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A&P > final exam 14-24 > Flashcards

final exam 14-24 Flashcards

1
Q

what are the two parts of whole blood?

A

formed elements and plasma.

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2
Q

which is the correct order of stage occurring during hemostasis?

A

vascular spasm, platelet plug formation. blood coagulation.

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3
Q

what is hematocrit?

A

percentage of erythrocytes.

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4
Q

the purpose of a differential blood count is.

A

to determine the number percentage of the 5 different types of leukocytes.

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5
Q

which leukocyte is most abundant, a first responder, and a strong phagocyte that dies about 20-30 minutes after reaching a trauma area.

A

neutrophil

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6
Q

what are the functions of blood?

A
  1. to transport nutrients waste.
  2. to defend against disease.
  3. to transport hormones.
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7
Q

which plasma protein is changed form an inactive soluble from to an insoluble sticky from by thrombin in the 3rd phase of hemostasis?

A

fibrinogen.

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8
Q

what is the average life span of a red blood cell?

A

120 days.

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9
Q

which blood type is the universal donor blood?

A

0-.

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10
Q

which of the following is a part of blood plasma?

A

albumins.

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11
Q

which of the answers are produced from the breakdown of hemoglobin?

A
  1. biliverdin
  2. bilirubin
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12
Q

where are most plasma proteins made?

A

liver.

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13
Q

what are the 3 groups of plasma proteins?

A
  1. globulins
  2. albumins
  3. fibrogen
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14
Q

what condition causes the release of erythropoietin from the kidneys?

A

low tissues oxygen concentrations.

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15
Q

which of the following are parts of the conductance system of the heart?

A
  1. SA node
  2. Purkinje fibers
  3. AV bundle (bundle of his)
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16
Q

the primary pacemaker of the heart is?

A

the sinoatrial node.

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17
Q

the functions of the heart include?

A

1.pump blood through the systemic circuit.
2. pump blood through the pulmonary circuit.

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18
Q

a heart murmur may be caused by?

A
  1. incomplete closure of the valves.
  2. a hole in either one or both interatrial or interventricular septum.
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19
Q

the mas of cardiac muscle cells that act together too contract at the same time is called a?

A

syncytium.

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20
Q

what two occur during the QRS complex of an electrocardiogram?

A

ventricular depolarization and atrial repolarization.

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21
Q

blood pressure is defined as?

A

the forces exerted by blood against the inner walls of blood vessels.

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22
Q

which are organs of the cardiovascular system?

A
  1. heart
  2. blood vessels
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23
Q

how many chambers does a human heart have?

A

4.

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24
Q

the main blood vessels that supply oxygen rich oxygenated blood to the hearts cells (not to a chamber) are known as?

A

the coronary arteries.

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25
Q

the first heart sound is the?

A

the closing of the AV (tricuspid and bicuspid) valves.

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26
Q

the cardiac cycle is defined as?

A

one cycle of atrial systole, diastole, and one cycle of ventricular systole, ventricular diastole.

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27
Q

which is the middle layer of the heart wall?

A

myocardium.

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28
Q

the cardiac cycle refers to the events that occur during a heart beat?

A

true.

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29
Q

lymph vessels are known to contain ________ just like veins in the cardiovascular system.

A

valves.

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30
Q

what do immature T cells go to mature?

A

thymus

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31
Q

which lymphatic organ filters blood instead of lymph?

A

spleen.

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32
Q

being exposed to pathogen, contracting the disease, and then recovering would be which type of immunity?

A

naturally acquired active immunity.

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33
Q

which are functions of the lymphatic/immune system?

A
  1. transports excess fluid from peripheral tissues back to the cardiovascular system.
  2. defends the body against disease.
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34
Q

the thoracic duct drains.

A

the whole body except for the right arm/shoulder, right thoracic region, and the right side of the head and neck.

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35
Q

lymph nodes contain which leukocytes?

A

T and B lymphocytes and macrophages.

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36
Q

the cellular immunity is carried out by which leukocytes that reacts directly by cells to cells contacts to destroy virus infected cells and cancer cells are the?

A

cytotoxic T cells.

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37
Q

where might one find the major cluster of lymph nodes in the human body?

A
  1. thoracic region
  2. cervical regions
  3. axillary region
  4. inguinal regions
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38
Q

antibodies are shaped like?

A

the letter Y.

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39
Q

humoral immunity is a function of which antibody-producing cells?

A

B cells.

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40
Q

which category of T lymphocytes secretes chemicals that activate cytotoxic T cells and B cells?

A

T helper cells.

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41
Q

which are organs of the lymphatic system?

A
  1. spleen
  2. thymus
  3. lymph vessels
  4. lymph nodes
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42
Q

which lymphocytes provide long term immunity?

A

memory T cells and memory B cells.

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43
Q

what is the name of the section of the small intestine where most chemical digestion and absorption occurs?

A

jejunum.

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43
Q

which group represents the alimentary canal of the digestive system?

A

pharynx, esophagus, stomach and large intestine.

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44
Q

along with the villi, what other modifications of the small intestines increase the surface area?

A
  1. plicae circulares
  2. microvilli
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45
Q

which layer of the digestive tract wall contains smooth muscle?

A

muscularis.

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46
Q

the band of circular smooth muscle that is located between the esophagus and the stomach is called the?

A

cardiac sphincter (lower esophageal sphincter).

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47
Q

the large intestine consists of?

A
  1. rectum
  2. colon
  3. cecum
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48
Q

feces is composed of?

A
  1. bacteria
  2. bile pigments
  3. electrolytes
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49
Q

the large intestine serve as an incubator for bacteria.

A

true.

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50
Q

vitamins are?

A

organic compounds.

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51
Q

an incomplete protein has?

A

an inadequate amount of essential amino acids.

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52
Q

which are essential amino acids?

A
  1. histidine
  2. valine
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53
Q

an adequate diet allows for?

A
  1. Maintenace of body tissue
  2. growth
  3. repair of body tissues
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54
Q

what is the cause of secondary malnutrition?

A

some characteristics the persons body renders adequate diet not adequate.

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55
Q

during starvation the body?

A
  1. digests your fat store
  2. digest your muscles
  3. uses all glycogen stores
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56
Q

what happens to excuses glucose in healthy individuals.

A
  1. stored as adipose tissue
  2. stored as glycogen
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57
Q

edema can result from inadequate proteins consumption.

A

true

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58
Q

the upper respiratory tract incudes?

A

pharynx, nasal cavity and nose.

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59
Q

C02 is carried primarily in blood plasma as?

A

bicarbonate ions.

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60
Q

what are the functions of the respiratory system?

A
  1. filter, moisten and warm incoming air
  2. transport air into the body, into the lungs, and the many microscopic air sacs
  3. exchange the gases, oxygen and carbon dioxide
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61
Q

the two chemicals that affect breathing control the most are?

A

C02 and hydrogen ion (H+)

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62
Q

which three parameters combine to make vital capacity?

A
  1. inspiratory reserve volume
  2. tidal volume
  3. expiratory reserve volume
63
Q

what is the name of the microscopic air sacs in the lungs?

A

alveoli.

64
Q

which process are involved with respiration?

A
  1. external respiration
  2. internal respiration
  3. cellular respiration
65
Q

the respiratory pathway exchanged gases through what process?

A

diffusion.

66
Q

the volume of the thoracic cavity increases as the primary respiratory muscles contracts this causes what to happen?

A

the pressure in the thoracic cavity decreases.

67
Q

what structure folds over to protect the opening of the larynx when swallowing?

A

epiglottis.

68
Q

which are the primary respiratory muscle?

A
  1. diaphragm
  2. external intercostals
69
Q

where is the trachea relative to the esophagus?

A

anterior.

70
Q

which are functions of the upper respiratory tract?

A
  1. warms incoming air
  2. filters incoming air
  3. moistens incoming air
71
Q

surfactant reduces _________ allowing expansion of the lungs?

A

surface tension.

72
Q

the amount of air that moves into or out of the lungs during regular breathing is?

A

tidal volume.

73
Q

the active phase of ventilation is exhalation?

A

false.

74
Q

which are organs of the urinary system?

A

kidneys, urinary bladder and utreters.

75
Q

what are the two parts of nephrons?

A
  1. renal tubule
  2. renal corpusle
76
Q

where does the first step in urine formation occur?

A

glomerulus.

77
Q

where are the kidneys loacted?

A

retroperitoneally and bilateral to the vertebral column.

78
Q

angiotensin ll causes the blood pressure to rise by?

A

increase amounts of ADH to be released.

79
Q

you have the following data, the concentration of glucose in blood plasma is 100mg% the concentration in the renal filtrate is 100mg% and finally the concentration of glucose in the urine is 0 mg%. what process in urine production is responsible for this change?

A

reabsorption.

80
Q

which amount of urine in a 24-hour period is below norma?

A

500 mL

81
Q

what are the functions of the urinary system?

A
  1. blood pressure
  2. maintaining the composition, pH, volume of the body fluids withing normal limits.
82
Q

urine is mostly composed of?

A

water.

83
Q

what answer is a normal value for the pH of urine?

A

4.7.

84
Q

what are the 3 regions of the kidney structure?

A
  1. renal medulla
  2. renal cortex
  3. renal pelvis
85
Q

the structure in nephrons that helps regulate blood pressure are the?

A

juxtaglomerular apparatuses.

86
Q

which body compartment has the highest percentage of water?

A

intracellular.

87
Q

which hormone regulates the amount of Na+ ion excreted in urine?

A

aldosterone.

88
Q

most ______ ions results from metabolic reactions in the body’s cells.

A

H+.

89
Q

the greatest electrolytes output is in?

A

urine.

90
Q

two of the three buffer system in the body are?

A
  1. phosphate buffer system
  2. bicarbonate buffer system
91
Q

acidosis is defined as?

A

condition in which the pH of body fluid is below 7.35.

92
Q

respiratory acidosis differ from metabolic acidosis in that?

A

respiratory acidosis is an excess of C02.

93
Q

of the three ways the body responds to acidosis which process responds most quickly?

A

buffer system.

94
Q

intracellular fluids are higher in ______ than extracellular fluid?

A

Mg2+ ions.

95
Q

if a person water output is 2500 mL per day, how much water must that persons water intake be?

A

2500 mL.

96
Q

spermatogenesis is the?

A

process of producing of sperm.

97
Q

the primary sex organ of the male reproductive system is?

A

testes.

98
Q

the hormone that is responsible for male secondary sec characteristic is?

A

testosterone

99
Q

the hormones produced by the anterior pituitary gland which control the ovarian cycle are?

A
  1. FSH
  2. LH
100
Q

the hormones produces by the ovaries that control the uterine cycle are?

A
  1. estrogen
  2. progesterone
101
Q

what day during a “normal” 28 day ovarian cycle does ovulation occur?

A

day 14.

102
Q

menopause can be defined as?

A

the halt of menses.

103
Q

the second meiotic division (meiosis ll) of oogenesis is completed?

A

after fertilization.

104
Q

in females meiosis l begins

A

as a fetus

105
Q

the production of female gametes and secretion of female sex hormones is the function of the?

A

ovaries.

106
Q

what is the primary sex organ of the female?

A

ovaries.

107
Q

which hormones causes and maintain secondary sex characteristic in the female?

A

estrogen.

108
Q

which term means the first menstrual flow?

A

menarche.

109
Q

which antibodies are found in the plasma of a person with type AB+ blood?

A

there are no antibodies to ABO Rh blood group antigens. AB blood type can only receive other AB blood types.

110
Q

besides iron and vitamins B12 what is needed specifically for erythropoietin?

A

folic acid.

111
Q

which blood vessel are connected to the right atrium?

A

inferior vena cava
superior vena cava

112
Q

which innate (nonspecific) defense involve intact skin and intact mucous membrane?

A

species barriers

113
Q

which of the following descriptions is a secondary immune response?

A

rapid response of very high antibodies in plasma.

114
Q

to join the cardiovascular system the lymph ducts empty directly into the_______.

A

left and right subclinical veins.

115
Q

in humans a normal pregnancy is defined as?

A

the presences of a developing offspring in the uterus.

116
Q

the corona radiata is the protective?

A

layer farther from the oocyte cell membrane.

117
Q

the chorion is the first extraembryonic membrane to form?

A

true.

118
Q

which membrane forms around the embryo proper?

A

amnion.

119
Q

the gastrula contains three layers of embryonic tissue.

A

true

120
Q

the ectoderm becomes?

A

the nervous system and skin.

121
Q

the endoderm becomes?

A

the digestive and respiratory system.

122
Q

the fetal stage of development is from?

A

the beginning of the ninth week to birth.

123
Q

pregnancy is broken into three 12 week period called?

A

trimester.

124
Q

the ductus arteriosus connects the pulmonary trunk to the?

A

the aorta.

125
Q

trophoblast cells secrete this hormone to keep the corpus luteum intact?

A

hCG.

126
Q

this hormone causes powerful uterine contractions?

A

oxytocin.

127
Q

fetal cells are more efficient at absorbing nutrients from the maternal blood than maternal cells?

A

true.

128
Q

the first product produced by mammary glands is called?

A

colostrum .

129
Q

the post natal period is defined as the period?

A

from birth to death.

130
Q

infancy is defined as?

A

end of the 4th week to one year.

131
Q

senescence is defined as?

A

old age.

132
Q

the period from the end of the second week through the end of the eighth week is called?

A

the embryonic stage.

133
Q

the zygote divides rapidly without a change in size is which stage listed?

A

cleavage.

134
Q

which stage is a solid ball of cells?

A

morula.

135
Q

the stage of hollow ball of cells with an inner cell mass is called a?

A

blastocyst.

136
Q

fertilization occurs in which location?

A

the first third of the uterine tubes.

137
Q

the prenatal period for humans as usually?

A

30-42 weeks.

138
Q

genes are defined as?

A

sequences of DNA that encode proteins.

139
Q

dominant refers to the?

A

alleles that masks the expression of another allele.

140
Q

recessive refer to the?

A

allele expression that is masked.

141
Q

a Punnett square is?

A
  1. allows for a prediction of genotypes in offspring.
  2. allows for probabilities of genotypes.
142
Q

incomplete dominance occurs?

A

when the phenotypes is between the two homozygotes.

143
Q

a genotype describes?

A
  1. a particular allele
  2. the DNA an individual processes
144
Q

codominance occurs?

A

when the alleles are expressed equally.

145
Q

polygenic refers to?

A

a trait caused by multiple genes.

146
Q

polyploidy refers to?

A

the addition of set or sets of chromosomes.

147
Q

aneuploidy refers to cells?

A
  1. missing a chromosome
  2. having an extra chromosome
148
Q

trisomy refers to?

A

having an extra chromosome

149
Q

nondisjunction means?

A

1.one gamete received not enough chromosomes
2. the homologous chromosomes didn’t separated correctly.

150
Q

autosomes in human are?

A

the first 22 chromosomes.

151
Q

alternative forms (different DNA sequences) of genes are called?

A

alleles.

152
Q

genes on the autosomes are paired just like homologous chromosomes.

A

true.

153
Q

homozygous means that?

A

the alleles for a gene are identical.

154
Q

phenotype is?

A

the appearance or physical outcome of genes.

155
Q
A

A&P (17 decks)

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