDS
  • irratant to the gut/ bowel
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34
Q

what are the adverse effects of methotrexate?

BMS, R, P

A
  • bone marrow suppression
  • rash
  • photosenitivity
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35
Q

what shouldnt be given when taking methotrexate?

LV

A
  • live vaccines
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36
Q

what are the two drugs used to treat organ rejection?

M, T

A
  • mycophenolate
  • tacrolimus
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37
Q

what is the patho behind mycophenolate?

A

prevent t cell proliferation

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38
Q

what is mycophenolate used for?

Organ

A

treat organ rejection

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39
Q

what are the MDI of mycophenolate?

KD, LD

A
  • kidney disease
  • liver disease
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40
Q

what are the adverse reactions of mycophenolate?

M, IROI, L, UBP, R, HG, BMS

A
  • miscarriage
  • increased risk for infection
  • lymphoma
  • unsteady BP
  • rash
  • hyperglycemia
  • bone marrow suppression
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41
Q

PROGRAF

what are the MDI of tacrolimus?

DNTW/C

A
  • DO NOT TAKE WITH CYCLOSPORINE
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42
Q

prograf

what are the adverse reactions of tacrolimus?

AF, TAC, THR, SI

A
  • a- fib
  • tachycardia
  • thrombosis
  • secondary infection
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43
Q

prograf

what should the nurse educate the patient on before/ during taking tacrolimus?

ES. MBS

A
  • take on an empty stomach
  • monitor BS
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44
Q

what are antiviral drugs used for?

H, CP, C, HB/C

A
  • herpes
  • chicken pox
  • cytomegalovirus
  • Hep B and C
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45
Q

What are the major drug interactions of non HIV antiviral drugs?

doesnt interact with crips

A
  • interaction with CYP3A4 inhibitors/ inducers which include:
  • acetaminophen, calcium channel blockers
  • estradiol, progrestrone, testerone
  • spironalactone
  • sulfa antibitoics
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46
Q

what is the patho behind acyclovir?

it is a cycle startig with VS

A

prevents viral replication by decreasing viral shedding, which decreases the number of out breaks, which deceases pain

47
Q

what is acyclovir used to treat?

A

all herpes including chicken pox and shingles

48
Q

what are the adverse affects of most non HIV antiviral drugs?

H, RD, GIU

A
  • headache
  • renal damage
  • GI upset
49
Q

what should the nurse educate the patient on taking acyclovir?

topical, cure, cancer

A
  • topical treatment will burn
  • this medication doesnt cure herpes just subsides syptoms and pain
  • there is an increase in cervical cancers
50
Q

tamiflu

what is the patho behind oseltamivir?

viral budding

A

prevents viral budding, which limits speed and increases speed of recovery

51
Q

tamiflu

what is oseltamivir used for?

A

influenza A and B and prophylaxis treatment

52
Q

tamiflu

what should the nurse educate the patient about oseltamivir?

2

A

treatment must begin within 2 days of symptom onset

53
Q

what is the patho behind ribavirin?

A

interferes with DNA and RNA synthesis which inhibits protien synthesis and viral replication

54
Q

what is ribavirin used to treat?

oral and inhaled

A

oral- Hep C
inhaled- RSV

55
Q

what are the MDI of ribavirin?

P

A

pregnancy category X

56
Q

what should the nurse understand before administering ribavirin?

A
  • obtain suptum prior to drug therapy
  • birth control must be used up to 6 mon. after treatment
  • AVOID IF PREGNANT
57
Q

what is the patho behind ledipasivir/ sofosbuvir ( harvoni)?

A

prevents the spread of viral replication

58
Q

what is ledipasivir/ sofosbuvir ( harvoni) used to treat?

A

-certain types of Hep C in adults and children older than 3

59
Q

what are the MDI of ledipasivir/ sofosbuvir ( harvoni)?

the yellow sprinkles on the cake activates… causing…

A
  • activates Hep B
  • significant interaction w/ dysrhytmic patients causing bradycardia
60
Q

what are the adverse effects of ledipasivir/ sofosbuvir ( harvoni)?

I, R, MP

A
  • insomnia
  • rash
  • muscle pain
61
Q

let us party but dont chew the yellow sprinkles

what would the nurse educate the patient on when taking ledipasivir/ sofosbuvir ( harvoni)?

DNCS, jaundice, A

A
  • do not chew the sprinkles
  • report any signs/ syptoms of jaundice
  • dont take antiacids
62
Q

what is HAART Thearpy used for?

A
  • combo of three or more anti-retroviral drugs to treat HIV depending on pt’s viral load
63
Q

what are the MDI of HAART Thearpy?

CHC, BMS, S, L, OAV, R, BC

A
  • can cause Hep C
  • bone marrow suppression
  • seizures
  • abnormal distribution of fat (lipodystrophy)
  • other antivirals
  • rifampin
  • birth control
64
Q

what is the patho behind PrEP?

A

nuceloside reverse transcriptase inhibitors

65
Q

what is PrEP used to treat?

A
  • used to reduce risk of transmission from HIV+ partners or a partner that uses IV drugs
66
Q

what are the MDI of taking PrEP?

what did you get in Pre EP?

A
  • Hep B
  • many interaction with other drug classes
67
Q

what are some adverse effects of PrEP?

d/ a

A
  • depression/ anxiety
68
Q

what should the nurse know before administering PrEP?

NHIV, NHP, MR/LF

A
  • Neg HIV test every 3 mon.
  • Neg Hep B
  • monitor renal/ liver function
69
Q

what is the patho of isoniazid (INH)?

A

bacteriacidal

70
Q

what is isoniazids (INH) used to treat?

z might be the last letter in the alphabet but isoniazids are the first

A
  • first line of defense in TB infection
71
Q

what are the MDI that come with isoniazids (INH)?

h

A
  • hepatitis
72
Q

what are the adverse effects of isoniazids (INH)?

V6D, N, VD, H

A
  • vitamin D6 definiceny
  • neuropathy
  • visual disturbances
  • hyperglycemia
73
Q

what should the nurse know before administering isoniazids (INH) to the pt?

A
  • administer vitamin B6 supplements
  • monitor blood sugar
74
Q

what is the patho of Rifampin?

A

broad spectrum bactericidal

75
Q

what is Rifampin used to treat?

L, M, HI, TB

A

first line of defense in TB infection
also treats leprosy, meningitis, hemophilius influenza

76
Q

what are the MDI when taking rifampin?

EI

A
  • liver enzyme inducer
77
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking rifampin?

DC, H

A
  • causes output to be a reddish orange brownish color
  • hepatitis
78
Q

what is the patho behind ampB?

K+ and Mg

A

binds to fungal membrance causing holes that allow for leakage of K+ and Mg loss and death of the organism

79
Q

what is ampB used to treat?

A
  • SEVERE systemic fungal infection
80
Q

what does the nurse need to know before administering ampB?

A
  • premedicate with antipyretics, antihistamines, antiemetics, corticosteriods
81
Q

what is nystatin used for?

A

oral, intentisinal, skin, and vaginal candidiasis

82
Q

what is nystatin commonly used to treat?

A

thrush

83
Q

what is the patho of sulfaonamides?

A

inhibit growth but doesn’t kill by blocking bacteria production

84
Q

what is sulfaonamides used to treat?

TOUTI, POOI

A
  • treatment of UTI’s
  • prevention of oppurtunistic infection in neutropenic/ HIV+ pt
85
Q

what are the adverse reactions of taking sulfaonamides?

A
  • s: sunburn
  • u: urine crystals
  • l: love h20 (2-3L)
  • f: funky labs (mdecreased WBC, RBC, and platelet)
86
Q

what are the MDI of sulfaonamides?

celebrex, AIPW, SIW/W,S,P

A
  • never combine w/ celebrex (celexicob)
  • avoid in pregant women
  • significant interaction w/ warfrin, sulfonylureas, phenytoin
87
Q

what should the nurse understand about sulfaonamides before administartion?

OB, TW/F

A
  • obtain baseline
  • take w/ food
88
Q

what is the patho of metronidazole?

A

disrupts DNA synthesis

89
Q

what is metronidazole used to treat?

nothing dazzling about…

A
  • STI’s (c. diff)
  • intraabdominal infections
90
Q

what are the adverse effects of taking metronidazole?

metro

A
  • M: metallic taste
  • E: evade alcohol
  • T: treats c- diff
  • R: rash
  • O: oh no STI
91
Q

what are the MDI of taking metronidazole?

PCB, DTW/P+B

A
  • pregnancy category B
  • dont take phenytoin/ barbiturates
92
Q

what should the nurse know before administering metronidazole?

twf

A

pt needs to take with food

93
Q

what is vancomycin used to treat?

M, OV

A
  • MRSA
  • oral van is used to treat c.diff infection
94
Q

what is the patho of vancomycin?

A

bactercidial

95
Q

what are the vancomycin’s adverese reaction?

A

red man’s syndrome

96
Q

what is the MDI of vancomycin?

A
  • use w/ caution in neonates, older adults, and pt w/ renal disease
97
Q

what should the nurse understand before adminstering vancomycin?

RMS

A

it must be administered slowly to avoid adverse effects

98
Q

what is the patho of macrolides?

A

inhibits bacterial growth

99
Q

what is macrolides used to treat?

U/LRTI

A
  • upper and lower respiratory tract infections
100
Q

” throwmycin throws off ECG”

what are the adverse reactions of macrolides?

PQT, H, HL/ T

A
  • prolonged QT
  • hepatotoxicty
  • hearing loss/ tinnitus
101
Q

what should the nurse understand know before administering macrolides?

A
  • avoid fruit juices
  • hard on IV
102
Q

what is the patho of tetracycline?

A

bacteriostatic

103
Q

what is the use of tetracyclines?

treats tretra diseases

A

treats syphilis, PID, and acne

104
Q

what is adverse effects of tetracyclines?

“ teeth so messed up ypu can cycle through them”

A
  • discoloration of tooth enamal
  • retardation of skeletal dev. of fetus
105
Q

what are the MDI of tetracyclines?

A
  • milk, antacids, magnesium, unsafe for pregnant women and kids under 8
106
Q

what should the nurse understand before adminstering tertacyclines?

A

asses for bleeding

107
Q

what is the patho of aminoglycosides?

A

bactericidal

108
Q

what is aminoglycosides used to treat?

A

severe gram (-) infections

109
Q

what is the adverse reactions of aminoglycosides?

N, MA

A
  • nephrotoxicity
  • muscle aches
110
Q

what is the MDI of of aminoglycosides?

PC- C/D, N

A
  • pregnancy C and D
  • nephrotoxicity enchanced when given concurrently w/ other nephrotoxic drugs
111
Q

what should the nurse understand when administering aminoglycosides?

AP, BT

A

above peak= kidney’s/ ear die
below trough= bacterial growth

112
Q

what should the nurse educate the patient on who is taking aminoglycosides?

A

encourage intake of yogurt and buttermilk

113
Q

what is fluoroquinolones used for?

A
  • a potent broad sprectrum drug only used when all other interventions dont work
114
Q

what is the adverse effect of taking fluoroquinolens?

A

tendonitis

Pharmacology (8 decks)

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