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The “IV” League > EMS Operations > Flashcards

EMS Operations Flashcards

1
Q

Advocacy

A

Advocating for the patients being treated and changes in the EMS system that will improve care or save lives

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2
Q

Empathy

A

identify and understand their feelings

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3
Q

Sympathy

A

feeling bad for someone else’s misfortune

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4
Q

Protocol

A

a treatment plan developed for a specific illness or injury

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5
Q

Exercise programs (pg 41)

A

have been shown to improve sleep, mental capacity, ability to cope with stress, sex life, and overall long-term health: aim to improve or maintiain flexibility, endurance and strength

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6
Q

Calculate Max HR (pg 41)

A

220 - age

220 - 20 = 200 Max HR

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7
Q

Calculate Target HR (pg 41)

A

(max HR) x [(0.5) x (0.69)]

ie. 220 - 20 = 200 Max HR
(200) x [(0.5) x (0.69)] = Target HR

200 x 0.5 = 100
200 x 0.69 = 138

100 to 138 = Target HR

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8
Q

Safe lifting techniques

A

minimize body lifts, coordinate lifts prior to performing, minimize amount of weight being lifted, never lift with back, don’t carry what can be put on wheels, ask for help

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9
Q

Hand washing

A

wash hands vigorously with soap and water for 20 seconds

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10
Q

Eustress (positive stress) or motivational stress (pg 53)

A

The kind of stress that motivates a reason to achieve

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11
Q

Distress (negative stress) (pg 53)

A

The stress that a person finds overwhelming and debilitating

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12
Q

Acute Stress reactions (pg 55)

A

The ability to handle and increase your focus in that moment or not

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13
Q

Delayed stress reactions (pg 55)

A

The ability to handle a stressful event but then the effects of stress happen after the event

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14
Q

Cumulative stress reactions (pg55)

A

the accumulation of smaller stress events that add up. Most commonly known to be negative stress in nature.

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15
Q

What physiologic/psychologic signs and symptoms happen when stress goes unrecognized?

A
  • physiologic reactions may cause heart disease, hypertension, cancer, alcoholism, and depression.
    • psychologic reactions may be fear, dull behavior, depression, anger and irritability.
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16
Q

What are reasons for a critical stress debriefing (pg 63)

A

after acute stress situations

  • serious injury or death of fellow worker
  • suicide of fellow worker
  • MCI
  • serious injury or death of child
  • intense media attention to an incident

and usually happens after a call with all involved and up to 72 hours after

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17
Q

What are the 4 E’s of prevention? (pg 77-79)

A
  • education - inform about potential dangers and then act to persuade them to change risky behavior
    • enforcement - laws and regulations
    • engineering/environment (passive interventions) - safety changes in equipment or the environment that help promote positive changes in population without effort
    • economic incentives - receiving financial breaks/incentives to reinforce positive change
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18
Q

The Haddon Matrix uses nine components. What are they? (pg 84)

A
  • Pre-event, event and post-event that involves a host, agent and how the two interact with the environment
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19
Q

5 steps to develop a Prevention Program

A
  1. Conduct a community assessment - bring groups together to assess what is already being accomplished and establish what resources are available.
  2. Define the problem - based on data collected, define the problem
  3. Set goals and objectives general statement about the long-term changes the prevention is designed to make
  4. Plan and test interventions - Actions taken to accomplish goals; Use the 4 E’s
  5. Implement and evaluate interventions - results must be measurable
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20
Q

What is informed consent?

A

A Patient’s volunatary agreement to be treated after being told about the nature of the disease, the risks and benefits of the proposed treatment, alternative treatments, or the choice of no treatment at all

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21
Q

A patient who has the ability to give informed consent is considered to have ___________ __________.

A

decision-making capacity (pg 109)

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22
Q

Expressed consent is? pg 109

A

A type of informed consent that occurs when the patient does something, either by telling you or by taking some sort of action, that demonstrates he/she is giving you permission to provide emergency medical care

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23
Q

Implied consent is? pg 109

A

A form of consent assumed to be given by unconscious adults or by adults whoa re too ill or injured to consent verbally to emergency lifesaving treatment

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24
Q

Involuntary consent is? pg 109

A

a law enforcement officer or legal guardian grants permission to treat someone who is under arrest, incapacitated, a minor, or for other reasons.
** In these cases, follow the informed consent guidelines, if patient refuses, involve medical control

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25
Q

What’s the Difference between unlawful or unethical?

A

Unlawful - Not conforming to, permitted by, or recognized by law or rules.
Unethical - not morally correct.

The Difference - ‘Unethical’ defines as something that is morally wrong, whilst something being ‘illegal’ means it is against the law. In an illegal act, the decision-making factor is the law. … An unethical deed may be against morality but not against the law.
a. One of the Major differences between laws and ethics is the laws have sanctions for violations that are enforceable (Pg 96)

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26
Q

The importance of HIPPA would be to ____________?

A

Protect a patient’s right to privacy

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27
Q

Describe the communication loop and how it is used to communicate effectively. (p 135)

A

It begins with the
Sender - who formulates words or ideas in message
Message Transmission - verbal, nonverbal, visual, written or electronic
Receiver - decodes message to get the information
Feedback - the confirmation by the receiver that the message was accurately received.

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28
Q

Barriers to effective communication would be?

A
  • Language barriers
  • vision or hearing impairment
  • Impaired cognition or confusion
  • Psychiatric conditions
  • Substance abuse
  • Preexisting medical conditions
  • Lack of the ability to comprehend stress
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29
Q

Advance directive

A

A written document or oral statement that expresses the wants, needs, and desires of a patient in reference to future medical care; examples include living wills, DNR orders, and organ donation orders

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30
Q

Act of Commission

A

Performing an act or allowing an individual to perform an act that causes harm. Example: A trainer who asks a client to perform a squat jump, knowing that the client has a knee injury.

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31
Q

Contributory Negligence

A

For example, a client who recently experienced a lower-back injury fails to inform the trainer when he or she is asked to perform a deadlift. The client, in this scenario, has contributed to his or her own injury and cannot recover any money for injury.

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32
Q

Comparative negligence

A

Because many states do not use contributory negligence, this is the preferred standard. In this case, the responsibility for the injury is divided between the trainer and the injured client. How much responsibility is awarded to each party depends on the courts’ judgment.

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33
Q

Scope of practice

A

Describes what a state permits a paramedic practicing under a license or certification to do

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34
Q

When and why to use close-ended questions (Pg 152)

A

Start with open-ended questions to allow patient to freely give you information and allows you to begin mentation assessment
• “How’re you feeling right now?”

Close-ended questions (Direct questions)
• Meant to elicit a specific answer
• “What year were you born?”

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35
Q

Difference in “Online” and “Off-line” communications (Pg 165)

A

Off-line • Patient care orders in the form of protocols or standing orders that do not require direct contact with the medical control physician

Online • Patient care orders provided directly to the paramedic by the medical control physician by radio or telephone

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36
Q

False reassurance (Pg 154)

A

Our job is to be neutral and objective. Assuring someone that he or she will e fine seems like a simple and caring statement, but never make promises you can’t keep

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37
Q

Frequency

A

The number of cycles (oscillations) per second of a radio signal

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38
Q

Signs and symptoms of cumulative stress include: (p 55)

A. decreased interest in alcohol
B. insomnia or hypersomnia
C. bradycardia and hypotension
D. increased sexual function

A

insomnia or hypersomnia

39
Q

Compared to the frontal region of the skull, the occiput is: (p 203)

A. posterior
B. exterior
C. inferior
D. anterior

A

posterior

40
Q

The main purpose of continuing education is to: (p 14)

A. recall material that was learned previously
B. facilitate networking of EMS personnel
C. allow EMS personnel to function at a higher level
D. remain current with the latest treatment guidelines

A

remain current with the latest treatment guidelines

41
Q

The part of the nervous system that prepares the body to deal with an emergency is the _______ nervous system. (p 55)

A

sympathetic

42
Q

A patient is placed in the Fowler position. In this position, the body is: (p 206)

A

Sitting straight up with the knees bent or straight.

43
Q

In the anatomical position, all extremities are: (p 203)

A. extended
B. abducted
C. flexed
D. adducted

A

extended

44
Q

A patient experiencing a stroke involving the left cerebral hemisphere has contralateral hemiplegia. This means that the patient: (p 204)

A. cannot move any of their extremities
B. cannot move their left side
C. cannot move either upper extremity
D. cannot move their right side

A

cannot move their right side

45
Q

The root word cloud/o refers to the: (p 193)

A

clavicle

46
Q

What position is generally a position of comfort for patients who do not require spinal immobilization? (p 206)

A

Semi-fowler

47
Q

Children are at higher risk for serious injury than adults because of: (p 73)

A

a proportionately larger head

48
Q

Movement of the distal point of an extremity toward the trunk is called: (p 203)

A

Flexion

49
Q

The most inferior portion of the heart is called the: (p 203)

A

apex

50
Q

Which of the following statements regarding the EMS system is correct? (p 11)

A. The paramedic is a public servant who often responds to non-emergency calls
B. The paramedic is usually the public’s first contact with the EMS system
C. The public’s perception of an emergency is often the same as the paramedic’s
D. Dispatch information is usually an accurate depiction of what really happened

A

The paramedic is a public servant who often responds to non-emergency calls

51
Q

An imaginary plane passing horizontally through the body at the waist, creating top and bottom portions, is called the: (p 199)

A

Transverse plane

52
Q

A formal critical incident stress debriefing (CISD): (p 63)

A

Is usually coordinated by one or more professional counselors 24-72 hours after an incident that is causing persistent symptoms in personnel.

53
Q

As an advocate for your patient, you must: (p 18)

A

Act in the patient’s best interest and remain respectful of his or her wishes and beliefs.

54
Q

Unrecognized or unrelieved stress: (p 54)

A

can result in poor physical health

55
Q

What is the medical term for a woman who has been pregnant eight times? (p 196)

A

octigravida

56
Q

A protocol is MOST accurately defined as a(n): (p 21)

A. nationally accepted standard of care
B. Treatment plan for a specific illness or injury
C. verbal order given by the medical director
D. agreement between the paramedic and physician

A

Treatment plan for a specific illness or injury

57
Q

Relative to the wrist, the elbow is: (p 202)

A

proximal

58
Q

The prefix melan- means: (p 211)

A

black

59
Q

The main purpose of continuing education is to: (p 14)

A. recall material that was learned previously
B. facilitate networking of EMS personnel
C. allow EMS personnel to function at a higher level
D. remain current with latest treatment guidelines

A

remain current with latest treatment guidelines

60
Q

The root word -phagia refers to: (p 193)

A

swallowing

61
Q

Negative or injurious stress is also called: (p 53)

A

distress

62
Q

A paramedic who is licensed in a particular state: (p 13)

A. is required to function under the guidance of a licensed physician
B. must obtain more continuing education hours than a certified paramedic
C. is authorized to function as medical control for EMTs
D. has complete autonomy and can function independently

A

is required to function under the guidance of a licensed physician

63
Q

Which of the following is NOT an example of a passive injury prevention intervention? (p 79)

A. Providing public education on the use of AEDs
B. Installing sprinkler systems in commercial buildings
C. The use of softer materials for playground surfaces
D. The manufacture of child-resistant bottles

A

Providing public education on the use of AEDs

64
Q

A patient who rolls up his or her sleeve so that you cant age his or her blood pressure has given you ______ consent. (p 109)

A

expressed

65
Q

Most Lawsuits against EMS providers result from: (p 100)

A. ambulance collisions
B. unethical acts
C. gross infarctions of the law
D. substandard patient care

A

ambulance collisions

66
Q

Patient autonomy is MOST accurately defined as the: (p 116)

A. A court’s support and upholding of the rights of a patient with regard to health care decisions
B. inability of the patient to refuse medical treatment once he or she has given appropriate consent
C. patient’s right to direct his or her own care and to decide how end-of-life care should be provided
D. right of the patient to determine which medications the paramedic should administer for a given situation

A

patient’s right to direct his or her own care and to decide how end-of-life care should be provided

67
Q

Scope of practice is defined as: (Legal Accountability of the Paramedic, p 104)

A

Care that a paramedic is permitted to perform under the certifying state.

68
Q

Transporting a competent adult patient without his or her consent would MOST likely result in allegations of: (Legal System in the US, p 101)

A. criminal trespassing
B. assault
C. battery
D. false imprisonment

A

false imprisonment

69
Q

The purpose of classed-ended questions is to: (Therapeutic communication, p 152)

A

Elicit a specific response from the patient

70
Q

The use of ten-codes over the radio: (Communicating by radio, p 146)

A. should be carried out whenever possible to ensure effective communication
B. increases the likelihood of miscommunication during the radio transmission
C. is prohibited by the Federal Communications Commission and should be avoided
D. is not recommended by the National Incident Management System (NIMS)

A

is not recommended by the National Incident Management System (NIMS)

71
Q

When asking a man a question about his chest pain, he responds in a disorganized manner. What should you do? (Therapeutic Comms, p 154)

A. rephrase your question using medical terminology to elicit a reliable response
B. put his response into simpler terms and ask if he agrees with your synopsis
C. defer that particular question until the patient is delivered to the hospital
D. proceed under the assumption that he is impaired by drugs or alcohol

A

put his response into simpler terms and ask if he agrees with your synopsis

72
Q

Which of the following is an example of a closed-ended question? (Therapeutic Comms, p 152)

A. “Can you describe the pain you are feeling?”
B. “How did you feel when you woke up today?”
C. “Does the pain radiate to your arm or jaw?”
D. “Can you tell me how this all started.”

A

“Does the pain radiate to your arm or jaw?”

73
Q

If you believe that your life is in imminent danger: (Self-defense, p 2508-2509)

A. it is best to use deadly force
B. any action that gets you out of the situation is a reasonable level of force
C. use just enough physical force to temporarily incapacitate them
D. you will be unable to defend yourself legally

A

any action that gets you out of the situation is a reasonable level of force

74
Q

What is the safest method for preparing to enter a residence? (Residential incidents, p 2499)

A

stand to the doorknob side of the door, knock, and announce yourself as a paramedic

75
Q

Your EMS system’s standard procedure for responding to any call involving violence should be to: (Residential incidents, p 2499)

A

Allow law enforcement to secure the scene prior to your entry

76
Q

A paramedic’s actions are considered to be grossly negligent if he or she: (Negligence and protection against negligence claims, p 115)

A. only provides BLS to critical patient
B. makes a simple mistake that causes harm to the patient
C. does not consult with online medical control
D. willfully or wantonly deviates from the standard of care

A

willfully or wantonly deviates from the standard of care

77
Q

A reasonable paramedic should follow the same ___________ that another paramedic in a similar situation would, is called: (legal accountability of the paramedic, p 104)

A

standard of care

78
Q

Assault on a patient occurs when the EMS provider: (Legal system in the US, p 101)

A

instills the fear of immediate bodily harm in a patient

79
Q

A patient states, “I can’t breathe.”, and the paramedic responds, “You say you can’t breathe, ma’am?”, is an example of: (Therapeutic comms, p 152-153)

A. reflection
B. facilitation
C. interpretation
D. confrontation

A

reflection

80
Q

If a paramedic is unable to defuse a hostile patient’s anger, the paramedic should: (Therapeutic comms, p 155)

A

request law enforcement personnel at the scene

81
Q

Islamic and Hindu cultures avoid: (cross-cultural comms, p 158)

A. clapping their hands
B. touching head
C. toughing with the left hand
D. sitting with their legs crossed

A

toughing with the left hand

82
Q

Proximate cause is MOST accurately defined as:

A

A link between the paramedic’s improper action and the patient’s injury

83
Q

The primary function of the tactical paramedic is to provide:

A

Care for law enforcement teams who make entry into violent situations

84
Q

You receive a call to a residence in a rural area of your jurisdiction for a patient with an acute COPD exacerbation. Upon arriving at the scene, you knock on the door and identify yourself. The patient , an elderly-sounding man, tells you that you took too long to get to him and that he has a shotgun. You should:

A. grab the gun
B. tell him you’re there to help
C. ask if he can put it down
D. Immediately retreat to the ambulance and notify law enforcement

A

Immediately retreat to the ambulance and notify law enforcement

85
Q

If a mentally competent adult refuses emergency medical treatment, your FIRST action should be to:

A

Try to determine why he or she is refusing treatment

86
Q

Ethics is MOST accurately defined as:

A

The philosophy of right and wrong, of moral duties, and of ideal professional behavior.

87
Q

According to the qualified immunity doctrine, the paramedic can be held liable only if:

A

The plaintiff proves that the paramedic violated a clearly established law about which he or she should have known

88
Q

Because minors have no legal status are they able to decide whether to accept or refuse medical care?

A

no

89
Q

If an off-duty paramedic stops at the scene of a motor vehicle crash, the paramedic:

A

Has a legal obligation to provide patient care.

90
Q

The upper airway of an adult consists of what structures?(Pg356)

A

all the structures above GLOTTIS.

  • nose
  • mouth
  • tongue
  • jaw
  • oral cavity
  • larynx
  • pharynx
91
Q

Define cor polmonale (pathophysiology of obstructive lower airway diseases, p 942)

A

Heart disease that develops because of chronic lung disease and affects primarily the right side of the heart

92
Q

When is a gastric tube most useful? (Pg 820)

A. Gastric distention
B. Removing air and liquid from the stomach when being ventilated by something other than a ET tube
C. Eliminates regurgitation and aspiration risks
D. Consider for PT using positive pressure ventilation
E. Decompressing the stomach, decreasing pressure eon the diaphragm

A

Decompressing the stomach, decreasing pressure eon the diaphragm

93
Q

A surgical opening into the trachea is called a: (special patient considerations, p 823)

A

Tracheostomy

94
Q

Indications for CPAP include: (CPAP, p 817)

A. cardiopulmonary arrest
B. severe opiate toxicity
C. acute pulmonary edema
D. acute bacterial pneumonia

A

acute pulmonary edema

The “IV” League (10 decks)

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