Final Flashcards

1
Q

Characteristics of anaphylaxis include:

A

wheezes and widespread vasodilation

Skin:
pruritus
flushing
hives
angioedema
Respiratory:
dyspnea
wheezes-lower airway
stridor-upperairway
hypoxemia

Blood pressure:
syncope
incontinence

GI:
vomiting
diarrhea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Hypernatremia is found in patients experiencing, what?

A

DKA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

At what age are fontanelles fused together?

A

24 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Barotrauma is caused when?

A

BVM ventilations are too forceful

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Infant reflexes

A

Moro reflex - baby caught off guard and spread arms out wide

Palmar reflex - when something is put in baby’s palm and the baby grabs it

rooting reflex - when baby’s cheek is touched a baby will turn towards it

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the “low normal” glucose level in newborns?

A

45mg/dL

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

Asymmetry of the face could indicate?

A

facial nerve palsy or stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Bilateral dependent edema would likely present in patients with what condition?

A

Heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Patient-provider communication

A

interpretation - restating what you think the patient is trying to say

reflection - repeating a word or phrase

facilitation - having patient provide more information

clarification - having patient elaborate on swhat they mean

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Protocols

A

treatment plan for specific illness or injury

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

standing orders

A

a type of protocol written by medical director outlining directions regarding patient care

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

Hormonal effects of flight or fight can affect a paramedics response by

A

diminishing their ability to concentrate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

Signs and symptoms of foreign body airway obstruction may cause

A

stridor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

A brief pause between the P wave and QRS complex represents:

A

A momentary delay in the conduction of the AV node

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

An electrical impulse in the AV node is slightly delayed so that:

A

the atria can empty into the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

A gastric tube is most useful for:

A

decompressing the stomach and decreasing pressure on the diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Differences between hard suction and a whistle-tip

A

hard suction is used for larger objects and don’t bend, whistles-tip suctions can be placed down an ET tube

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Anisocoria is when:

A

the pupils are unequal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Anisocoria is when:

A

the pupils are unequal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

In contrast to somatic pain, visceral pain is:

A

difficult to localize

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Release of glucagon in the blood stream stimulates:

A

the liver to convert glucagon into glucose

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

In contract to cellular immunity, humoral immunity:

A

involves the use of antibodies released into the blood stream to fight off invading organisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Common signs and symptoms of TB include all of the following, EXCEPT:

a. persistent cough
b. weight loss
c. photophobia
d. hemoptysis

A

photophobia

24
Q

Hypoventilating patients become:

A

hypercapneic and acidotic

25
Q

The left main artery subdivides into:

A

Left anterior descending and circumflex artery

26
Q

Symptoms of Bell Palsy

A

a temporary paralysis of the facial nerve, ptosis

27
Q

Decerebrate posturing:

A

is more severe than decorticate posturing, it means that damage is in or near the brainstem

28
Q

A child presents with deep “croup-like cough” with DB and a fever. You should suspect:

A

Tracheitis

29
Q

Glaucoma is caused by

A

increased interocular pressure

30
Q

In contract to the right side of the heart, the left side of the heart:

A

drives the blood out of the heart against a relatively high resistance of systemic circulation

31
Q

A sudden onset of discomfort in the throat, severe dysphagia, vomiting bright red blood are signs indicative of:

A

ruptured esophageal varices

32
Q

A patient with unilateral eyelid droop when smiling may have:

A

Bell palsy

33
Q

Arteriovenous fistulas are typically located in the:

A

forearm or upper arm

34
Q

Uterine prolapse often causes:

A

heaviness sensation in the pelvis and lower back pain

35
Q

Signs and symptoms of ruptured ovarian cysts include:

A

sudden onset of abdominal pain related to menstrual cycle

36
Q

The amount of blood returned to the heart is called:

A

preload

37
Q

Earliest signs of hemorrhagic shock would be:

A

tachycardia

38
Q

Supraglottic damage following a burn is most often caused by:

A

inhalation of superheated gases

39
Q

The purpose of estimating a patients total body surface area for the hospital is to:

A

help the paramedic determine which hospital is most appropiate

40
Q

The purpose of estimating a patients total body surface area for the hospital is to:

A

help the paramedic determine which hospital is most appropriate

41
Q

Proper treatment for an open wound to the neck would be:

A

seal the wound with an occlusive dressing

42
Q

Hyperventilation of a brain-injured patient may cause:

A

shunts oxygen away from the brain and may cause decreased cerebral perfusion pressure

43
Q

What do the spleen and liver have in common:

A

They are highly vascular and cause severe bleeding when injured

44
Q

A patient with DKA experience polydipsia as a result of:

A

dehydration

45
Q

The release of glucagon in the bloodstream stimulate:

A

the liver to convert glucagon into glucose

46
Q

Anemia results from:

A

iron deficiency

47
Q

Where are platelets produced and where are they stored?

A

Produced in bone marrow and stored in the spleen

48
Q

Difference between upper and lower airway obstructions as it pertains to lung sounds.

A

Upper airway obstruction = stridor

lower airway obstruction = wheezes

49
Q

Sickle cell

A

Misshapen blood cells, resulting in poor oxygen-carrying capability and potentially resulting in lodging of the red blood cells in blood vessels or the spleen causing pain

50
Q

Reason for corticosteroids for an allergic reaction would be:

A

to prevent late-stage anaphylactic reactions

51
Q

Kyphosis is characterized by

A

hunchback appearance

52
Q

Viruses are defined as:

A

Germs that require a living host to multiply and survive.

53
Q

Bacteria is defined as:

A

do not require a host to multiply and live.

route of infection would be inhalation, cutaneous, or GI tract

54
Q

Neurotoxins are:

A

The most deadly substances known to humans

55
Q

Following the administration of haloperidol, a patient becomes rigid and extremely restless. You should suspect?

A

Extrapyradimal reactions

56
Q

Unlike dermal exposure to a strong acid, dermal exposure to a strong alkali,

A

requires longer irrigation time with water because alkali’s are less soluble in water