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The “IV” League > ECS Midterm > Flashcards

ECS Midterm Flashcards

What to know and love

1
Q

Advocacy

A

Advocating for the patients being treated and changes in the EMS system that will improve care or save lives

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2
Q

Empathy

A

identify and understand their feelings

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3
Q

Sympathy

A

feeling bad for someone else’s misfortune

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4
Q

Protocol

A

a treatment plan developed for a specific illness or injury

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5
Q

Exercise programs (pg 41)

A

have been shown to improve sleep, mental capacity, ability to cope with stress, sex life, and overall long-term health: aim to improve or maintiain flexibility, endurance and strength

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6
Q

Calculate Max HR (pg 41)

A

220 - age

220 - 20 = 200 Max HR

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7
Q

Calculate Target HR (pg 41)

A

(max HR) x [(0.5) x (0.69)]

ie. 220 - 20 = 200 Max HR
(200) x [(0.5) x (0.69)] = Target HR

200 x 0.5 = 100
200 x 0.69 = 138

100 to 138 = Target HR

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8
Q

Safe lifting techniques

A

minimize body lifts, coordinate lifts prior to performing, minimize amount of weight being lifted, never lift with back, don’t carry what can be put on wheels, ask for help

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9
Q

Hand washing

A

wash hands vigorously with soap and water for 20 seconds

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10
Q

Eustress (positive stress) or motivational stress (pg 53)

A

The kind of stress that motivates a reason to achieve

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11
Q

Distress (negative stress) (pg 53)

A

The stress that a person finds overwhelming and debilitating

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12
Q

Acute Stress reactions (pg 55)

A

The ability to handle and increase your focus in that moment or not

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13
Q

Delayed stress reactions (pg 55)

A

The ability to handle a stressful event but then the effects of stress happen after the event

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14
Q

Cumulative stress reactions (pg55)

A

the accumulation of smaller stress events that add up. Most commonly known to be negative stress in nature.

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15
Q

What physiologic/psychologic signs and symptoms happen when stress goes unrecognized?

A
  • physiologic reactions may cause heart disease, hypertension, cancer, alcoholism, and depression.
    • psychologic reactions may be fear, dull behavior, depression, anger and irritability.
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16
Q

What are reasons for a critical stress debriefing (pg 63)

A

after acute stress situations

  • serious injury or death of fellow worker
  • suicide of fellow worker
  • MCI
  • serious injury or death of child
  • intense media attention to an incident

and usually happens after a call with all involved and up to 72 hours after

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17
Q

What are the 4 E’s of prevention? (pg 77-79)

A
  • education - inform about potential dangers and then act to persuade them to change risky behavior
    • enforcement - laws and regulations
    • engineering/environment (passive interventions) - safety changes in equipment or the environment that help promote positive changes in population without effort
    • economic incentives - receiving financial breaks/incentives to reinforce positive change
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18
Q

The Haddon Matrix uses nine components. What are they? (pg 84)

A
  • Pre-event, event and post-event that involves a host, agent and how the two interact with the environment
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19
Q

5 steps to develop a Prevention Program

A
  1. Conduct a community assessment - bring groups together to assess what is already being accomplished and establish what resources are available.
  2. Define the problem - based on data collected, define the problem
  3. Set goals and objectives general statement about the long-term changes the prevention is designed to make
  4. Plan and test interventions - Actions taken to accomplish goals; Use the 4 E’s
  5. Implement and evaluate interventions - results must be measurable
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20
Q

What is informed consent?

A

A Patient’s volunatary agreement to be treated after being told about the nature of the disease, the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment, alternative treatments, or the choice of no treatment at all

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21
Q

A patient who has the ability to give informed consent is considered to have ___________ __________.

A

decision-making capacity (pg 109)

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22
Q

Expressed consent is? pg 109

A

A type of informed consent that occurs when the patient does something, either by telling you or by taking some sort of action, that demonstrates he/she is giving you permission to provide emergency medical care

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23
Q

Implied consent is? pg 109

A

A form of consent assumed to be given by unconscious adults or by adults whoa re too ill or injured to consent verbally to emergency lifesaving treatment

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24
Q

Involuntary consent is? pg 109

A

a law enforcement officer or legal guardian grants permission to treat someone who is under arrest, incapacitated, a minor, or for other reasons.
** In these cases, follow the informed consent guidelines, if patient refuses, involve medical control

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25
Q

What’s the Difference between unlawful or unethical?

A

Unlawful - Not conforming to, permitted by, or recognized by law or rules.
Unethical - not morally correct.

The Difference - ‘Unethical’ defines as something that is morally wrong, whilst something being ‘illegal’ means it is against the law. In an illegal act, the decision-making factor is the law. … An unethical deed may be against morality but not against the law.
a. One of the Major differences between laws and ethics is the laws have sanctions for violations that are enforceable (Pg 96)

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26
Q

The importance of HIPPA would be to ____________?

A

Protect a patient’s right to privacy

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27
Q

Describe the communication loop and how it is used to communicate effectively. (p 135)

A

It begins with the
Sender - who formulates words or ideas in message
Message Transmission - verbal, nonverbal, visual, written or electronic
Receiver - decodes message to get the information
Feedback - the confirmation by the receiver that the message was accurately received.

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28
Q

Barriers to effective communication would be?

A
  • Language barriers
  • vision or hearing impairment
  • Impaired cognition or confusion
  • Psychiatric conditions
  • Substance abuse
  • Preexisting medical conditions
  • Lack of the ability to comprehend stress
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29
Q

Advance directive

A

A written document or oral statement that expresses the wants, needs, and desires of a patient in reference to future medical care; examples include living wills, DNR orders, and organ donation orders

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30
Q

Act of Commission

A

Performing an act or allowing an individual to perform an act that causes harm. Example: A trainer who asks a client to perform a squat jump, knowing that the client has a knee injury.

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31
Q

Contributory Negligence

A

For example, a client who recently experienced a lower-back injury fails to inform the trainer when he or she is asked to perform a deadlift. The client, in this scenario, has contributed to his or her own injury and cannot recover any money for injury.

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32
Q

Comparative negligence

A

Because many states do not use contributory negligence, this is the preferred standard. In this case, the responsibility for the injury is divided between the trainer and the injured client. How much responsibility is awarded to each party depends on the courts’ judgment.

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33
Q

Scope of practice

A

Describes what a state permits a paramedic practicing under a license or certification to do

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34
Q

When and why to use close-ended questions (Pg 152)

A

Start with open-ended questions to allow patient to freely give you information and allows you to begin mentation assessment
• “How’re you feeling right now?”

Close-ended questions (Direct questions)
• Meant to elicit a specific answer
• “What year were you born?”

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35
Q

Difference in “Online” and “Off-line” communications (Pg 165)

A

Off-line • Patient care orders in the form of protocols or standing orders that do not require direct contact with the medical control physician

Online • Patient care orders provided directly to the paramedic by the medical control physician by radio or telephone

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36
Q

False reassurance (Pg 154)

A

Our job is to be neutral and objective. Assuring someone that he or she will e fine seems like a simple and caring statement, but never make promises you can’t keep

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37
Q

Frequency

A

The number of cycles (oscillations) per second of a radio signal

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38
Q

Signs and symptoms of cumulative stress include: (p 55)

A. decreased interest in alcohol
B. insomnia or hypersomnia
C. bradycardia and hypotension
D. increased sexual function

A

insomnia or hypersomnia

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39
Q

Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is: (p 203)

A. posterior
B. exterior
C. inferior
D. anterior

A

posterior

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40
Q

The main purpose of continuing education is to: (p 14)

A. recall material that was learned previously
B. facilitate networking of EMS personnel
C. allow EMS personnel to function at a higher level
D. remain current with the latest treatment guidelines

A

remain current with the latest treatment guidelines

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41
Q

The part of the nervous system that prepares the body to deal with an emergency is the _______ nervous system. (p 55)

A

sympathetic

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42
Q

A patient is placed in the Fowler position. In this position, the body is: (p 206)

A

Sitting straight up with the knees bent or straight.

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43
Q

In the anatomical position, all extremities are: (p 203)

A. extended
B. abducted
C. flexed
D. adducted

A

extended

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44
Q

A patient experiencing a stroke involving the left cerebral hemisphere has contralateral hemiplegia. This means that the patient: (p 204)

A. cannot move any of their extremities
B. cannot move their left side
C. cannot move either upper extremity
D. cannot move their right side

A

cannot move their right side

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45
Q

The root word cloud/o refers to the: (p 193)

A

clavicle

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46
Q

What position is generally a position of comfort for patients who do not require spinal immobilization? (p 206)

A

Semi-fowler

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47
Q

Children are at higher risk for serious injury than adults because of: (p 73)

A

a proportionately larger head

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48
Q

Movement of the distal point of an extremity toward the trunk is called: (p 203)

A

Flexion

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49
Q

The most inferior portion of the heart is called the: (p 203)

A

apex

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50
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS system is correct? (p 11)

A. The paramedic is a public servant who often responds to non-emergency calls
B. The paramedic is usually the public’s first contact with the EMS system
C. The public’s perception of an emergency is often the same as the paramedic’s
D. Dispatch information is usually an accurate depiction of what really happened

A

The paramedic is a public servant who often responds to non-emergency calls

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51
Q

An imaginary plane passing horizontally through the body at the waist, creating top and bottom portions, is called the: (p 199)

A

Transverse plane

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52
Q

A formal critical incident stress debriefing (CISD): (p 63)

A

Is usually coordinated by one or more professional counselors 24-72 hours after an incident that is causing persistent symptoms in personnel.

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53
Q

As an advocate for your patient, you must: (p 18)

A

Act in the patient’s best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefs.

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54
Q

Unrecognized or unrelieved stress: (p 54)

A

can result in poor physical health

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55
Q

What is the medical term for a woman who has been pregnant eight times? (p 196)

A

octigravida

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56
Q

A protocol is MOST accurately defined as a(n): (p 21)

A. nationally accepted standard of care
B. Treatment plan for a specific illness or injury
C. verbal order given by the medical director
D. agreement between the paramedic and physician

A

Treatment plan for a specific illness or injury

57
Q

Relative to the wrist, the elbow is: (p 202)

A

proximal

58
Q

The prefix melan- means: (p 211)

A

black

59
Q

The main purpose of continuing education is to: (p 14)

A. recall material that was learned previously
B. facilitate networking of EMS personnel
C. allow EMS personnel to function at a higher level
D. remain current with latest treatment guidelines

A

remain current with latest treatment guidelines

60
Q

The root word -phagia refers to: (p 193)

A

swallowing

61
Q

Negative or injurious stress is also called: (p 53)

A

distress

62
Q

A paramedic who is licensed in a particular state: (p 13)

A. is required to function under the guidance of a licensed physician
B. must obtain more continuing education hours than a certified paramedic
C. is authorized to function as medical control for EMTs
D. has complete autonomy and can function independently

A

is required to function under the guidance of a licensed physician

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a passive injury prevention intervention? (p 79)

A. Providing public education on the use of AEDs
B. Installing sprinkler systems in commercial buildings
C. The use of softer materials for playground surfaces
D. The manufacture of child-resistant bottles

A

Providing public education on the use of AEDs

64
Q

A patient who rolls up his or her sleeve so that you cant age his or her blood pressure has given you ______ consent. (p 109)

A

expressed

65
Q

Most Lawsuits against EMS providers result from: (p 100)

A. ambulance collisions
B. unethical acts
C. gross infarctions of the law
D. substandard patient care

A

ambulance collisions

66
Q

Patient autonomy is MOST accurately defined as the: (p 116)

A. A court’s support and upholding of the rights of a patient with regard to health care decisions
B. inability of the patient to refuse medical treatment once he or she has given appropriate consent
C. patient’s right to direct his or her own care and to decide how end-of-life care should be provided
D. right of the patient to determine which medications the paramedic should administer for a given situation

A

patient’s right to direct his or her own care and to decide how end-of-life care should be provided

67
Q

Scope of practice is defined as: (Legal Accountability of the Paramedic, p 104)

A

Care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state.

68
Q

Transporting a competent adult patient without his or her consent would MOST likely result in allegations of: (Legal System in the US, p 101)

A. criminal trespassing
B. assault
C. battery
D. false imprisonment

A

false imprisonment

69
Q

The purpose of classed-ended questions is to: (Therapeutic communication, p 152)

A

Elicit a specific response from the patient

70
Q

The use of ten-codes over the radio: (Communicating by radio, p 146)

A. should be carried out whenever possible to ensure effective communication
B. increases the likelihood of miscommunication during the radio transmission
C. is prohibited by the Federal Communications Commission and should be avoided
D. is not recommended by the National Incident Management System (NIMS)

A

is not recommended by the National Incident Management System (NIMS)

71
Q

When asking a man a question about his chest pain, he responds in a disorganized manner. What should you do? (Therapeutic Comms, p 154)

A. rephrase your question using medical terminology to elicit a reliable response
B. put his response into simpler terms and ask if he agrees with your synopsis
C. defer that particular question until the patient is delivered to the hospital
D. proceed under the assumption that he is impaired by drugs or alcohol

A

put his response into simpler terms and ask if he agrees with your synopsis

72
Q

Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended question? (Therapeutic Comms, p 152)

A. “Can you describe the pain you are feeling?”
B. “How did you feel when you woke up today?”
C. “Does the pain radiate to your arm or jaw?”
D. “Can you tell me how this all started.”

A

“Does the pain radiate to your arm or jaw?”

73
Q

If you believe that your life is in imminent danger: (Self-defense, p 2508-2509)

A. it is best to use deadly force
B. any action that gets you out of the situation is a reasonable level of force
C. use just enough physical force to temporarily incapacitate them
D. you will be unable to defend yourself legally

A

any action that gets you out of the situation is a reasonable level of force

74
Q

What is the safest method for preparing to enter a residence? (Residential incidents, p 2499)

A

stand to the doorknob side of the door, knock, and announce yourself as a paramedic

75
Q

Your EMS system’s standard procedure for responding to any call involving violence should be to: (Residential incidents, p 2499)

A

Allow law enforcement to secure the scene prior to your entry

76
Q

A paramedic’s actions are considered to be grossly negligent if he or she: (Negligence and protection against negligence claims, p 115)

A. only provides BLS to critical patient
B. makes a simple mistake that causes harm to the patient
C. does not consult with online medical control
D. willfully or wantonly deviates from the standard of care

A

willfully or wantonly deviates from the standard of care

77
Q

A reasonable paramedic should follow the same ___________ that another paramedic in a similar situation would, is called: (legal accountability of the paramedic, p 104)

A

standard of care

78
Q

Assault on a patient occurs when the EMS provider: (Legal system in the US, p 101)

A

instills the fear of immediate bodily harm in a patient

79
Q

A patient states, “I can’t breathe.”, and the paramedic responds, “You say you can’t breathe, ma’am?”, is an example of: (Therapeutic comms, p 152-153)

A. reflection
B. facilitation
C. interpretation
D. confrontation

A

reflection

80
Q

If a paramedic is unable to defuse a hostile patient’s anger, the paramedic should: (Therapeutic comms, p 155)

A

request law enforcement personnel at the scene

81
Q

Islamic and Hindu cultures avoid: (cross-cultural comms, p 158)

A. clapping their hands
B. touching head
C. toughing with the left hand
D. sitting with their legs crossed

A

toughing with the left hand

82
Q

Proximate cause is MOST accurately defined as:

A

A link between the paramedic’s improper action and the patient’s injury

83
Q

The primary function of the tactical paramedic is to provide:

A

Care for law enforcement teams who make entry into violent situations

84
Q

You receive a call to a residence in a rural area of your jurisdiction for a patient with an acute COPD exacerbation. Upon arriving at the scene, you knock on the door and identify yourself. The patient , an elderly-sounding man, tells you that you took too long to get to him and that he has a shotgun. You should:

A. grab the gun
B. tell him you’re there to help
C. ask if he can put it down
D. Immediately retreat to the ambulance and notify law enforcement

A

Immediately retreat to the ambulance and notify law enforcement

85
Q

If a mentally competent adult refuses emergency medical treatment, your FIRST action should be to:

A

Try to determine why he or she is refusing treatment

86
Q

Ethics is MOST accurately defined as:

A

The philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.

87
Q

According to the qualified immunity doctrine, the paramedic can be held liable only if:

A

The plaintiff proves that the paramedic violated a clearly established law about which he or she should have known

88
Q

Because minors have no legal status are they able to decide whether to accept or refuse medical care?

A

no

89
Q

If an off-duty paramedic stops at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, the paramedic:

A

Has a legal obligation to provide patient care.

90
Q

The upper airway of an adult consists of what structures?(Pg356)

A

all the structures above GLOTTIS.

  • nose
  • mouth
  • tongue
  • jaw
  • oral cavity
  • larynx
  • pharynx
91
Q

Define cor polmonale (pathophysiology of obstructive lower airway diseases, p 942)

A

Heart disease that develops because of chronic lung disease and affects primarily the right side of the heart

92
Q

When is a gastric tube most useful? (Pg 820)

A. Gastric distention
B. Removing air and liquid from the stomach when being ventilated by something other than a ET tube
C. Eliminates regurgitation and aspiration risks
D. Consider for PT using positive pressure ventilation
E. Decompressing the stomach, decreasing pressure eon the diaphragm

A

Decompressing the stomach, decreasing pressure eon the diaphragm

93
Q

A surgical opening into the trachea is called a: (special patient considerations, p 823)

A

Tracheostomy

94
Q

Indications for CPAP include: (CPAP, p 817)

A. cardiopulmonary arrest
B. severe opiate toxicity
C. acute pulmonary edema
D. acute bacterial pneumonia

A

acute pulmonary edema

95
Q

Which of the following clinical signs or symptoms are MOST indicative of upper airway swelling in a patient experiencing a severe allergic reaction?

A. a fever
B. hoarseness or stridor
C. cough
D. dependent edema

A

hoarseness or stridor

96
Q

When administering an epi-pen to a 30yo man with a allergic reaction you should recall that:

A.0.3mg of 1:1000 of Epi
B. push dose 1:100,000 of Epi
C. benadryl
D. aspirin

A

0.3mg of 1:1000 of Epi

97
Q

In contrast to cellular immunity, humoral immunity:

A

involves the use of antibodies dissolved in the blood plasma to fight off invading organisms

98
Q

Following the administration of Paliperidone, your patient’s body becomes rigid and extremely restless. What should you suspect:

A. extrapyramidal reactions
B. catatonic state
C. seizures
D. altered mental status

A

A. extrapyramidal reactions

99
Q

Caboxyhemoglobin:

A

is hemoglobin combined with carbon monoxide

100
Q

Which of the following signs values are most consistent with neurogenic shock?

A. BP: 120/80, P: 100, R: 22
B. BP: 90/70, P: 130, R: 24
C. BP: 100/60, P: 60, R: 14
D. BP: 90 palp, P: 120, R: 30

A

BP: 90/70, P: 130, R: 24

Look for low narrowing BP, above normal pulse and respirations

101
Q

Chronic use of nonsteriodal anti-inflammatory drugs would most likely result in:

A

peptic ulcer disease

102
Q

A 52-year-old man complains of vomiting and diarrhea for the past day. He is conscious and alert, has a blood pressure of 130/70 mm Hg, has a heart rate of 120 beats/min and strong, and has respirations of 20 breaths/min and regular. His past medical history is significant for anemia and congestive heart failure. Prior to administering isotonic crystalloid solutions to this patient, it is MOST important to:

A

auscultate lung sounds

103
Q

A metallic taste in the mouth, explosive diarrhea, and skin rash are most indicative of:

A

arsenic poisoning

104
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of distributive shock?

A. widespread vasodilation
B. pump failure
C. extreme blood loss
D. physical obstruction of blood circulation and inadequate blood oxygenation

A

widespread vasodilation

105
Q

Which of the following is an example of a peri-arrest condition?
A. Ventricular tachycardia and a systolic blood pressure of 60 mm Hg
B. Sinus tachycardia secondary to fever and a mild infection
C. Ventricular fibrillation that has persisted for 6 minutes
D. Bradycardia in the absence of chest pain or other symptoms

A

Ventricular tachycardia and a systolic blood pressure of 60 mm Hg

106
Q

You have just defibrillated an adult woman who is in pulseless vtach. After performing CPR for 2 minutes, you reassess her cardiac rhythm and determine that she’s experiencing torsades, she also remains pulseless. after 10 minutes of cpr: you should:

A

give 1-2g of Mg without stopping compressions

107
Q

Rubella is characterized by:

A

enlarged lymph nodes

108
Q

The outward expression of a person’s inner feelings:

A

affect

109
Q

Any sympathomimetic drug will cause what type of response from the heart?

A

tachycardia

110
Q

LSD is classified as:

A

hallucinogen

111
Q

Patients with delirium tremens often experience:

A. euphoria
B. hallucinations
C. dysphoria
D. rash

A

hallucinations

112
Q

Priority care for an unresponsive patient who has overdosed on a barbiturate includes:

A. shock position and O2
B. maintaining airway and making sure they don’t aspirate
C. maintain a set of vitals
D. find an alley and relocate them

A

maintaining airway and making sure they don’t aspirate

113
Q

Assessment of patients with collagen vascular disease should focus on:

A. high-flow oxygen therapy.

B. crystalloid fluid boluses.

C. ruling out life threats.

D. high-dose analgesia.

A

ruling out life threats

114
Q

The MOST ominous respiratory sign in a patient with anaphylactic shock is:

A. loud expiratory wheezing.

B. diffuse coarse crackles.

C. diminished lung sounds.

D. labored tachypnea.

A

diminished lung sounds

115
Q

Chest pain in patients with a heart transplant is uncommon because:
A. The newly implanted heart is without atherosclerosis
B. Most patients with heart transplants have diabetes
C. The denervated heart cannot generate angina like pain.
D. A ventricular assist device keeps the heart oxygenated

A

The denervated heart cannot generate angina like pain.

116
Q

A 31-year-old man presents with diffuse hives, intense itching, and watery eyes that began acutely about an hour ago. He is conscious and alert, is breathing without difficulty, and tells you that he does not have any allergies or significant medical problems. His blood pressure is 126/76 mm Hg, pulse is 110 beats/min and strong, and respirations are 16 breaths/min and unlabored. The MOST appropriate drug, dose, and route for this patient are:

Choose one answer.

A. epinephrine, 0.01 mg/kg 1:1,000, SQ.

B. epinephrine, 0.3 mg 1:1,000, IV.

C. diphendydramine, 25 to 50 mg, IM.

D. albuterol, 2.5 mg, via nebulizer.

A

(Benadryl) diphendydramine, 25 to 50 mg, IM.

117
Q 
The chemical mediators that initiate and maintain immune response:
A. Heparin and T-cells
B. Basophils and mast cells
C. Eosinophils and neutrophils
D. Macrophages and cytokines.
A

Basophils and mast cells

118
Q

Common signs of TB is:

A. photophobia
B. muscle weakness
C. pink eye
D. runny nose

A

photophobia

119
Q

The primary treatment for hypotension secondary to
anaphylaxis is:

A. Diphenhydramine
B. Isotonic crystalloid
C. Epinephrine
D. A dopamine infusion

A

Epinephrine

120
Q

The alpha-adrenergic effects of epinephrine produce:

A. Vasoconstriction
B. Decreased chronotropy
C. Increased inotropy
D. Broncodilation

A

Vasoconstriction

121
Q

Which of the following is NOT a major component of the hematologic system?

A. liver
B. spleen
C. bone marrow
D. pancreas

A

pancreas

122
Q

You are transporting a 55-year-old woman to the hospital. The patient has lymphoma and complains of generalized, severe pain. She is receiving supplemental oxygen and has an IV line of normal saline established. Her blood pressure is 110/64 mm Hg, pulse rate is 104 beats/min and regular, and respirations are 22 breaths/min and adequate. You should:

A

administer narcotic analgesia as needed while closely monitoring her blood pressure.

123
Q

A 26-year-old female presents with a fever, rash, and joint pain. Which of the following should you suspect?

A

lupus

124
Q

Anemia would result from all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A. acute blood loss
B. blood in urine
C. jaundice
D. an increase in iron.

A

an increase in iron.

125
Q

Anemia would result from all of the following conditions, EXCEPT:

A. acute blood loss
B. blood in urine
C. jaundice
D. an increase in iron.

A

an increase in iron.

126
Q

A 6-year-old, 40 pound child remains in ventricular fibrillation after an initial defibrillation and 2 minutes of CPR. Vascular access has not been obtained. Your next action should be to:

A. defibrillation at 70 joules
B. start an IV
C. check pulse
D. continue cpr

A

defibrillation at 70 joules

127
Q

Which of the following conditions would be the least likely to produce psychotic symptoms?

A. Hyperglycemia
B. Low cardiac output
C. Temporal lobe seizures
D. Closed head injury

A

hyperglycemia

128
Q

Which of the following conditions has been associated with death following exposure to a TASER device?

A. Excited delirium
B. Spinal cord injury
C. Electrocution injury
D. Rhabdomyolysis

A

Excited delirium

129
Q

Metabolic causes of abnormal behavior include:

A. thyroid hyperfunction.
B. amphetamine toxicity.
C. diabetic ketoacidosis.
D. vitamin deficiencies.

A

diabetic ketoacidosis.

130
Q
  1. The endocrine system comprises a network of ___________ that produce and secrete chemical messengers called ____________.

A. glands, hormones
B. nodes, catecholamines
C. vessels, leukotrienes
D. synapses, neurotransmitters

A

glands, hormones

131
Q

The primary anatomic link between the endocrine system and the nervous system is/are the:

A. pancreas.
B. adrenal glands.
C. hypothalamus.
D. adrenal cortex.

A

hypothalamus

132
Q

The release of glucagon into the bloodstream stimulates:

A. the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.
B. the liver to take in and store more glucose.
C. the cells to uptake sugar from the bloodstream.
D. the vessels to constrict, thus increasing blood pressure.

A

the liver to convert glycogen to glucose.

133
Q

Excessive alcohol consumption can lead to low blood glucose because:

A

it depletes the glycogen in the blood

134
Q

Prior to administering 5o% dextrose in IV, you should:

A

make sure the IV is freely flowing

135
Q

Diabetes is MOST accurately defined as:

A. inadequate insulin secretion, which leads to increased circulating blood glucose levels.
B. a decrease in circulating insulin levels, which results in a drop in serum blood sugar levels.
C. a metabolic disorder in which the body’s ability to metabolize simple carbohydrates is impaired.
D. an endocrine disorder in which the liver is unable to produce and store adequate amounts of glycogen.

A

a metabolic disorder in which the body’s ability to metabolize simple carbohydrates is impaired.

136
Q

A 30-year-old woman presents with 3 days of generalized weakness, dizziness, and excessive urination. She is conscious but restless, and she tells you that she is extremely thirsty. Her blood pressure is 96/66 mm Hg, her pulse is 110 beats/min and full, and her respirations are increased and somewhat deep. On the basis of this patient’s clinical presentation, she will MOST likely require oxygen and:

A. 25 g of 50% dextrose.
B. in-hospital antibiotics.
C. 0.5 to 1 mg of glucagon.
D. crystalloid fluid hydration.

A

crystalloid fluid hydration.

137
Q

You are assessing a 70-year-old man with a blood glucose reading of 400 mg/dL and note the presence of sharply peaked T waves on the cardiac monitor. Which of the following medications would this patient MOST likely receive in the prehospital setting?

A. Insulin
B. Glucagon
C. Potassium
D. Bicarbonate

A

Bicarbonate

138
Q

Systemic effects of epinephrine include:

A. decreased preload.
B. increased afterload.
C. diffuse vasodilation.
D. bronchoconstriction.

A

increased afterload.

139
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system stimulation results in what type of effect?

A

a negative dromotropic effect

The “IV” League (10 decks)

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