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Anatomy & Physiology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Sperm production occurs in the

A

seminiferous tubules

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2
Q

Secondary spermatocytes each contain

A

23 chromosomes.

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3
Q

The organ that monitors and adjusts the composition of tubular fluid, recycles damaged spermatozoa, and is the site of sperm maturation is the

A

epididymis.

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4
Q

Where in the male reproductive system would you expect to find the most mature spermatozoa?

A

in the ductus deferens and ejaculatory duct

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5
Q

Which of the following glands secretes fructose to nourish the sperm?

A

seminal gland (seminal vesicle)

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6
Q

Semen contains all of the following, except

A

spermatogonia.

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7
Q

During meiosis I, maternal and paternal chromosomes fuse together during the process called ________ to form a ________.

A

synapsis; tetrad

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8
Q

The delicate layer of serous membrane that covers the testis is called the

A

tunica vaginalis.

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9
Q

The erectile tissue that surrounds the urethra is the

A

corpus spongiosum.

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10
Q

Inward projections of the tunica albuginea, known as septa, divide the testis into

A

lobules.

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11
Q

Interstitial cells produce

A

androgens.

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12
Q

The spermatic cord is

A

Correct a bundle of tissue that contains the ductus deferens, blood vessels, nerves, and lymphatics that serve the testis.

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13
Q

Straight tubules originate at the seminiferous tubules and form a network of passageways called the

A

rete testis.

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14
Q

The urethral meatus is an opening in the

A

glans penis.

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15
Q

The special type of cell division required to produce gametes is called

A

meiosis.

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16
Q

The role of FSH in males is to

A

initiate sperm production in the testes.

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17
Q

The cells that are formed during spermatogenesis by the first meiosis are called

A

secondary spermatocytes.

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18
Q

The external marking of the boundary between the two testes is the

A

raphe.

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19
Q

The dense layer of connective tissue that surrounds the testis is called the

A

tunica albuginea.

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20
Q

The organ that produces a secretion that contains fructose, prostaglandins, and fibrinogen is the

A

seminal gland (seminal vesicle).

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21
Q

Testosterone is secreted by the

A

interstitial cells.

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22
Q

The reproductive system includes

A

All of the answers are correct.

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23
Q

Which of the following occurs after a spermatogonium completes cell division?

A

One daughter cell is directed toward the lumen of the seminiferous tubule.

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24
Q

Which of the following muscles move the testes toward the body?

A

both the cremaster and the dartos muscles

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25
Q

Arrange the four structures listed below into the order in which sperm pass from the testis to the urethral meatus.

A
  1. ductus deferens
  2. urethra
  3. ejaculatory duct
  4. epididymis
    Correct 4, 1, 3, 2
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26
Q

When spermatogonia divide, the daughter cells are called

A

spermatocytes.

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27
Q

The organ that surrounds the urethra and produces an alkaline secretion is the

A

prostate gland.

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28
Q

The nurse cells of the seminiferous tubules do all of the following, except that they

A

secrete testosterone.

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29
Q

How many tetrads form during synapsis?

A

23

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30
Q

The special type of cell division required to produce gametes is called.

A

meiosis.

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31
Q

The paired erectile bodies in the penis are the

A

corpora cavernosa.

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32
Q

Sperm develop from stem cells called

A

spermatogonia.

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33
Q

A primary spermatocyte matures into ________ spermatids having ________ chromosomes.

A

four; 23

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34
Q

Testicular nurse cells function in all of the following ways, except that they don’t

A

secrete progesterone-binding protein.

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35
Q

Which of the following can be found inside the spermatic cord?

A 
blood vessels
nerves
lymphatic vessels
ductus deferens
Correct All of the answers are correct.
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36
Q

The small paired structures at the base of the penis that secrete a thick, alkaline mucus are the

A

bulbo-urethral glands.

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37
Q

The pituitary hormone that stimulates the interstitial cells to secrete testosterone is

A

LH.

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38
Q

Sperm are moved along the ductus deferens by

A

peristaltic contractions.

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39
Q

The process of spermiogenesis produces

A

spermatozoa

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40
Q

Interstitial cells

A

All of the answers are correct.

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41
Q

The male reproductive system is most closely associated with which of the following systems?

A

urinary

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42
Q

Nurse cells

A 
are found in the seminiferous tubules.
form the blood-testis barrier.
coordinate spermatogenesis.
secrete the hormone inhibin.
Correct All of the answers are correct.
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43
Q

The fold of skin that covers the glans penis is the

A

prepuce.

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44
Q

A typical ejaculation releases approximately ________ sperm.

A

250 million

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45
Q

Spermatozoa are functionally matured within the

A

epididymis.

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46
Q

The organ that carries sperm from the epididymis to the urethra is the

A

ductus deferens.

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47
Q

The ductus deferens is approximately ________ cm long.

A

40-45

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48
Q

In a mature human spermatozoan,

A

the head contains 23 chromosomes.

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49
Q

Aldosterone

A

promotes sodium retention in the kidneys.

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50
Q

Hypoventilation leads to

A

respiratory acidosis.

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51
Q

When the pH of the extracellular fluid drops, the

A

kidneys secrete more hydrogen ions and fewer bicarbonate ions.

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52
Q

Consuming a meal high in salt will

A

result in a temporary increase in blood volume.

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53
Q

Approximately ________ liters of peritoneal fluid are produced and reabsorbed each day.

A

7

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54
Q

In an adult female, the body consists of about ________ percent water.

A

50

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55
Q

Which hormone most affects the osmolarity of blood?

A

ADH

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56
Q

Substances that can carry electrical current across cell membranes are called

A

electrolytes.

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57
Q

A chemical that minimizes changes in the pH of a body fluid by releasing or binding hydrogen ion is called a(n)

A

buffer.

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58
Q

The release of atrial naturetic peptides from the heart will cause the body to

A

decrease ECF and excrete sodium ions.

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59
Q

Severe kidney damage (such as glomerulonephritis) often leads to

A

metabolic acidosis.

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60
Q

Exchange between the two main subdivisions of ECF occurs primarily at the

A

capillaries.

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61
Q

To reduce brain swelling by pulling water out of brain cells, a substance can be injected intravenously to increase the osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid. Which of the following properties can this substance not have in order to be effective?

A

permeable to brain plasma membranes

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62
Q

Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory acidosis?

A

consequence of reduced alveolar ventilation; for example, due to emphysema

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63
Q

The most common problems with electrolyte balance are caused by an imbalance between gains and losses of

A

sodium ions.

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64
Q

In response to respiratory alkalosis, the

A

kidneys retain more hydrogen ions.

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65
Q

A person with emphysema will exhibit signs of

A

chronic respiratory acidosis.

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66
Q

Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder respiratory alkalosis

A

consequence of hyperventilation, for example in fever or mental illness

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67
Q

The principal cation in intracellular fluid is

A

potassium.

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68
Q

A patient who has been both vomiting and having diarrhea is losing ________ from his body.

A

All answers are correct

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69
Q

All of the following are components of ECF, except

A

RBCs.

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70
Q

Excess hydrogen ion is eliminated from the body largely by

A

The kidneys

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71
Q

Calcium reabsorption by the kidneys is promoted by the hormone

A

Parathyroid hormone

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72
Q

The primary role of the carbonic-acid-bicarbonate buffer system is to

A

limit pH changes caused by organic and fixed acids.

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73
Q

When pure water is consumed,

A

osmolarities of the two fluid compartments fall.

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74
Q

Angiotensin II produces a coordinated elevation in the ECF volume by stimulating thirst.

A

causing the release of ADH.
triggering the production and secretion of aldosterone.
stimulating the kidneys to conserve sodium.
Correct All of the answers are correct.

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75
Q

Which hormone stimulates the thirst mechanism?

A

ADH

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76
Q

Which hormone plays a central role in determining the rate of sodium reabsorption and potassium secretion?

A

aldosterone

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77
Q

Secretion of potassium into the urine is

A

associated with the reabsorption of sodium from the distal tubules and collecting ducts.

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78
Q

Which of the following descriptions best fits the acid-base disorder metabolic alkalosis?

A

consequence of prolonged vomiting

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79
Q

In a lean adult male, the body consists of about ________ percent water.

A

60

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80
Q

Antidiuretic hormone

A

is released from the posterior pituitary gland.
stimulates water intake.
stimulates water conservation by the kidneys.
is produced by the hypothalamus.
Correct All of the answers are correct.

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81
Q

The extracellular fluid (ECF) consists of the

A 
plasma.
interstitial fluid.
cerebrospinal fluid.
lymph.
Correct All of the answers are correct.
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82
Q

A person with poorly controlled diabetes mellitus will develop

A

metabolic acidosis.

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83
Q

About two-thirds of the body fluid is within cells and is termed ________ fluid.

A

intracellular

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84
Q

Prolonged vomiting can result in

A

metabolic alkalosis.

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85
Q

Intracellular fluid (ICF) is found only within

A

the cells of the body.

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86
Q

The ions in highest concentration in the intracellular fluid are

A

proteins, potassium, and phosphate.

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87
Q

The amount of potassium excreted by the kidneys is regulated mainly by

A

aldosterone.

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88
Q

Which hormone(s) is released by heart muscle in response to excessive chamber volume?

A

natriuretic peptides

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89
Q

When water is lost, but electrolytes are retained,

A

osmosis moves water from the ICF to the ECF.

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90
Q

A patient on a ventilator subjected to excessive minute volume is at risk for

A

respiratory alkalosis.

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91
Q

A person who consumes large amounts of sodium bicarbonate (“baking soda”) to settle an upset stomach risks

A

metabolic alkalosis.

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92
Q

Which of the following will stimulate thirst?

A

drying the mucosa of the mouth and pharynx
angiotensin II acting on the hypothalamus
an increase in the osmotic pressure of interstitial fluid within the hypothalamus
stimulation of osmoreceptors
Correct All of the answers are correct.

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93
Q

Waves of muscular contractions that propel the contents of the digestive tract are called

A

peristalsis.

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94
Q

If the lingual frenulum is too restrictive, an individual

A

All of the answers are correct

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95
Q

The ________ gland empties into the oral cavity at the level of the second upper molar.

A

parotid

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96
Q

The layer of loose connective tissue that directly supports the digestive epithelium is the

A

lamina propria.

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97
Q

A structure that helps prevent food from entering the pharynx prematurely is the

A

uvula

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98
Q

Put the following layers of the digestive tract wall in order from the lumen to the deepest layer:

A

4, 1, 6, 3, 2, 5

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99
Q

The bulk of each tooth consists of a mineralized matrix similar to that of bone called

A

dentin

100
Q

Sandwiched between the layer of circular and longitudinal muscle in the muscularis externa is the

A

myenteric plexus.

101
Q

The part of a tooth that contains blood vessels and nerves is the

A

pulp cavity.

102
Q

The digestive tract is also referred to as the

A

alimentary canal and the GI tract.

103
Q

________ pair(s) of salivary glands secrete into the oral cavity.

A

Three

104
Q

What provides access for blood vessels entering and leaving the liver?

A

lesser omentum

105
Q

Which of these descriptions best matches the term myenteric plexus?

A

coordinates activity of muscularis externa

106
Q

Functions of teeth include

A

All of the answers are correct.

107
Q

The ________ supports all but 25 cm of the small intestine and provides stability and limited movement.

A

mesentery proper

108
Q

The lamina propria and mucous epithelium are components of the

A

mucosa.

109
Q

Which salivary gland produces a serous secretion containing large amounts of salivary amylase?

A

parotid

110
Q

A blockage of the ducts from the parotid glands would

A

interfere with carbohydrate digestion in the mouth.

111
Q

Contraction of the ________ alters the shape of the intestinal lumen and moves epithelial pleats and folds.

A

muscularis mucosa

112
Q

A stratified squamous epithelial lining can be found in all of the following, except in the

A

stomach

113
Q

The oral mucosa has ________ epithelium.

A

stratified squamous

114
Q

________ are also known as canines.

A

cuspids

115
Q

Which organ is responsible for dehydration and compaction of indigestible materials?

A

large intestine

116
Q

Digestion refers to the

A

mechanical and chemical breakdown of food

117
Q

All of the following contain mucous cells in the epithelium, except the

A

esophagus.

118
Q

The double-layer sheets of serous membrane that support the viscera are called

A

messentries

119
Q

Which layer of the digestive tract has a dense irregular connective tissue that surrounds the muscularis mucosae?

A

submucosa

120
Q

Large blood vessels and lymphatics are found in the

A

submucosa

121
Q

In most cases, the mumps is a viral infection of the

A

parotid glands

122
Q

Which of the following is a function of the tongue?

A

All of the answers are correct

123
Q

Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results from

A

parasympathetic system

124
Q

Increased secretion by all the salivary glands results from

A

parasympathetic system

125
Q

The greater omentum is

A

a fatty sheet that hangs like an apron over the abdominal viscera.

126
Q

A disease that attacks and disables the myenteric plexus would

A

decrease intestinal motility

127
Q

The serous membrane that lines the peritoneal cavity

A

All of the answers are correct.

128
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the digestive system?

A

filtration

129
Q

A feature of the digestive tract wall that increases surface area available for absorption is the

A

plicae

130
Q

The functions of the oral cavity include all of the following, except

A

Absorption of monosaccharides

131
Q

Each of the following organs is a component of the digestive tract, except the

A

Bladder

132
Q

Which of these descriptions best matches the term submucosal plexus?

A

sensory neural network

133
Q

The crown of a tooth is covered by

A

enamel

134
Q

The ________ salivary glands are covered by the mucous membrane in the floor of the mouth.

A

sublingual

135
Q

Which layer of the digestive tract directly underlies the epithelium?

A

lamina propria

136
Q

Which of the following is an accessory organ of digestion?

A

Pancreas

137
Q

Functions of the tongue include all of the following, except

A

partitioning the oropharynx from the nasopharynx.

138
Q

The root of a tooth is covered by

A

cementum.

139
Q

The ________ are double sheets of peritoneal membrane that suspend the visceral organs and carry nerves, lymphatics, and blood vessels.

A

messenteries

140
Q

Which of the following contains adipose tissue and provides padding for the anterior and lateral portions of the abdomen?

A

omentum

141
Q

What organ is primarily responsible for water absorption?

A

large intestine

142
Q

Sensory nerve cells, parasympathetic ganglia, and sympathetic postganglionic fibers can be found in the

A

submucosal plexus.

143
Q

The activities of the digestive system are regulated by:

A

All of the answers are correct

144
Q

The activities of the digestive system are regulated by:

A

All of the answers are correct

145
Q

The openings to the nostrils are the

A

external nares

146
Q

The palatine tonsils lie in the walls of the

A

oropharynx

147
Q

The respiratory mucosa consists of

A

epithelium and underlying layer of areolar tissue.

148
Q

An acute infection of the throat that can lead to swelling and closure of the glottis and cause suffocation is known as

A

acute epiglottitis.

149
Q

Tension on the vocal cords is regulated by the

A

movement of the arytenoid cartilages and contraction of laryngeal muscles.

150
Q

Inhaling through the nostrils is preferred over the mouth because

A

it allows better conditioning of the inhaled air.

151
Q

Air passing through the glottis vibrates the vocal folds and produces

A

phonation.

152
Q

Physical damage to the lamina propria of the nasal mucosa is likely to result in

A

epistaxis or nosebleeds.

153
Q

Air entering the body is filtered, warmed, and humidified by the

A

upper respiratory tract

154
Q

The portion of the nasal cavity contained within the flexible tissues of the external nose is the

A

vestibule.

155
Q

The ________ is shared by the respiratory and digestive systems.

A

pharynx

156
Q

Tina is singing a song. At a certain point in the song she forces a large volume of air out of the glottis and at the same time increases the tension on her vocal cords. The sound that she produces is

A

high pitched and loud

157
Q

The elastic cartilage that covers the opening to the larynx during swallowing is the

A

epiglottis

158
Q

The nasal cavity, pharynx, and larynx constitute the ________ portion of the airway.

A

conducting

159
Q

The ________ is lined by stratified squamous epithelium.

A

oropharynx

160
Q

The larynx contains ________ cartilages.

A

9

161
Q

Contraction of the intrinsic laryngeal muscles can

A

close the glottis

162
Q

Figure 23-1 The Upper Airways
Use Figure 23-1 to answer the following questions:
What is the function of the structures labeled “12”?

A

All of the answers are correct.

163
Q

During swallowing, the

A

epiglottis is depressed

164
Q

Harry suffers from cystic fibrosis and has severe breathing difficulties. His problems result from

A

thick secretions that are difficult to transport

165
Q

The conchae

A

create turbulence in the air to trap particulate matter in mucus.

166
Q

The largest cartilage of the larynx is the ________ cartilage.

A

thyroid

167
Q

A pair of ligaments covered by laryngeal epithelium that function in sound production are the

A

vocal folds.

168
Q

The paired cartilages that articulate with the superior border of the cricoid cartilage are the ________ cartilages.

A

arytenoid

169
Q

The portion of the pharynx that receives both air and food is the

A

oropharynx.

170
Q

The auditory tubes open into the

A

nasopharynx.

171
Q

The placement of a tube directly into the trachea to bypass the larynx is termed a(n)

A

tracheosectomy

172
Q

The nasal cavity is separated from the oral cavity by the

A

hard palate

173
Q

The common passageway shared by the respiratory and digestive systems is the

A

pharynx.

174
Q

Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium

A

mycobacterium tuberclosis

175
Q

Tuberculosis results from an infection by the bacterium

A

mycobacterium tuberculosis

176
Q

________ generally causes a rapid increase in the rate of mucus production in the nasal cavity and paranasal sinuses.

A

All of the answers are correct

177
Q

Components of the upper respiratory system include all of the following, except the

A

lips.

178
Q

The thyroid cartilage is attached to the cricoid cartilage by the

A

cricothyroid ligament.

179
Q

Which of the following organs is not part of the lower respiratory system?

A

oropharynx

180
Q

The nasopharynx is divided from the rest of the pharynx by the

A

soft palate

181
Q

The laryngeal cartilage not composed of hyaline cartilage is the

A

epiglottis.

182
Q

Figure 23-1 The Upper Airways
Use Figure 23-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “7.”

A

oropharynx

183
Q

The respiratory defense system is important because it

A

All of the answers are correct.

184
Q

Which of the following is not true about the pharynx?

A

shared by the integumentary and respiratory systems

185
Q

The vocal folds are located within the

A

larynx.

186
Q

A patient with a connective tissue disease experiences increased pulmonary vascular resistance. Over a period of time you would expect to observe

A

increased thickness of the right ventricular wall.

187
Q

The glottis is

A

the opening to the larynx.

188
Q

________ is the most common lethal inherited disease affecting individuals of Northern European descent.

A

Cystic fibrosis

189
Q

Figure 23-1 The Upper Airways
Use Figure 23-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “2.”

A

internal nares

190
Q

The respiratory epithelium of the conducting airways consists of

A

pseudostratified ciliated columnar epithelium.

191
Q

Which of the following is not a function of the nasal mucosa?

A

dehumidify the incoming air

192
Q

The larynx, trachea, bronchi, and bronchioles all make up the

A

lower respiratory tract.

193
Q

The ring-shaped cartilage just inferior to the thyroid cartilage is the ________ cartilage.

A

cricoid

194
Q

Functions of the nasal cavity include all of the following, except

A

acting as a damping chamber when coughing.

195
Q

A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the ________ cartilage.

A

thyroid

196
Q

A common site to place a tracheostomy tube is through the ligament that connects the cricoid cartilage to the ________ cartilage.

A

thyroid

197
Q

Lymphatic vessels are located in almost all portions of the body, except the

A

CNS.

198
Q

Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph Node
Use Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled “4.”

A

T cells

199
Q

The primary function of the lymphatic system is

A

defending the body against both environmental hazards and internal threats.

200
Q

The lymphatic system does all of the following, except that it

A

transports gases to and away from lymph nodes.

201
Q

________ are clusters of lymphatic nodules deep to the epithelial lining of the small intestine.

A

Peyer patches

202
Q

Lymphocytes that destroy foreign cells or virus-infected cells are ________ cells.

A

cytotoxic T

203
Q

In general, lymphocytes

A

spend most of their time in lymphatic tissue.

204
Q

Lymphocytes provide an adaptive or specific defense known as the

A

immune response.

205
Q

The lymphatic system is composed of all of the following, except

A

the venae cavae.

206
Q

Dividing lymphocytes can be found in the ________ of the lymphatic nodule.

A

germinal center

207
Q

Stress can affect the immune response in all of the following ways, except by

A

inhibiting glucocorticoid release.

208
Q

Fever is the maintenance of body temperature greater than

A

99°F.

209
Q

Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph Node
Use Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “3.”

A

capsule

210
Q

Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph Node
Use Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “3.”

A

capsule

211
Q

Each of the following is a physical barrier to infection, except

A

complement

212
Q

Changes in the immune system that accompany aging include

A

All of the answers are correct.

213
Q

Leslie has a bad sore throat and the lymph nodes in her neck are swollen. This would indicate that

A

the affected lymph nodes contain an increased number of lymphocytes.

214
Q

All of the following are true of the thymus gland, except that it

A

activates B cells.

215
Q

Hormones of the immune system include all of the following, except

A

natriuretic factor.

216
Q

T is to ________ as B is to ________.

A

thymus-dependent; bone marrow-derived

217
Q

The cells responsible for humoral immunity are the ________ cells.

A

B

218
Q

T cells and B cells can be activated only by

A

exposure to a specific antigen at a specific site in a plasma membrane.

219
Q

Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph Node
Use Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “1.”

A

afferent lymphatic vessel

220
Q

The human immunodeficiency virus (HIV) that causes the disease known as AIDS selectively infects ________ cells.

A

helper T

221
Q

Lymphocytes may be found in which of the following tissues or organs?

A

All of the answers are correct.

222
Q

________ are large lymphatic nodules that are located in the walls of the pharynx.

A

Tonsils

223
Q

Inflammation produces localized

A

All of the answers are correct.

224
Q

Lymphocytes are produced and stored in all of the following, except

A

the brain.

225
Q

Infection with the HIV virus occurs through

A

intimate contact with an infected person’s body fluids.

226
Q

Compared to blood capillaries, lymph capillaries exhibit all of the following, except that they

A

are smaller in diameter.

227
Q

The following are steps in the cell-mediated immune response.

  1. Several cycles of mitosis occur.
  2. Antigen is engulfed and presented by a macrophage.
  3. Cytotoxic T cells migrate to focus of infection.
  4. T cells with specific receptors recognize the antigen.
  5. T cells differentiate into cytotoxic T cells or T memory cells.
  6. Cytotoxic T cells release perforin and/or lymphotoxin.
A

2, 4, 1, 5, 3, 6.

228
Q

The first line of cellular defense against pathogens are the

A

phagocytes.

229
Q

Lymphocytes

A

respond to antigens

230
Q

An inflammatory response is triggered when

A

mast cells release histamine and heparin.

231
Q

In passive immunization, the

A

body receives antibodies produced by other humans or by an animal.

232
Q

Lymph nodes do all of the following, except that they

A

remove excess nutrients from the lymph.

233
Q

Class II MHC proteins are present in the plasma membrane only

A

in antigen-presenting cells and lymphocytes.

234
Q

Which of these is not a characteristic of AIDS?

A

is declining worldwide

235
Q

Class II MHC molecules are found only on which of the following?

A

lymphocytes and antigen-presenting cells

236
Q

The white pulp of the spleen is populated by

A

lymphocytes.

237
Q

Areas of the spleen that contain large aggregations of lymphocytes are known as

A

white pulp

238
Q

Most of the lymph returns to the venous circulation by way of the

A

thoracic duct

239
Q

The cells directly responsible for cellular immunity are the ________ cells.

A

cytotoxic T

240
Q

Suppressor T cells act to

A

inhibit T and B cell activities.

241
Q

Lymphatic capillaries are known for

A

All of the answers are correct.

242
Q

Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph Node
Use Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the structure labeled “6.”

A

outer cortex

243
Q

Stem cells that can form all types of lymphocytes are concentrated in the

A

red marrow

244
Q

Figure 22-1 The Structure of a Lymph Node
Use Figure 22-1 to answer the following questions:
Identify the dominant cell type in the area labeled “6.”

A

B cells

245
Q

Examples of physical barriers against pathogens include

A

All of the answers are correct.

246
Q

The thoracic duct drains lymph from all of the following regions, except the

A

right breast

247
Q

Which of these statements about lymph flow in a node is false?

A

The afferent lymphatics enters at the hilum.

Anatomy & Physiology (8 decks)

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