Final coaching questions Flashcards
Contractions in the heart are controlled via a well-regulated electrical signaling cascade
that originates in pacemaker cells in the
a. Sinus Node
b. Sinoatrial Node
c. AV Node
d. A and b
d.
- Which of the following describe the tricuspid valve?
a. prevents backflow of blood from the RV to the RA during ventricular systole
b. prevents backflow of blood from the RV to the RA ventricle during ventricular diastole
c. prevents backflow of blood from the RA to the RV during ventricular systole
d. prevents backflow of blood from the RA to the RV during ventricular diastole
a.
- It occurs at the beginning of ventricular systole
a. S1
b. S2
c. S3
d. S4
a.
- All of the following describes the period of rapid filling of the ventricles, Except
a. The semilunar valves are closed, the AV valves are opened
b. The turbulent flow of blood into the ventricles produces a third heart sound
c. Continuous ventricular filling occurs during the middle one third of diastole
d. The ventricles relax, but ventricular volume does not change
d.
- During exercise, the heart rate can increase to 190 bpm, and the stroke volume can
increase to 115 mL. Consequently, cardiac output is
a. 20L/min
b. 22L/min
c. 30L/min
d. 33L/min
b.
If the cardiac output is 7.2L/min and the heart rate is 80 bpm, then the stroke volume
is
a. 70 ml
b. 100 ml
c. 90 ml
d. 80 ml
c.
All of the following are true regarding ECG, Except
a. Depolarization of the atria produces the P wave
b. Depolarization of the ventricles produces the QRS complexes
c. Repolarization of the atria occurs during QRS complexes
d. Repolarization of the ventricles produces the T wave
e. NOTA
e.
- All of the following are Modifiable Risk Factors for CAD, EXCEPT
a. Tobacco Smoking
b. Response to stress
c. Physical Inactivity
d. Cholesterol
b.
- Bluish discoloration of the skin and nailbeds of fingers and toes along with palms. This
term is called_____.
a. Liver disease
b. Cyanosis
c. Hypothyroidism carotenemia
d. Hypothyroidism
b.
- A patient with left sided CHF II, is referred for physical therapy. During, exercises, the
patient can be expected to exhibit______________.
a. Anorexia, nausea with abdominal pain and distention
b. Dyspnea with fatigue and muscular weakness
c. Severe, uncomfortable chest pain with shortness of breath
d. Weight gain with dependent edema
b.
- Phase 1 Level 1, except
a. Evaluation and patient education
b. Arms supported for every meal
c. Bed exercises
d. 1-1.5 mets
e. NOTA
e.
- All of the following describes the heart EXCEPT
a. a mass of tissue that extends from the sternum to the vertebral column between the two
lungs
b. Its more pointed apex is directed toward the left hip
c. It is bordered inferiorly by the stomach
d. posteriorly by the vertebral column and ribs
e. laterally by the pleural cavity (which contains the lungs).
c.
- Patient B (without risk factors) is 70yo. The computed training heart rate (bpm), using Age-
adjusted predicted maximum heart rate formula would be__________
a. 90-112
b. 90
c. 150
d. 150-290
a.
- The Aorta leaves the heart via the______
a. Right Auricle
b. Left Ventricle
c. Right Ventricle
d. Left Auricle
b.
- The Conducting Portion structures are well adapted for the movement, cleaning, warming,
and humidification of air. All of the following are part of the conducting zone except:
a. Terminal bronchioles
b. bronchioles
c. Larynx
d. Alveolar sac
d.
- What fissure/s can be found in the right lung?
a. Horizontal Fissure
b. Oblique Fissure
c. Both a and b
d. NOTA
c.
- A part of the respiratory center in the pons that continually sends inhibitory nerve
impulses to the inspiratory area, limiting inhalation and facilitating exhalation
a. Pneumotaxic Area
b. Apneustic Area
c. Both a and b
d. None of the above
a.
- auscultation site for bronchial
a. trachea
b. over manubrium, between the clavicles or between the scapulae
c. over large airways near sternum and between the scapulae
d. over peripheral lung tissue
b.
- All of the following describes the primary muscle of inspiration, EXCEPT
I. Innervated by the phrenic nerve ( C3- C5)
II. When a person breathes in, the central portion of this muscle descends
III. The primary muscle is diaphragm
IV. When a person breathes in, it elevates and depress the ribs during respiration
V. Innervated by the phrenic nerve ( C5- C6)
a. I, II, III
b. IV, V
c. II, V
d. II, IV, V
b.
- Which of the following describes the continuous breath sounds?
a. most prominent during inspiration
b. caused by vibrations of air passing through the narrowed airways
c. present in CHF Atelectasis
d. caused by the sound of gas bubbling through secretions
b.
- All of the following conditions contributes to ipsilateral shifting except
a. Pneumonectomy
b. Lobectomy
c. Hemothorax
d. NOTA
c.
- Which of the following best describes the Diaphragmatic Breathing Exercises?
a. This breathing pattern often is adopted spontaneously by patients with COPD to deal
with episode of dyspnea
b. This breathing pattern is for chest breathers
c. This breathing pattern prevents airway collapse
d. This breathing pattern is also known as the frog breathing
b.
- Which of the following describe the Tidal Volume?
I. This volume is the amount of air left in the lungs after max expiration
II. This is normal inspiration followed by a normal expiration
III. Normal volume is 500 mL
IV. Normal volume is 1,500mL
a. I,II,III
b. I,IV
c. II,III
d. II,IV
c.
- Caused by repeated damage to bronchial walls. The resultant destruction and bronchial dilation
reduce bronchial wall movement so that secretions cannot be removed effectively from the
lungs.
a. Bronchiectasis
b. Emphysema
c. Asthma
d. Chronic Bronchitis
a.
- ph= 7.31
pC02= 50
hc03=31
given the following values the patient has:
a. partially compensated respiratory acidosis
b. partially compensated respiratory alkalosis
c. uncompensated respiratory acidosis
d. uncompensated respiratory alkalosis
a.
- THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE OF THE PELVIS:
I. SUPPORTING AND TRANSFERING OF THE HAT TO THE FEMUR IN STANDING IS ONE OF THE
KINESIOLOGICAL FUNCTIONS OF THE PELVIS.
II. IT IS MADE UP OF A RIGHT AND LEFT INNOMINATE BONES WHICH ARE JOINED
TO THE SACRUM POSTERIORLY
III. THE ILIUM, ISCHIUM AND PUBIS JOIN TOGETHER TO CONTRIBUTE TO THE FORMATION OF THE
ACETABULUM.
IV. THE BODY CF THE ILIUM CONTRIBUTES APPROXIMATELY 20% TO THE FORMATION OF THE
ACETABULUM
A. ALL OF THESE
B. I, II, III
C. I AND III
D. II AND IV
E. ONLY IV
B
- THE FRONTAL PLANE ANGULATION OR THE NECK-SHAFT ANGLE OF THE FEMUR TYPICALLY SEEN IN ADULTS
AT 125 DEGREES. AN EXCESSIVE ANGLE OF INCLINATION BEYOND 130 DEGREES IS CALLED COXA VALGA
THIS RESULTS TO THESE CONSEQUENCES, EXCEPT:
A. DISLOCATION OR SUBLUXATION
B. THE LIMB MAY APPEAR LONGER
C. REDUCTION OF THE MOMENT ARM LENGTH OF THE HIP ABDUCTOR MUSCLES
CONTRIBUTING TO HIP ABDUCTOR WEAKNESS
D. INCREASED LEVERAGE OF THE MUSCLES THAT ATTACH TO THE GREATER TROCHANTER
E. NONE OF THESE
D.
- CONDITIONS RELATED TO AN INCREASE IN FEMORAL ANTEVERSION.
I. INCREASE IN HIP MEDIAL ROTATION
II. INCREASE IN HIP LATERAL ROTATION
III. IN - TOEING
IV LIMITATION OF HIP LATERAL ROTATION
V. OUT-TOEING
A. ALL OF THESE
B. I, II, III
C. I, III AND V
D. II, IV AND V
E. I, III AND IV
E.
- THE HIP JOINT OR ACETABULOFEMORAL ARTICULATION IS А DIARTHRODIAL TRIAXIAL JOINT WITH THREE
DEGREES OF FREEDOM; THE CLOSE – PACKED POSITION OF THE HIP DOES NOT INCLUDE:
A. EXTENSION
B. ABDUCTION
C. MEDIAL ROTATION
D. INTERNAL ROTATION
E. NONE OF THESE
E
- STRONG LIGAMENTS REINFORCE THE HIP JOINT CAPSULE ON ALL SIDES AND ARE NAMED ACCORDING TO
THEIR ATTACHMENT SITES. WHICH OF THESE LIGAMENTS IS/ARE LAX WHEN THE HIP IS FLEXED?
A. ILIOFEMORAL LIGAMENT
B. PUBOFEMORAL LIGAMENT
C. ISCHIOFEMORAL LIGAMENT
D. ALL OF THESE
E. NONE OF THESE
D
- THE ILIOPSOAS IS THE STRONGEST AND MOST CONSISTENT HIP FLEXOR. FUNCTIONS OF THIS MUSCLE
INCLUDE WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
A. TILTS THE PELVIS ANTERIORLY AND FLEXES THE PELVIS ON THE FEMUR
B. TILTS THE PELVIS POSTERIORLY AND FLEXES THE PELVIS ON THE FEMUR
C. TILTS THE PELVIS ANTERIORLY AND EXTENDS THE PELVIS ON THE FEMUR
D. TILTS THE PELVIS POSTERIORLY AND EXTENDS THE PELVIS ON THE FEMUR
A
- THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS ARE TRUE ABOUT THE GLUTEUS MAXIMUS, EXCEPT:
A. IT WORKS AS A FORCE COUPLE WITH THE ABDOMINAL MUSCLES TO POSTERIORLY TILT THE
PELVIS ON THE FEMUR AND FLATTEN THE LUMBAR SPINE, DECREASING LUMBAR LORDOSIS
B. IT WORKS WITH THE THREE HAMSTRING MUSCLES TO EXTEND THE HIP
C. IT IS THE MOST POWERFUL HIP EXTENSOR, REGARDLESS OF KNEE POSITION
D. IN THE PRONE POSITION WITH THE KNEE IN FLEXION, STRONG ACTION IS REQUIRED OF THE
GLUTEUS MAXIMUS TO MOVE THE HIP INTO EXTENSION
E. NONE OF THESE
E
- ACTIONS OF THE GLUTEUS MEDIUS INCLUDE:
I. HIP FLEXION
II. HIP ABDUCTION
III. HIP MEDIAL ROTATION
IV. HIP EXTENSION
A. ALL OF THESE
B. I, II, III
C. I AND III
D. II AND IV
E. ONLY IV
A
THE FEMORAL TRIANGLE IS A TRIANGULAR DEPRESSED AREA SITUATEDD IN THE UPPER PART OF THE MEDIAL
ASPECT OF THE THIGH JUST BELOW THE INGUINAL LIGAMENT. WHICH IS FALSE ABOUT THIS TRIANGLE?
A. THE MEDIAL BOUNDARY IS FORMED B Y THE ADDUCTOR LONGUS
B. THE SUPERIOR BOUNDARY IS FORMED BY THE INGUINAL LIGAMENT
C. THE LATERAL BOUNDARY IS FORMED BY THE SARTORIUS MUSCLE
D. THE FLOOR IS FORMED FROM MEDIAL TO LATERAL BY THE ILIOPSOAS, PECTINEUS, AND THE
ADDUCTOR LONGUS
E. IT CONTAINS THE FEMORAL NERVE, FEMORAL ARTERY, FEMORAL VEIN AND THE DEEP INGUINAL
LYMPH NODES
D
- THE KNEE IS A COMPLEX JOINT WITH THREE BONES, TWO DEGREES OF FREEDOM OF MOTION AND THREE
ARTICULATING SURFACES. ALTHOUGH IT IS THE LARGEST JOINT IN THE BODY, IT IS AMONG THE MORE
FREQUENTLY INJURED JOINTS WITHIN ATHLETIC AND INDUSTRIAL ENVIRONMENT.
A. FIRST STATEMENT IS CORRECT, SECOND STATEMENT IS INCORRECT
B. FIRST STATEMENT IS INCORRECT, SECOND STATEMENT IS CORRECT
C. BOTH STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT
D. BOTH STATEMENTS ARE INCORRECT
C. BOTH STATEMENTS ARE CORRECT
- WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING IS NOT A FUNCTION OF THE PATELLA?
A. CONTRIBUTE TO OVERALL STABILITY OF THE KNEE
B. INCREASE THE TORQUE OF THE KNEE EXTENSORS
C. PROVIDE A SMOOTH GLIDING MECHANISM FOR THE QUADRICEPS MUSCLES AND TENDON
D. CENTRALIZE THE FORCES OF THE FOUR QUADRICEPS MUSCLES INTO ONE CONCERTED
DIRECTION OF PULL
E. TO INCREASE COMPRESSION AND FRICTION FORCES DURING ACTIVITIES SUCH AS DEEP KNEE
BENDS
E.
- THE MENISCI ARE ATTACHED TO THE TIBIA TO DEEPEN THE JOINT’S SOCKET, IMPROVING THE JOINT’S
CONGRUENCY. WHICH OF THESE ATTACHMENTS TO THE MENISCI IS INCORRECT?
A. DEEP FIBERS OF THE MCL ATTACH TO THE MEDIAL MENISCUS
B. THE TENDON OF THE SEMIMEMBRANOSUS MUSCLE SENDS FIBERS TO THE POSTERIOR EDGE OF
THE MEDIAL MENISCUS
C. THE MENISCOFEMORAL LIGAMENT EXTENDS FORM THE MEDIAL MENISCUS TO THE INSIDE OF
THE MEDIAL CONDYLE NEAR THE POSTERIOR CRUCIATE LIGAMENT
D. THE POPLITEUS MUSCLE SENDS FIBERS TO THE POSTERIOR EDGE OF THE LATERAL MENISCUS
E. EACH MENISCUS IS ANCHORED ALONG ITS LATERAL RIM TO THE TIBIA AND JOINT CAPSULE BY A
LOOSE CORONARY LIGAMENT
C
- TRUE ABOUT THE COLLATERAL LIGAMENTS OF THE KNEE:
A. THEY PROVIDE STABILITY IN AN ANTERO-POSTERIOR DIRECTION
B. THEY ARE INTRACAPSULAR AND TAUT IN FULL KNEE EXTENSION
C. THE MEDIAL COLLATERAL LIGAMENT IS THE PRIMARY STRUCTURE PROTECTING THE KNEE
FROM VALGUS FORCE PARTICULARLY IN FLEXION
D. THE LATERAL COLLATERAL LIGAMENT ASSISTS IN PROVIDING VARUS STRESS PROTECTION
MORE IN FULL EXTENSION
E. ALL OF THESE
C
- WHICH OF THESE STATEMENTS IS INCORRECT ABOUT THE PCL?
A. THE PCL IS THICKER AND STRONGER COMPARED TO THE ACL
B. THE PCL IS INTRACAPSULAR BUT EXTRASYNOVIAL
C. IN CLOSED CHAIN MOTION IT HELPS PREVENT ANTERIOR DISPLACEMENT OF THE FEMORAL
CONDYLES ON THE TIBIAL CONDYLES
D. SEVERANCE OF THE PCL ALLOWS POSTERIOR DISPLACEMENT OF THE FEMUR ON THE TIBIA
E. NONE OF THESE
D.
- TERMINAL ROTATION OF THE KNEE OR THE SCREW HOME MECHANISM IS PURELY A MECHANICAL EVENT THAT
OCCURS WITH BOTH PASSIVE AND ACTIVE KNEE EXTENSION AND CANNOT BE PRODUCED OR PREVENTED
VOLUNTARILY. IN RISING FROM A CHAIR, TERMINAL ROTATION OCCURS IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING?
A. MEDIAL ROTATION OF THE FEMUR, CKC
B. MEDIAL ROTATION OF THE TIBIA, CKC
C. LATERAL ROTATION OF THE FEMUR, CKC
D. LATERAL ROTATION OF THE TIBIA, OKC
E. LATERAL ROTATION OF THE FEMUR, OKC
A.
- TRUE ABOUT Q ANGLE, EXCEPT:
A. WOMEN HAVE BEEN SHOWN TO HAVE CONSISTENTLY LARGER Q ANGLES THAN MEN
B. Q ANGLES MAY BE LARGER IN THOSE INDIVIDUALS WHO EXPERIENCE PATELLOFEMORAL PAIN
SYNDROME
C. IT IS THE ANGLE CREATED BY DRAWING A LINE FROM THE ASIS TO THE CENTER OF THE
PATELLA AND EXTENDING ANOTHER INTERSECTING LINE FROM THE TIBIAL TUBEROSITY TO THE
CENTER OF THE PATELLA UPWARD
D. AN EXCESSIVE Q ANGLE IS REFERRED TO AS GENU VARUM OR BOWLEG
E. NONE OF THESE
D.
- THE QUADRICEPS FEMORIS MUSCLE GROUP EXTENDS THE KNEE AND INCLUDES FOUR MUSCLES. HOWEVER,
THERE IS A PORTION OF THE MUSCLE THAT DOES NOT FUNCTION IN KNEE EXTENSION BUT SERVES ONLY AS A
PATELLAR STABILIZER. IDENTIFY THIS MUSCLE.
A. RECTUS FEMORIS
B. VASTUS LATERALIS
C. VASTUS MEDIALIS LONGUS
D. VASTUS MEDIALIS OBLIQUE
E. VASTUS INTERMEDIUS
D.
- TRUE ABOUT THE HAMSTRING MUSCLE TORQUE, EXCEPT:
I. THE GREATEST TORQUE ORCUS WHEN MUSCLES ARE ELONGATED AT BOTH THE HIP AND KNEE
(HIP FLEXION AND KNEE EXTENSION)
II. THE LOWEST TORQUE OCCURS WHEN THE MUSCLE CONTRACT IN ITS SHORTENED POSITION OF
THE HIP EXTENSION AND KNEE FLEXION
III. THE PEAK TORQUE OF THE QUADRICEPS MUSCLES ARE GREATER THAN THOSE OF THE KNEE
FLEXORS
IV. KNEE FLEXION COMBINED WITH HIP FLEXION RESULTS IN FAVORABLE LENGTH-TENSION
RELATIONS AND EFFICIENCY OF TORQUE PRODUCTION OF HAMSTRINGS
A. ALL OF THESE
B. I, II AND III
C. I AND III
D. II AND IV
E. NONE OF THESE
E.
WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING STATEMENTS DOES NOT APPLY CORRECTLY TO THE PRETIBIAL GROUP?
A. THE TIBIALIS ANTERIOR IS THE PRIMARY DORSIFLEXOR OF THE ANKLE
B. THE TIBIALIS ANTERIOR IS ALSO AN INVERTER OF THE FOOT AND PLAYS AN IMPORTANT ROLE
DURING THE STANCE PHASE OF GAIT
C. THE PRETIBIAL GROUP ALSO MOVES THE FOOT AND TOES IN MANY IMPORTANT OPEN CHAIN
MOTIONS
D. OPEN CHAIN MOTIONS OF THE FOOT REQUIRE LITTLE MUSCLE FORCE BECAUSE THE MUSCLES
HAVE GOOD LEVERAGE
E. NONE OF THESE
E. NONE OF THESE
THE GASTROCNEMIUS AND SOLEUS BELONG TO THE SUPERFICIAL POSTERIOR GROUP OF THE LEG. THESE
TWO MUSCLES TOGETHER ARE ALSO CALLED THE TRICEPS SURAE. THE FOLLOWING DESCRIPTIONS ARE
CORRECT, EXCEPT:
A. THE SOLEUS HAS BEEN FOUND TO CONTAIN A HIGHER PROPORTION OF SLOW TWITCH MUSCLE
FIBERS THAN THE GASTROCNEMIUS
B. THE SOLEUS IS MORE CONCERNED WITH STABILIZATION AT THE ANKLE AND CONTROL OF
POSTURAL SWAY THAN IS THE GASTROCNEMIUS
C. THE GASTROCNEMIUS AND SOLEUS ARE BOTH INVOLVED IN ACTIVITIES REQUIRING FORCEFUL
PLANTARFLEXION OF THE ANKLE
D. WHEN THE GASTROCNEMIUS-SOLEUS GROUP IS PARALYZED, THE INDIVIDUAL CANNOT RISE ON
TIPTOES AND GAIT IS SEVERELY AFFECTED
E. NONE OF THESE
E. NONE OF THESE
- WHICH OF THESE LIGAMENTS STABILIZE THE ANKLE DURING EVERSION TO PROTECT AGAINST VALGUS
STRESSES TO THE TALOCRURAL, SUBTALAR, AND TALONAVICULAR JOINTS?
A. ANTERIOR TIBIOFIBULAR LIGAMENTS
B. TIBIOCALCANEAL LIGAMENTS
C. TIBIONAVICULAR LIGAMENTS
D. POSTERIOR TIBIOFIBULAR LIGAMENTS
E. ALL OF THESE
E. ALL OF THESE
- TIBIOFIBULAR LATERAL ROTATION HAPPENS IN WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING FOOT MOTIONS?
A. SUPINATION, WEIGHT-BEARING
B. SUPINATION, NON-WEIGHT BEARING
C. PRONATION, WEIGHT BEARING
D. PRONATION, NON-WEIGHT BEARING
A. SUPINATION, WEIGHT-BEARING
- THE CALCANEUS IS A BONY COMPONENT OF WHICH OF THE FOLLOWING ARCHES OF THE FOOT?
A. MEDIAL LONGITUDINAL ARCH
B. LATERAL LONGITUDINAL ARCH
C. TRANSVERSE ARCH
D. A AND B
E. ALL OF THESE
D. A AND B
- THE FOOT HAS THE SAME INTRINSIC MUSCLES AS THE HAND. THE DESCRIPTIONS GIVEN BELOW ARE
CORRECT ABOUT THE INSTRINSIC MUSCLES, EXCEPT:
A. FOUR LAYERS OF INTRINSIC MUSCLES ARE ON THE PLANTAR SURFACE OF THE FOOT
B. THE EXTENSOR DIGITORUM BREVIS AND EXTENSION HALLUCIS BREVIS ARE THE ONLY INTRINSIC
MUSCLES ON THE DORSUM OF THE FOOT
C. THE INTRINSIC MUSCLES ARE USED MAINLY FOR STABILITY OR BALANCE AND FOR PROVIDING
SUPPORT AND ASSISTANCE TO THE FOOT DURING ACTIVITY
D. THE NERVE SUPPLY OF ALL THE INTRINSIC MUSCLES OF THE FOOT COME FROM THE LATERAL
PLANTAR NERVE, A TERMINAL BRANCH OF THE TIBIAL NERVE
E. NONE OF THESE
D. THE NERVE SUPPLY OF ALL THE INTRINSIC MUSCLES OF THE FOOT COME FROM THE LATERAL
PLANTAR NERVE, A TERMINAL BRANCH OF THE TIBIAL NERVE
- IN THIS FOOT DEFORMITY THE MEDIAL BORDER OF THE FOOT IS OFF THE GROUND SO THE BODY WEIGHT IS
TRANSFERRED TO THE OUTSIDE OF THE FOOT
A. PES CAVUS
B. CLUBFOOT
C. PES PLANUS
D. HALLUX VALGUS
E. A AND B
E. A AND B
- The fluids outside and inside the cell is important to maintain the homeostasis. Which of the
following is true about extracellular fluids and intracellular fluids?
a. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, chloride ions. The
extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions
b. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, sodium. The extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and phosphate ions
c. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The
extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions
d. NOTA
c. The intracellular fluids contain large amount of potassium, magnesium, phosphate ions. The
extracellular contain sodium, bicarbonate ions and chloride ions
Which of the following describes the positive feedback?
a. Most common feedback in the body
b. this type of feedback triggers when some factors of the body is deficient or excessive
c. Vicious cycle
d. changes that return the factor toward certain mean value
c. Vicious cycle
- All of the following describe the organelles, Except
a. Little organs in the cytoplasm
b. subcellular structures specialized for specific functions such as manufacturing proteins
or producing ATP
c. Organelles can be thought of as individual workstations within the cell, each
responsible for performing specific tasks
d. NOTA
d. NOTA
- Simple Diffusion and facilitated diffusion share which of the following characteristics?
a. Can be blocked by specific inhibitors
b. Do not require ATP
c. Require transport protein
d. Saturation kinetics
b. Do not require ATP
- Which of the following describes the diffusion?
I. Diffusion through the cell membrane is divided into two subtypes, called simple
diffusion and facilitated diffusion
II. Simple Diffusion means that kinetic movement of molecules or ions through a
membrane opening or through intermolecular spaces without any interaction with
carrier proteins in the membrane
III. Facilitated diffusion requires interaction of a carrier protein.
IV. The carrier protein in facilitated diffusion aids passage of the molecules or ions
through the membrane by binding chemically with them.
a. I,II,III
b. I,II,III
c. I,II,III,IV
d. Only I
c. I,II,III,IV
- _________ migration of each set of chromosomes is complete. The chromosomes unravel to
become less distinct chromatin threads. The nuclear envelope forms from the endoplasmic
reticulum. The nucleoli form, and cytokinesis continues to produce two cells.
a. Prophase
b. Metaphase
c. Anaphase
d. Telophase
d. Telophase
- All of the following describes about the Blood, EXCEPT:
a. Type of connective tissue consisting of a liquid matrix containing cells and cell fragments
b. Plasma is the liquid matrix
c. The formed elements make up 45% of the total blood volume
d. Blood makes up about 55% of the total weight of the body.
d. Blood makes up about 55% of the total weight of the body.
- Erythropoietin
a. inhibits the production of red blood cells.
b. production increases when blood oxygen decreases.
c. production is inhibited by testosterone.
d. All of these are correct.
b. production increases when blood oxygen decreases.
- Whenever a vessel is severed or ruptured, hemostasis is achieved by several mechanisms. All of
the following describes the hemostasis, EXCEPT
a. Vascular constriction
b. Formation of a platelet plug formation
c. In this mechanism there is activation of all clotting factors
d. NOTA
d. NOTA
- Each muscle fiber contains several hundred to several thousands_________
a. myofilament
b. myofibrils
c. muscle fiber
d. fascicle
b. myofibrils
- All of the following are true about the skeletal muscle fiber, EXCEPT
a. A cross-bridge forms when the myosin binds to the actin.
b. muscle fiber is a single cell consisting of a plasma membrane (sarcolemma), cytoplasm
(sarcoplasm), several nuclei, and myofibrils
c. Sarcomeres are bound by Z disks that hold actin myofilaments.
d. NOTA
d. NOTA
- Which of the following describe the muscle fibers?
a. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for maintaining the posture. Fast
oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast
Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is low.
b. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for sprinting and walking. Fast
oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast
Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is low.
c. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for maintaining the posture. Fast
oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast
Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is high.
d. NOTA
a. Slow twitch fibers are small rich in myoglobin and responsible for maintaining the posture. Fast
oxidative glycolytic fibers use aerobic and anaerobic cellular respiration in creating ATP. Fast
Glycolytic fibers are large in diameter and resistance to fatigue is low.
- The membrane becomes permeable to sodium ions, allowing tremendous numbers of
positively charged ions to flow to the interior of the axon. The normal polarized state is lost.
a. Resting Stage
b. Depolarization stage
c. Repolarization stage
d. AOTA
b. Depolarization stage
- Iron ions are actively absorb in the
a. large intestine
b. small intestine
c. stomach
d. pancreas
b. small intestine
- Sacral pain occurs when _________ is stimulated such as during a bowel movement or when
passing a gas and relieved after each of these events
a. Stomach
b. Rectum
c. Esophagus
d. Small intestine
b. Rectum
- Which of the following are true about Disaccharide?
a. Compose of two monosaccharide unit
b. Compose of two polysaccharides
c. molecules of the monosaccharides glucose and fructose combine to form a molecule of the
disaccharide lactose
d. molecules of the monosaccharides
a. Compose of two monosaccharide unit
- Stimulate the release of Aldosterone
a. A II
b. Renin
c. Angiotensinogen
d. ANP
a. A II
- All of the following are true about the nephron, EXCEPT
I. proximal tubular membranes are highly permeable to water
II. As fluid flows down the descending loop of Henle, water is absorbed into the cortex
III. The thin ascending limb is essentially impermeable to water but reabsorbs some sodium
chloride
IV. The thick part of the ascending loop of Henle is also virtually impermeable to water, but large
amounts of sodium, chloride, potassium, and other ions are actively transported from the
tubule into the medullary interstitium
V. The concentration of fluid in the medullary collecting ducts also depends on ADH
a. II,III,IV
b. II,III
c. Only IV
d. Only II
e. NOTA
d. Only II
- urine formation begins with
a. tubular secretion
b. tubular reabsorption
c. glomerular filtration
d. AOTA
c. glomerular filtration
- Place the route of blood flow through the kidney in the correct order:
I. Renal Artery, II. Segmental Artery
III. Interlobar Artery
IV. Interlobular Artery
V. Afferent Arterioles
VI. Peritubular Capillaries
VII. Efferent Arterioles
VIII. Arcuate Arterioles
IX. Glomerular Capillaries
a. I, II, III, VIII, IV, V, IX, VII, VI
b. I, II, III, VIII, V, IV, IX, VII, VI
c. I, II, III, VII, IV, V, IX, VIII, VI
d. I, II, III, VIII, IV, VI, IX, VII, V
a. I, II, III, VIII, IV, V, IX, VII, VI
- Which of the following describe the Pituitary Gland?
a. lies in the sella turcica, a bony cavity at the base of the brain, and is connected to the
hypothalamus by the pituitary (or hypophysial) stalk.
b. secretes two major hormones, thyroxine and triiodothyronine, commonly called T4 and T3, respectively.
c. composed of two major parts, the adrenal medulla and the adrenal cortex
d. AOTA
a. lies in the sella turcica, a bony cavity at the base of the brain, and is connected to the
hypothalamus by the pituitary (or hypophysial) stalk.
The Zona Fasciculata
a. secretes the glucocorticoids cortisol
b. the inner zone of the cortex, secretes the adrenal androgens
c. capable of secreting significant amounts of aldosterone
d. AOTA
a. secretes the glucocorticoids cortisol
- this gland contains parafollicular cells that secrete calcitonin, a hormone that contributes to
regulation of plasma calcium ion concentration
a. Adrenal Gland
b. Parathyroid gland
c. Pituitary gland
d. Thyroid gland
d. Thyroid gland
- composed of two major types of tissues, the acini, which secrete digestive juices into the
duodenum, and the islets of Langerhans, which secrete insulin and glucagon directly into the
blood. a. Adrenal gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Pancreas
d. Adenohypohpysis
c. Pancreas
- Excess activity of this gland causes rapid release of calcium salts from the bones, with resultant
hypercalcemia in the extracellular fluid
a. Parathyroid gland
b. Thyroid gland
c. Adrenal gland
d. Anterior pituitary gland
a. Parathyroid gland
- This test is used to assess the integrity of hearing using a tuning fork. The
base of the fork is place at the midline vertex of the skull. Patient must hear
the vibration equally on both ears.
a. Weber
b. Schwabach
c. Rine
d. Ticking watch
a. Weber
- What is the resting position of the temporomandibular joint?
a. Mouth slightly open, lips together, teeth not in contact
b. Clenched teeth
c. Limitation in mouth opening
d. None of these
a. Mouth slightly open, lips together, teeth not in contact
- The following vital sign values are normal for an adult, except:
a. Blood pressure of 110/70 mmhg
b. Respiratory rate of 18 cpm
c. Pulse rate of 69 bpm
d. Temperature of 39.9 degrees celcius
d. Temperature of 39.9 degrees celcius
- This type of end feel occurs sooner or later in the ROM than is usual, or in a
joint that normally has a firm or hard end. This may feel boggy with fluid shift
a. Springy
b. Empty
c. Hard
d. Soft
d. Soft
- Which of the following is widely considered the MOST accurate body composition
assessment?
a. hydrostatic weighing
b. eyeballing method
c. electrical impedance
d. anthropometric measurements
a. hydrostatic weighing
- All of the following are functional test for geriatric patients, EXCEPT:
a. Performance oriented Mobility assessment
b. Get up and go test
c. Functional reach test
d. Dynamic gait index
e. None of these
e. None of these
- A first degree ligament sprain is described as ____.
a. Minimal pain and swelling
b. Protective bracing indicated
c. Structural instability
d. Pain that interferes with exercise
a. Minimal pain and swelling
- Which special test is used to rule in bicipital tendinitis?
a. Yergason and Speed
b. Phalen’s Test
c. Finkelstein Test
d. Neer and Hawkins’
e. Crank Test
a. Yergason and Speed
- All of the following are provocative tests performed in the cervical area,
except:
a. Jackson Compression Test
b. Scalene Cramp Test
c. Pettman’s distraction Test
d. Spurling’s Test
c. Pettman’s distraction Test
- The patient requires moderate assistance and expends 50-75 % of the effort.
What is the patient’s FIM level?
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
b. 3
- Which score is applicable when there is a slight increase in muscle tone,
manifested by a catch followed by a minimal resistance throughout the remainder
of the range of motion
a. 1
b. 1+
c. 2
d. 2+
e. 3
b. 1+
- This is a specific classification for epiphyseal plate fractures
a. Salter Harris
b. Garden
c. Gustillo Anderson
d. Le Fort
a. Salter Harris
- Lifting a 20 kg weight with the back straight and knees bent constitutes how
much percentage in disc pressure at L3?
a. 150
b. 73
c. 169
d. 40
b. 73
- This reflex is elicited by flicking the terminal phalanx of the index, middle
or ring finger. A positive sign indicates increased irritability of sensory
nerves in tetany and pathology in the pyramidal tract
a. Rossolimo
b. Schaeffer
c. Piotrowski
d. Hoffman
d. Hoffman
- An active medial hamstrings reflex would mean an intact ____ segments
a. L5-S1
b. L4-L5
c. S2-S3
d. S1-S2
a. L5-S1
- For the Chaddock’s test to rule in as positive, what response should be
observed?
a. Big toe extension and fanning of the toes
b. Big toe extension only
c. Fanning of the toes with big toe flexion
d. Big toe extension and opposition of the toes
a. Big toe extension and fanning of the toes
- A burning, pressure-like pain may arise from which of the following structure?
a. Nerve root
b. Nerve
c. Sympathetic Nerve
d. Cranial Nerve
c. Sympathetic Nerve
- Which grade would describe a muscle test that can perform complete range of
motion against gravity with minimal resistance?
a. 3
b. 3+
c. 3-
d. 4
b. 3+
- What is the normal range of flexion of the distal interphalangeal joints?
a. 90 degrees
b. 100 degrees
c. 150 degrees
d. 180 degrees
a. 90 degrees
- This tests the structures around the PIP joint. The proximal interphalangeal
joint is held in a neutral position while the DIP is flexed by the examiner. If
the DIP joint does not flex, the retinacular ligaments or the PIP capsule are
taut. If PIP joint is flexed and DIP is flexed easily, the retinacular ligaments
are taut and the capsule is normal.
a. Haines-Zancolli Test
b. Bunnel Littler Test
c. Sweater Finger Sign
d. Froment Sign
a. Haines-Zancolli Test
- This special test is performed by the examiner locating the radial pulse and
applies downward traction on the test extremity with the patient’s neck
hyperextended and head is rotated on the opposite side. Absence or disappearance
of pulse indicates thoracic outlet syndrome.
a. EAST test
b. Military Brace Test
c. Adson test
d. Halstead
e. Allen’s Test
d. Halstead
- This test is also known as the Lasegue’s Test
a. Upper limb tension
b. Prone knee bending test
c. Slump test
d. Straight leg raising test
d. Straight leg raising test
- Wagner classification which describes partial foot or forefoot gangrene
a. Grade 1
b. Grade 2
c. Grade 3
d. Grade 4
d. Grade 4
- A special test for upper motor neuron lesion where it assesses patient’s
balance. As the patient stands with eyes closed the examiner notes for postural
sway. A positive test indicates which of the following?
a. Romberg’s Test
b. Barre-Lieou test
c. Brudzinski-Kernig test
d. Marcus Gunn pupil
a. Romberg’s Test
- The parasympathetic outflow originating from the S2 to S4 spinal segments is primarily responsible for mediating
reflexogenic erection. The sympathetic output is primarily responsible for regulating ejaculation and psychogenic
component of penile erection.
a. Both statements are correct
b. Both statements are incorrect
c. First statement is correct, second statement is incorrect
d. First statement is incorrect, second statement is correct
a. Both statements are correct
- The following statements are true about location of lesions in visual field defects, EXCEPT:
a. Lesion to the right optic tract will manifest as left homonymous hemianopsia
b. Lesion to the optic radiation in the right temporal lobe will manifest as left superior quarantanopsia
c. Lesion to the optic radiation in the right parietal lobe will manifest as left inferior quarantanopsia
d. Lesion to the optic chiasm caused by pituitary tumor will manifest as bitemporal hemianopsia
e. None of these
e. None of these
- The following statements are true regarding the cranial nerves innervating the extraocular muscles, EXCEPT:
i. The oculomotor nerve provides innervation to the superior, inferior, medial recti, and the inferior oblique muscles
of the eye.
ii. The lateral rectus muscle is supplied by the abducens nerve
iii. An isolated lesion of the trochlear nerve results in vertical diplopia
iv. Lesion at the midbrain will result to inability of the eyes to move downward
a. All of these
b. I, II and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. None of these
e. None of these
- True about the trigeminal nerve, EXCEPT:
a. It is a mixed nerve supplying the muscles of mastication and divides into three major branches, ophthalmic,
maxillary, and mandibular.
b. Mediates the reflex arc in the jaw reflex involving the masseter and temporalis muscles
c. If the motor root of the trigeminal nerve is injured, paralysis occurs in the tensor tympani, mylohyoid and
anterior belly of the digastric.
d. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the trigeminal nerve
e. None of these
d. Taste impulses from the anterior 2/3 of the tongue is mediated by the trigeminal nerve
- The following statements are correct concerning the facial nerve:
i. The muscles of facial expression including the buccinator is supplied by the facial nerve
ii. It supplies the stylohyoid, posterior belly of the digastric muscles of the neck and the stapedius muscles of the
middle ear
iii. It emerges as two roots from the anterior surface of the hindbrain between the pons and the medulla oblongata
iv. Injury to the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen will result in facial palsy, hyperacusis, impaired lacrimation
and loss of taste on anterior 2/3 of the tongue.
v. Lesion of the facial nerve at the stylomastoid foramen presents with inability to close the eye on the side of the
paralysis
a. All of these
b. I, II and III
c. I, II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and V
e. I, III and V
d. I, II, III and V
- The vagus nerve is the great parasympathetic nerve that innervates the thorax and the abdomen. These statements
correctly describe this nerve, EXCEPT:
i. Stimulation of the vagus nerve may result to vasodilation and bradycardia
ii. Branches from the vagus nerve supply the intrinsic muscles of the larynx
iii. Dysphagia, dysphonia and regurgitation of food into the nose on swallowing is a result of bilateral lesion to this
nerve
iv. In testing for phonation by having the patient say “AH”, deviation of the uvula to the right suggests involvement
of the right vagus nerve
a. I and IV
b. II and IV
c. All of these
d. None of these
e. Only IV
e. Only IV
- True about spinal nerve, EXCEPT:
a. There are 31 pairs of spinal nerves
b. There are 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar and 5 sacral and 1 coccygeal pairs of spinal nerves
c. While there are eight nerves that exit the cervical spine, there are only seven cervical vertebrae
d. The first thoracic spinal nerve exits below the first thoracic vertebra
e. None of these
e. None of these
- One pair of spinal nerves supply a strip-like area of skin known as a dermatome. The following descriptions are
correct, EXCEPT:
i. The middle finger is supplied by the C7 dermatome
ii. The fourth thoracic segment is at the nipple level
iii. The L3 neurologic level spans the anterior thigh immediately at and above the knee joint
iv. The umbilicus is at T10 level
v. The anterior neck and upper shoulders are innervated by the cervical plexus largely by C3
a. All of these
b. I, II, III and IV
c. II, III, IV and V
d. Only V
e. None of these
d. Only V
- The following are key muscles represented by the C5, C6 myotomes
i. Biceps
ii. ECRL
iii. ECRB
iv. ECU
v. FCR
a. All of these
b. I, II and III
c. I, II, III and IV
d. I, II, III and V
e. II, III, IV and V
b. I, II and III
- A patient with a diagnosis of cervical radiculopathy reports numbness of the right little finger. The therapist will most
likely find a diminished tendon reflex in:
a. Deltoid
b. Brachioradialis
c. Biceps brachii
d. Triceps
d. Triceps
- Which of these structures arise from the prosencephalon?
i. Cerebral cortex
ii. Basal ganglia
iii. Thalamus
iv. Hypothalamus
a. All of these
b. I, II and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. None of these
a. All of these
- Lobes of the brain concerned with memory
i. Temporal
ii. Frontal
iii. Limbic
iv. Occipital
a. All of these
b. I, II and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. Only IV
a. All of these
- The prefrontal cortex is represented by brodmann’s area:
a. 6
b. 8
c. 3, 1, 2
d. 9, 10, 11, 12
e. 4
d. 9, 10, 11, 12
- A patient with left hemiplegia is expected with the following manifestations, EXCEPT:
i. Hemineglect
ii. Ideomotor apraxia
iii. Impaired insight and judgment
iv. Broca’s aphasia
a. All of these
b. I, II and IV
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. Only IV
d. II and IV
- Patient is non-fluent, has good repetition and excellent comprehension:
a. Broca’s aphasia
b. Wernicke’s aphasia
c. Anomic aphasia
d. Global aphasia
e. Transcortical aphasia
e. Transcortical aphasia
- To examine a patient with suspected deficit in barognosis, the therapist should ask the patient to shut his/her eyes
and identify:
a. Different objects placed in the hand and palpated
b. A series of letters traced in the hand
c. Differently weighed, identically shaped cylinders placed in the hand
d. The vibrations of a tuning fork when placed on a bony prominence
c. Differently weighed, identically shaped cylinders placed in the hand
- A patient who exhibits a slow, involuntary continuous writhing movements has a lesion in what area of the brain?
a. Cerebral cortex
b. Anterior limb of internal capsule
c. Basal ganglia
d. Corpus callosum
e. None of these
c. Basal ganglia
- Stimulation of the anterior hypothalamus causes all of the following, EXCEPT:
i. Sweating
ii. Increased respiration
iii. Cutaneous vasodilation
iv. Shivering
a. All of these
b. I, II and III
c. I and III
d. Only IV
e. None of these
d. Only IV
- The vomiting center is found in what part of the brain?
a. Midbrain
b. Cerebral cortex
c. Cerebellum
d. Basal ganglia
e. Medulla oblongata
e. Medulla oblongata
- Functional limitations observed in patients with cerebellar dysfunction may include the following, EXCEPT:
i. Dysmetria
ii. Gait ataxia
iii. Fatigability and weakness
iv. Hypertonicity
v. Resting tremor
a. All of these
b. I, II, III and IV
c. III and IV
d. IV and V
e. None of these
d. IV and V
- Cavities within the brain filled with cerebrospinal fluid:
a. Subarachnoid space
b. Ventricles
c. Meninges
d. Sinuses
b. Ventricles
- This artery gives rise to the tiny ophthalmic artery which accompanies the optic nerve and the anterior and middle
cerebral arteries that supply most of the cerebral hemispheres:
a. External carotid artery
b. Internal carotid artery
c. Common carotid artery
d. Vertebrobasilar artery
e. Subclavian artery
b. Internal carotid artery
- The following statements are true about the spinal cord, EXCEPT:
i. The spinal cord in the adult ends inferiorly at the lower border of the first lumbar vertebra
ii. The normal diameter of the spinal cord is 10-15mm
iii. The normal length of the spinal cord is between 42-45 cm
iv. The tip of the spinal cord is attached to the coccyx via leptomeninx
a. All of these
b. I, II and III
c. None of these
d. II and IV
e. Only IV
c. None of these
- The following are true of upper motor neurons, EXCEPT:
i. Synonymous to corticospinal tract
ii. Completely contained within the central nervous system
iii. Synapse directly on alpha, beta and gamma motor neurons in the spinal cord and cranial nerve nuclei
iv. Lesion results to exaggerated deep tendon reflexes
v. Provide final direct link with muscles through myoneural junctions
a. All of these
b. I, II, III and IV
c. III, IV and V
d. none of these
e. only V
e. only V
- The dorsal column-medial lemniscal pathway is responsible for the following sensations:
i. Stereognosis
ii. Two-point discrimination
iii. Precise localization
iv. Fine intensity gradiations
a. All of these
b. I, II and III
c. I and III
d. II and IV
e. None of these
a. All of these
- What reflex is the latest to persist?
a. STNR
b. ATNR
c. Moro
d. Parachute
d. Parachute
What will be the response when you elicit ATNR on a spastic hemiplegic patient?
a. Extend
b. Fully extend
c. Slight flexion
d. No flexion
a. Extend