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Pharmacology > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

How are drugs classified?

S, TU

A

Structure and therapeutic use

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2
Q

What are drugs that are never supposed to be crushed?

SR, SA, CR, XL, XT

A

Slow release
Sustained action
Controlled release
Extended length
Extended time

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3
Q

What are the four processes in pharmokinetics?

ADME

A

Absorption
Distrution
Metabolism
Excretion

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4
Q

What is function of absorption in ADME

A

The movement of a drug from site of admin to the blood stream

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5
Q

What does the drug rate absorption rely on?

A

Route of admin
Amount of blood flow
The form of the drug
Food interactions

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6
Q

What are the different routes of administration?

PERIT

A

Parenteral
Enteral
Rectal
Topical
Inhaled

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7
Q

What is parenteral administration?

Parents are quick and direct

A

IV

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8
Q

What is enteral administration?

A

Oral route

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9
Q

What is rectal administration?

A

Through the rectum

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10
Q

What is topical administration?

A

Applied to the skin like a cream

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11
Q

What is inhaled administration?

A

Medicated directed inhaled to the lungs

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12
Q

When drugs are absorbed in the GI where are they circulated first?

A

The liver, liver acts as filter system

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13
Q

What happens to the rest of the drug that isn’t circulated by the liver?

A

Chemically transforms into inactive metabolites

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14
Q

Why are drugs given at a higher dose orally and not IV

A

Because of the first pass effect

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15
Q

What routes of administration is effected by first pass?

A
  • PO ( limited)
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16
Q

What PO drugs are NOT affected by first pass?

ODT, SL, B

A
  • oral disintegrating
  • sublingual
  • buccal
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17
Q

What is distribution in ADME?

A

Transport of a drug by the blood stream to its site of action

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18
Q

What is the most common blood protein?

A

Albumin

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19
Q

What organ/ system is in association with absorption in ADME?

A

Circulatory system / GI system

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20
Q

What organ/ system is in association with distribution in ADME?

A

Circulatory system

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21
Q

What organ/ system is in association with metabolism in ADME?

A

Liver

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22
Q

What organ/ system is in association with excretion in ADME?

A

Kidneys

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23
Q

What are the factors that affect drug metabolism?

A

Genetics, age, disease processes, drug interactions

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24
Q

What is the main eliminating organ in the body?

A

Kidneys

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25
Q

What factors affect excretion?

RD, A, DP..

A
  • renal dysfunction
  • age
  • diseases that involve renal blood flow
    ( cirrhosis and liver disease)
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26
Q

What is half life?

A

The time required for half of a given drug to me removed from the body

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27
Q

What is onset of action?

A

How quickly a medication will work

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28
Q

What is a peak?

A

Max therapeutic response ( highest blood level)

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29
Q

What is a trough?

A

Lowest blood level

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30
Q

What makes a drug non therapeutic?

A

Blood level is below the trough

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31
Q

What is an agonist?

A

When the drug binds to a receptor, there is a response

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32
Q

What is an antagonist?

A

When the drug binds to the receptor, there is no response

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33
Q

What indicates a toxic therapeutic index?

A

The closer to 1 the greater the danger of toxicity

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34
Q

What does a high therapeutic index (TI) mean?

A

Safer

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35
Q

What trimester of pregnancy has the greatest risk for drug induced developmental defects?

A

The first trimester

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36
Q

During which trimester is the fetus more susceptible to drug transfer?

A

The third trimester due to an enhanced blood flow to the fetus

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37
Q

What are category A drugs?

A

Safe

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38
Q

What are category B drugs?

A

Safe for animals unknown for humans

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39
Q

What are category C drugs?

A

Issues to animals but unknown for humans

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40
Q

What are category D drugs?

A

Risk vs. benefits only

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41
Q

What are category X drugs?

A

Never give to pregnant person

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42
Q

What are peripatetic drugs based on?

A

They are weight based

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43
Q

What non modifiable risk factors make pediatrics patients more susceptible to drug toxicity?

A
  • small bodies
  • immature organs
44
Q

What is beers criteria?

A

Help ID drugs that could potentially cause harm to older adults ( risk such as falls, confusion, excessive drowsiness)

45
Q

What needs to be assessed before medication is administered?

VS, H/ MH, AFA

A
  • vital signs
  • health and medication history
  • assess for allergies
46
Q

What is drug polymorphism?

A

Effect of a patient’s age, gender, size, and body composition

47
Q

What is Pharmacogenomics?

A

The study of how certain genetic traits affect drug response

48
Q

What is the responsibility of the FDA?

A

Approving drugs before they are brought to the market?

49
Q

What is the responsibility of the DEA?

A

Enforcing controlled substance laws and regulations

50
Q

When was HIPPA set in place?

A

1996

51
Q

What is a schedule 1 ( c- I) drug?

Street drugs

A

Drugs that aren’t approved for medical use

52
Q

What are schedule 2 drugs?

A

Drugs with high abuse potential like OxyCotin or addy’s

Written RX, no refills, must have a warning label

53
Q

What are schedule 3 drugs?

A

Drugs with less abuse potential than category 1 and 2 like Tylenol w/ codeine

Written RX, 5 refills in a six month period, must have warning label

54
Q

What are schedule 4 drugs?

A

Drugs with some abuse potential like Valium or Xans

Written RX, 5 refills in a six month period, must have warning label

55
Q

What are schedule 5 drugs

A

Drugs with a limited abuse potential like lyrica or robitussin, written RX or over the counter

56
Q

What are the 6 rights of medication?

D, D, P, RO, T, RE

A

Right:
- drug
-dose
-patient
-route
-time
- reason

57
Q

What are adverse drug events?

A

Harm caused by appropriate or inappropriate use of a drug which can include med errors and adverse reactions

58
Q

What are the two types of adverse reactions?

A

Allergic reactions and idiosyncratic reactions

59
Q

What are tall man letters used for?

A

Provide differentiation between drugs that sound alike

60
Q

When are most medical errors made?

A

Transition care and medication reconciliation

61
Q

What is medication reconciliation?

D/c and admission

A

Process in which medications are reviewed and reconciled at all points of entry and exit from a heath care facility

62
Q

What do OTC drug labels must have?

A

Active ingredients , use warning, when to call a doc, directions for use, age/ weight based dosing, inactive ingredients, and storage considerations

63
Q

NSAIDs are highly?

A

bound to protien

64
Q

what is the mechanism of actiom of an NSAID?

A

decreasing prostagladin response

65
Q

what is the theraputic purpose of an NSAID?

A

used for analgesic, antinflammatory, and antipyretic affects

66
Q

why is asprin unique?

A

it can inhibit platelet activity on top of other effects

67
Q

what are the condradictions of NSAIDs?

A, PUD, VKD, PW, RP, AP

A
  • allergy
  • peptic ulcer disease
  • vitamin K deficiency
  • preganant women
  • renal patients
  • asthma patients
68
Q

what are the interactions for NSAIDs?

AI, S, A

A
  • ace inhibtors
  • steriods
  • alcohol
69
Q

what kind of tests have to be preformed before a patient is adminstered an NSAID?

A

CBC, BUN Creatine, liver enzymes

70
Q

what should the patient be educated on before taking NSAIDs?

A
  • unsafe for preganant women
  • must be stopped at least one week prior to elective surgery
  • taken with food
71
Q

what are the adverse effects of NSAIDs?

NSAID

A

N- not good for organs
S- sticky clots (increase risk for thlacemia)
A- asthma
I- increased risk of bleeding
D- decreased/ dead kidney function
S- sodium raises risk for high BP, and CVD

72
Q

what is asprins condradictions?

A
  • avoid in chilldren with viral infections?
73
Q

if you give a child asprin what disease are they at risk for?

A

Reye’s Syndrome

74
Q

what are the chronic syptoms of ASA?

T, HL, CNS, GIU

A

tinnitus, hearing loss, CNS changes (breathing), GI upset

75
Q

when preforming an assesment before administering aspirin what should the nurse look for as an indication not to administer the medication to the patient?

VS, AT

A
  • vinegar smell
  • aspirin triad
76
Q

what is aspirin triad?

a, np, r

A
  • asthma
  • nasal polyps
  • rhinitis
77
Q

what would you educate the patient on before adminstering Aspirin?

SAU, BW/OT, H

A
  • severe abdominal upset or pain
  • bruising w/o trauma
  • hematuria
78
Q

what is ketorolac (Toradol)?

A

equivalent to morphine but doesnt cause any chnages in conciousness

79
Q

what is the theraputic purpose of Ketorolac?

toradol

A

pain treatment for ortho trauma and surgery

80
Q

what are the adverse effects of Ketorolac (toradol)?

RI, GIP, N

A
  • renal impairment
  • GI pain
  • nausea
81
Q

what is the limit days for ketorolac (toradol)?

A

5 days due to risk of GI bleed

82
Q

what are the condradictions of ibuprofen?

A

ACE inhibtors

83
Q

what is celecoxib (celebrex)?

A

used to treat diffrent kinds of arthritis

84
Q

what are contraindications/ interactions of celecoxib (celebrex)?

SA, ICVE

A
  • sulfa allergy
  • may increase CV events
85
Q

what are the adverse affects of celecoxib (celebrex)?

H, SI, D, HTN

A
  • headache
  • sinus irritation
  • diarrhea
  • HTN
86
Q

what is the mechanism of action for Tylenol?

A

blocks peripheral pain by blocking prostaglandin synthesis

87
Q

what is the theraputic purpose of tylenol?

NOA, AP

A
  • nonopiod analegisc: mild to moderate pain
  • antipyretic
88
Q

what are the interactions of tylenol?

A, SLD, CA

A
  • allergy
  • severe liver disease or chronic alcoholic
89
Q

what are the adverse effects of Tylenol?

N, A, H

A
  • nausea
  • anemia
  • hepatotoxcity ( toxic liver)
90
Q

what should the patient be educated on before tylenol is administred?

A
  • don’t exceed dose limits
91
Q

what is the dose limit of tylenol for a healthy person?

A

4,000

92
Q

what is the dose limit of tylenol for a older person?

A

3,000

93
Q

what is the dose limit of tylenol for a alcoholic person?

A

2,000

94
Q

acetaminophen can be found in what OTC drug?

A

cough/ cold medication

95
Q

what is the antidote for a tylenol overdose?

A

acetylcysteine

acetyl sis tine

96
Q

when should acetylcystenine be started for a acetaminophen OD?

A

within 10 hours of OD

97
Q

what is Gout?

A

a form of arthritis caused by an overproduction of uric acid

98
Q

what is the treatment for gout?

DM, POF, N, A

A
  • diet modification
  • drink plenty of fluids
  • NSAIDS
  • allopurinol
99
Q

what is allopurinol (zyloprim)?

A

prevents gout attacks

100
Q

how does allopurinol (zyloprim) prevent gout attacks?

A

inhibits uric acid production

101
Q

what are the contradictions of allopurinol ( zyloprim)?

GI, D, R (SJS)

A
  • GI upset
  • drowsiness
  • rash: stevens johnson syndrome
102
Q

what should the patient be educated on before administration of allopurinol (zyloprim)?

IFI, TWF, AD

A
  • increase fluid intake
  • take with food
  • avoid driving
103
Q

what is colchicine (colcrys)?

A

to prevent acute gout attacks?

104
Q

what are the contradictions/ interactions of colchicine?

A
  • decreases fertility
  • many drug interactions
105
Q

what are the adverse effects of colchicine?

UGI, L, GIB

A
  • GI upset
  • leukopenia
  • GI bleed
106
Q

what drug has a low drug TI causing an increase risk of drug toxcity?

A

colchicine

coltch a seen

Pharmacology (8 decks)

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