final exam 14-24 Flashcards
what are the two parts of whole blood?
formed elements and plasma.
which is the correct order of stage occurring during hemostasis?
vascular spasm, platelet plug formation. blood coagulation.
what is hematocrit?
percentage of erythrocytes.
the purpose of a differential blood count is.
to determine the number percentage of the 5 different types of leukocytes.
which leukocyte is most abundant, a first responder, and a strong phagocyte that dies about 20-30 minutes after reaching a trauma area.
neutrophil
what are the functions of blood?
- to transport nutrients waste.
- to defend against disease.
- to transport hormones.
which plasma protein is changed form an inactive soluble from to an insoluble sticky from by thrombin in the 3rd phase of hemostasis?
fibrinogen.
what is the average life span of a red blood cell?
120 days.
which blood type is the universal donor blood?
0-.
which of the following is a part of blood plasma?
albumins.
which of the answers are produced from the breakdown of hemoglobin?
- biliverdin
- bilirubin
where are most plasma proteins made?
liver.
what are the 3 groups of plasma proteins?
- globulins
- albumins
- fibrogen
what condition causes the release of erythropoietin from the kidneys?
low tissues oxygen concentrations.
which of the following are parts of the conductance system of the heart?
- SA node
- Purkinje fibers
- AV bundle (bundle of his)
the primary pacemaker of the heart is?
the sinoatrial node.
the functions of the heart include?
1.pump blood through the systemic circuit.
2. pump blood through the pulmonary circuit.
a heart murmur may be caused by?
- incomplete closure of the valves.
- a hole in either one or both interatrial or interventricular septum.
the mas of cardiac muscle cells that act together too contract at the same time is called a?
syncytium.
what two occur during the QRS complex of an electrocardiogram?
ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization.
blood pressure is defined as?
the forces exerted by blood against the inner walls of blood vessels.
which are organs of the cardiovascular system?
- heart
- blood vessels
how many chambers does a human heart have?
4.
the main blood vessels that supply oxygen rich oxygenated blood to the hearts cells (not to a chamber) are known as?
the coronary arteries.
the first heart sound is the?
the closing of the AV (tricuspid and bicuspid) valves.
the cardiac cycle is defined as?
one cycle of atrial systole, diastole, and one cycle of ventricular systole, ventricular diastole.
which is the middle layer of the heart wall?
myocardium.
the cardiac cycle refers to the events that occur during a heart beat?
true.
lymph vessels are known to contain ________ just like veins in the cardiovascular system.
valves.
what do immature T cells go to mature?
thymus
which lymphatic organ filters blood instead of lymph?
spleen.
being exposed to pathogen, contracting the disease, and then recovering would be which type of immunity?
naturally acquired active immunity.
which are functions of the lymphatic/immune system?
- transports excess fluid from peripheral tissues back to the cardiovascular system.
- defends the body against disease.
the thoracic duct drains.
the whole body except for the right arm/shoulder, right thoracic region, and the right side of the head and neck.
lymph nodes contain which leukocytes?
T and B lymphocytes and macrophages.
the cellular immunity is carried out by which leukocytes that reacts directly by cells to cells contacts to destroy virus infected cells and cancer cells are the?
cytotoxic T cells.
where might one find the major cluster of lymph nodes in the human body?
- thoracic region
- cervical regions
- axillary region
- inguinal regions
antibodies are shaped like?
the letter Y.
humoral immunity is a function of which antibody-producing cells?
B cells.
which category of T lymphocytes secretes chemicals that activate cytotoxic T cells and B cells?
T helper cells.
which are organs of the lymphatic system?
- spleen
- thymus
- lymph vessels
- lymph nodes
which lymphocytes provide long term immunity?
memory T cells and memory B cells.
what is the name of the section of the small intestine where most chemical digestion and absorption occurs?
jejunum.
which group represents the alimentary canal of the digestive system?
pharynx, esophagus, stomach and large intestine.
along with the villi, what other modifications of the small intestines increase the surface area?
- plicae circulares
- microvilli
which layer of the digestive tract wall contains smooth muscle?
muscularis.
the band of circular smooth muscle that is located between the esophagus and the stomach is called the?
cardiac sphincter (lower esophageal sphincter).
the large intestine consists of?
- rectum
- colon
- cecum
feces is composed of?
- bacteria
- bile pigments
- electrolytes
the large intestine serve as an incubator for bacteria.
true.
vitamins are?
organic compounds.
an incomplete protein has?
an inadequate amount of essential amino acids.
which are essential amino acids?
- histidine
- valine
an adequate diet allows for?
- Maintenace of body tissue
- growth
- repair of body tissues
what is the cause of secondary malnutrition?
some characteristics the persons body renders adequate diet not adequate.
during starvation the body?
- digests your fat store
- digest your muscles
- uses all glycogen stores
what happens to excuses glucose in healthy individuals.
- stored as adipose tissue
- stored as glycogen
edema can result from inadequate proteins consumption.
true
the upper respiratory tract incudes?
pharynx, nasal cavity and nose.
C02 is carried primarily in blood plasma as?
bicarbonate ions.
what are the functions of the respiratory system?
- filter, moisten and warm incoming air
- transport air into the body, into the lungs, and the many microscopic air sacs
- exchange the gases, oxygen and carbon dioxide
the two chemicals that affect breathing control the most are?
C02 and hydrogen ion (H+)
which three parameters combine to make vital capacity?
- inspiratory reserve volume
- tidal volume
- expiratory reserve volume
what is the name of the microscopic air sacs in the lungs?
alveoli.
which process are involved with respiration?
- external respiration
- internal respiration
- cellular respiration
the respiratory pathway exchanged gases through what process?
diffusion.
the volume of the thoracic cavity increases as the primary respiratory muscles contracts this causes what to happen?
the pressure in the thoracic cavity decreases.
what structure folds over to protect the opening of the larynx when swallowing?
epiglottis.
which are the primary respiratory muscle?
- diaphragm
- external intercostals
where is the trachea relative to the esophagus?
anterior.
which are functions of the upper respiratory tract?
- warms incoming air
- filters incoming air
- moistens incoming air
surfactant reduces _________ allowing expansion of the lungs?
surface tension.
the amount of air that moves into or out of the lungs during regular breathing is?
tidal volume.
the active phase of ventilation is exhalation?
false.
which are organs of the urinary system?
kidneys, urinary bladder and utreters.
what are the two parts of nephrons?
- renal tubule
- renal corpusle
where does the first step in urine formation occur?
glomerulus.
where are the kidneys loacted?
retroperitoneally and bilateral to the vertebral column.
angiotensin ll causes the blood pressure to rise by?
increase amounts of ADH to be released.
you have the following data, the concentration of glucose in blood plasma is 100mg% the concentration in the renal filtrate is 100mg% and finally the concentration of glucose in the urine is 0 mg%. what process in urine production is responsible for this change?
reabsorption.
which amount of urine in a 24-hour period is below norma?
500 mL
what are the functions of the urinary system?
- blood pressure
- maintaining the composition, pH, volume of the body fluids withing normal limits.
urine is mostly composed of?
water.
what answer is a normal value for the pH of urine?
4.7.
what are the 3 regions of the kidney structure?
- renal medulla
- renal cortex
- renal pelvis
the structure in nephrons that helps regulate blood pressure are the?
juxtaglomerular apparatuses.
which body compartment has the highest percentage of water?
intracellular.
which hormone regulates the amount of Na+ ion excreted in urine?
aldosterone.
most ______ ions results from metabolic reactions in the body’s cells.
H+.
the greatest electrolytes output is in?
urine.
two of the three buffer system in the body are?
- phosphate buffer system
- bicarbonate buffer system
acidosis is defined as?
condition in which the pH of body fluid is below 7.35.
respiratory acidosis differ from metabolic acidosis in that?
respiratory acidosis is an excess of C02.
of the three ways the body responds to acidosis which process responds most quickly?
buffer system.
intracellular fluids are higher in ______ than extracellular fluid?
Mg2+ ions.
if a person water output is 2500 mL per day, how much water must that persons water intake be?
2500 mL.
spermatogenesis is the?
process of producing of sperm.
the primary sex organ of the male reproductive system is?
testes.
the hormone that is responsible for male secondary sec characteristic is?
testosterone
the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland which control the ovarian cycle are?
- FSH
- LH
the hormones produces by the ovaries that control the uterine cycle are?
- estrogen
- progesterone
what day during a “normal” 28 day ovarian cycle does ovulation occur?
day 14.
menopause can be defined as?
the halt of menses.
the second meiotic division (meiosis ll) of oogenesis is completed?
after fertilization.
in females meiosis l begins
as a fetus
the production of female gametes and secretion of female sex hormones is the function of the?
ovaries.
what is the primary sex organ of the female?
ovaries.
which hormones causes and maintain secondary sex characteristic in the female?
estrogen.
which term means the first menstrual flow?
menarche.
which antibodies are found in the plasma of a person with type AB+ blood?
there are no antibodies to ABO Rh blood group antigens. AB blood type can only receive other AB blood types.
besides iron and vitamins B12 what is needed specifically for erythropoietin?
folic acid.
which blood vessel are connected to the right atrium?
inferior vena cava
superior vena cava
which innate (nonspecific) defense involve intact skin and intact mucous membrane?
species barriers
which of the following descriptions is a secondary immune response?
rapid response of very high antibodies in plasma.
to join the cardiovascular system the lymph ducts empty directly into the_______.
left and right subclinical veins.
in humans a normal pregnancy is defined as?
the presences of a developing offspring in the uterus.
the corona radiata is the protective?
layer farther from the oocyte cell membrane.
the chorion is the first extraembryonic membrane to form?
true.
which membrane forms around the embryo proper?
amnion.
the gastrula contains three layers of embryonic tissue.
true
the ectoderm becomes?
the nervous system and skin.
the endoderm becomes?
the digestive and respiratory system.
the fetal stage of development is from?
the beginning of the ninth week to birth.
pregnancy is broken into three 12 week period called?
trimester.
the ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary trunk to the?
the aorta.
trophoblast cells secrete this hormone to keep the corpus luteum intact?
hCG.
this hormone causes powerful uterine contractions?
oxytocin.
fetal cells are more efficient at absorbing nutrients from the maternal blood than maternal cells?
true.
the first product produced by mammary glands is called?
colostrum .
the post natal period is defined as the period?
from birth to death.
infancy is defined as?
end of the 4th week to one year.
senescence is defined as?
old age.
the period from the end of the second week through the end of the eighth week is called?
the embryonic stage.
the zygote divides rapidly without a change in size is which stage listed?
cleavage.
which stage is a solid ball of cells?
morula.
the stage of hollow ball of cells with an inner cell mass is called a?
blastocyst.
fertilization occurs in which location?
the first third of the uterine tubes.
the prenatal period for humans as usually?
30-42 weeks.
genes are defined as?
sequences of DNA that encode proteins.
dominant refers to the?
alleles that masks the expression of another allele.
recessive refer to the?
allele expression that is masked.
a Punnett square is?
- allows for a prediction of genotypes in offspring.
- allows for probabilities of genotypes.
incomplete dominance occurs?
when the phenotypes is between the two homozygotes.
a genotype describes?
- a particular allele
- the DNA an individual processes
codominance occurs?
when the alleles are expressed equally.
polygenic refers to?
a trait caused by multiple genes.
polyploidy refers to?
the addition of set or sets of chromosomes.
aneuploidy refers to cells?
- missing a chromosome
- having an extra chromosome
trisomy refers to?
having an extra chromosome
nondisjunction means?
1.one gamete received not enough chromosomes
2. the homologous chromosomes didn’t separated correctly.
autosomes in human are?
the first 22 chromosomes.
alternative forms (different DNA sequences) of genes are called?
alleles.
genes on the autosomes are paired just like homologous chromosomes.
true.
homozygous means that?
the alleles for a gene are identical.
phenotype is?
the appearance or physical outcome of genes.
