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Pharmacology > Final > Flashcards

Final Flashcards

1
Q

Which is a primary reason for cells to stop reproducing and growing?

A

apoptosis

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2
Q

What cell is responsible for clotting blood?

A

Thrombocytes

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3
Q

Which neurotransmitter causes skeletal muscle to contract if one receptor is stimulated and decreases the heart rate if a different receptor is stimulated?

A

acetylocholine

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4
Q

Which is the primary cholinergic neurotransmitter?

A

acetylocholine

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5
Q

Which is a cholinergic receptor?

A

nicotinic

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6
Q

Which is the major inhibitor neurotransmitter found in the brain?

A

GABA

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7
Q

When bronchioles are stimulated to dilate, which receptor is involved?

A

Beta-1

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8
Q

Which are the body’s responses when the sympathetic nervous system is stimulated?

A

Pupils dilate, heart strengthens contractions and bronchi dilate

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9
Q

Which part of the brain is responsible for vital functions, like respiration, vomiting, swallowing, coughing, and blood pressure regulation?

A

Brain stem

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10
Q

What tissues are most frequently affected by chemotherapy?

A

GI and bone marrow

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11
Q

Killed vaccines readily replicate within the host which makes them highly effective at stimulating the immune response to develop antibodies.

A

False

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12
Q

Which category of drug is used for sedation, muscle relaxation and anxiety?

A

benzodiazepine

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13
Q

An aggressive dog needs a physical exam and blood work. Which drug would allow us to examine the dog then send it home?

A

acepromazine

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14
Q

Which is an advantage of using inhalant anesthesia?

A

slow to change depth

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15
Q

Which category of drug stimulates mu and kappa receptors and is used for analgesia?

A

opioids

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16
Q

What do lidocaine, atropine, dopamine, and vasopressin have in common?

A

These agents are all used for cardiac emergencies and should be readily available in the crash cart

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17
Q

Hematinics

A

Substances that tend to promote an increase in oxygen-carrying capacity of blood

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18
Q

Erythropoietin
mimics the bodies hormone that is released by the ______ to stimulate RBC production by ________

A

Kidney; Bone marrow;

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19
Q

Erythropoietin used in

A

CRF

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20
Q

Iron

A

mineral necessary for the production of RBCs

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21
Q

Iron used in

A

piglet anemia and other mild anemias

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22
Q

Androgens

A

promote tissue anabolism, weight gain and RBC production

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23
Q

Androgens used in

A

CRF (less expensive that erythropoietin, but controlled)

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24
Q

Whole Blood

A

transfusion to increase the number of RBCs

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25
Q

Blood substitutes

A

hemoglobin-based oxygen carrier solutions

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26
Q

Oxyglobin

A

expensive, but long self-life and universally compatible

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27
Q

Coagulation

A

Designed to inhibit the loss of vital blood constituents from the circulatory system

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28
Q

Mechanical stage of coagulation

A

Platelet aggregation

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29
Q

Heparin

A

Green top tubes used for chemical analysis

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30
Q

Ethylenediaminetetraacetic acid (EDTA)

A

Lavender top tubes for CBC and morphology of cells

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31
Q

Coumarin derivatives

A

Prevention of thromboembolism, toxic levels must be monitored

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32
Q

Antiplatelet drugs

A

Prevention of thromboembolism; heartworm treatment and HCM (Aspirin)

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33
Q

Hemostatics

A

Substances that promote blood clotting

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34
Q

Topical agents

A

Provide a framework in which a clot may form or by coagulating blood protein to initiate clot formation. Used to control capillary bleeding or bleeding from other small vessels

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35
Q

Parenteral agents

A

Act as anticoagulant antagonists
◦ Protamine sulfate – used for heparin overdose
◦ Vitamin K1 – used to treat coumarin overdose or rat poisoning

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36
Q

Fibrinolytic Drugs

A

Used to break down or dissolve thrombi
May help to remove or reduce the size of the occluding thromboembolus and minimize tissue damage

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37
Q

Tumor

A

any tissue mass or swelling (broad term)

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38
Q

Neoplasia

A

abnormal growth of tissue into a mass that is not
responsive to normal cellular control mechanisms

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39
Q

Benign

A

grow locally, usually not invasive and rarely cause mortality

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40
Q

Malignant (cancer)

A

neoplasia that can cause destruction of tissue origin;
these can be locally invasive or cause metastasis (move to other tissues in the body)

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41
Q

Alkylating Agents

A

Cell cycle nonspecific used for various cancers

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42
Q

Anthracyclines

A

Cell cycle nonspecific used for lymphoproliferative cancers

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43
Q

Antimetabolites

A

S phase Cell cycle specific used for lymphoproliferative, Gi, and liver cancers

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44
Q

Antitubulin Agents

A

M phase Cell cycle specific used for carcinomas, mast cell and splenic

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45
Q

Immunosuppressive drugs

A

Used in veterinary medicine to treat various immune-mediated
disorders; particularly atopic dermatitis

46
Q

Rabies vaccine

A

Distal right rear leg

47
Q

Feline leukemia virus (FeLV)

A

Distal left rear leg

48
Q

All other vaccines

A

Right shoulder area

49
Q

Location of vaccine administration also important in cattle

A

Lateral cervical neck

50
Q

In horses, most vaccines are administered via subcutaneous and intramuscular route

A

In lateral cervical neck or semitendinosus

51
Q

Active Immunity

A
  1. Most vaccinations stimulate the immune system to activate B-cells, T- cells and produce antibodies & memory cells to that organism
  2. Vaccine types differ in their ability to produce an adequate immune
    response
52
Q

Passive Immunity

A
  1. The patient’s immune system does not get activated.
    2 The patient gets antibodies that are ready to fight
53
Q

Inactivated (killed) vaccines

A

Requires repeat dosing to get adequate response and response can be short

54
Q

Live vaccines

A

May be fully virulent or avirulent and therefore cause illness

55
Q

Modified live (attenuated) vaccines

A

Effective vaccines, that produce long lived response with fewer repeated doses

56
Q

Recombinant vaccines

A

Fewer side effects and produce effective immunity

57
Q

Toxoid vaccines

A

Produces immunity to a toxin instead of an organism

58
Q

Antitoxin vaccines

A

◦ Produce immediate passive immunity
◦ Immunity is short lived (about 7 to 14 days)

59
Q

Antiserum

A

Kills living, infectious antigens
◦ Immunity is short lived
◦ Do not vaccine within 21 days after antiserum is given

60
Q

Autogenous vaccine

A

Contains organisms isolated from an infected animal on a farm where a disease outbreak is occurring

61
Q

Mixed vaccine

A

◦ Contains a mixture of different antigens
◦ Also referred to as a “polyvalent vaccine” when two or more strains/serotypes of the same antigen are used in a vaccine

62
Q

Boosters allow vaccines to produce an

A

optimum immune response

63
Q

In most cases, an adequate immune response is not achieved before 10 to 14 days

A

10-14 days

64
Q

Live vaccines are especially affected by

A

concurrent antibiotic therapy

65
Q

Most notable risks involving vaccination responses

A
  1. Residual virulence and toxicity
    ◦ Allergic reactions resulting from hypersensitivity
    ◦ Disease in immunosuppressed animals
    ◦ Possible effects on a fetus
    ◦ Abortion
66
Q

Hypersensitivity can be caused by several factors
T or F

A

True

67
Q

Core vaccines

A

Recommended for most animals to protect them from highly contagious diseases that are widespread in the environment

68
Q

Noncore vaccines

A

Optional vaccines that should still be considered for animals at risk for developing disease based on geographic location and the lifestyle of the
animal

69
Q

Canine core vaccines

A

Canine distemper virus
◦ Canine adenovirus type-2
◦ Canine parainfluenza
◦ Canine parvovirus
◦ Rabies vaccine (1 year or 3 year)

70
Q

Canine noncore vaccines

A

Canine leptospirosis
◦ B. bronchiseptica
◦ Canine influenza
◦ Canine coronavirus
◦ Canine Giardia
◦ Canine B. burgdorferi (Lyme)

71
Q

Feline core vaccines

A

FHerpesVirus-1
◦ FCaliciVirus
◦ FPanleukopeniaVirus
◦ Rabies vaccin

72
Q

Feline noncore vaccines

A

Feline leukemia virus (core for all kittens)
◦ FIV
◦ Feline chlamydia felis
◦ Feline B. bronchiseptica

73
Q

Equine core vaccines

A

Tetanus
◦ Eastern/western equine encephalomyelitis (EEE/WEE)
◦ West Nile virus
◦ Rabies

74
Q

Bovine core vaccines (AABP Vaccination Guidelines 2021)

A

Infectious Bovine Rhinotracheitis
◦ B Respiratory Syncytial Virus
◦ B Viral Diarrhea type 1 and 2
◦ ParaInfluenza 3
◦ Clostridial diseases

75
Q

Sheep core vaccines

A

Clostridium perfringens type C
◦ Clostridium perfringens type D
◦ Clostridium tetani

76
Q

Goat core vaccines

A

Clostridium perfringens type C
◦ Clostridium perfringens type D
◦ Clostridium tetani

77
Q

Parasympathetic and Neuromuscular

A

Acetylcholine

78
Q

Alpha-1

A

vasoconstriction

79
Q

Alpha-2

A

generally inhibitory

80
Q

Beta-1

A

increase heart rate and force, stimulate renin system

81
Q

Beta-2

A

vasodilation and bronchodilation

82
Q

Parasympathetic nervous system (cholinergic)

A

Muscarinic – stimulate parasympathetic

83
Q

Neuromuscular junction

A

Nicotinic – stimulate skeletal muscle contraction

84
Q

Inhalant

A

◦ Used for general anesthesia and considered very safe

85
Q

Injectable anesthetic

A

Use for anesthetic induction or general anesthesia when given by bolus or CRI

86
Q

Barbiturates

A

Use to be used for anesthesia, but rare now

87
Q

Barbiturates can cause

A

severe cardiac and respiratory depression

88
Q

Barbiturates; highly fat soluble, must be used with caution in

A

sight hounds or very thin animals

89
Q

Methods of delivering high concentrations of supplemental oxygen

A

Nasal catheters
◦ Nasal cannulas
◦ Oxygen cages
◦ Oxygen masks

90
Q

Commonly Used Emergency Drugs

A

Antihistamines
Anticholinergics
Cholinergic blockers
Beta-2 adrenergics
Methylxanthines

91
Q

Corticosteroids used to treat

A

Inflammation
◦ Anaphylaxis
◦ Spinal cord injury
◦ Immune mediated diseases

92
Q

Lidocaine

A

Local anesthetic used to treat ventricular tachycardia and ventricular premature complexes

93
Q

Propanol

A

Reduces heart rate, blood pressure, and cardiac output

94
Q

Atenolol

A

Beta-blocker that is primarily used as an antiarrhythmic to reduce heart rate and blood pressure

95
Q

Furosemide is most commonly used in the treatment of _________ due to its ability to decrease preload through _________

A

heart failure
diuresis

96
Q

Mannitol is an ______that promotes diuresis by increasing osmotic pressure in the renal tubules. Reduces water reabsorption thereby increasing

A

osmotic diuretic
urine production and diuresis

97
Q

Inotropes

A

contractility of the heart muscle by increasing the strength of contractions

98
Q

Digoxin

A

Decreases heart rate, increases strength of heart contractions, and regulates heart rhythm

99
Q

Dopamine

A

Used to treat shock, congestive heart failure, and to increase renal perfusion

100
Q

Dobutamine

A

Used for short-term treatment of heart failure

101
Q

Vasodilators

A

Used to decrease preload and decrease afterload to improve cardiac output

102
Q

Giving vasodilators will dilate (open) the vessels and

A

decrease resistance

103
Q

Nitroglycerin

A

Used primarily in heart failure to improve cardiac output and decrease pulmonary edema

104
Q

Diazepam

A

not for long term

105
Q

Chlorpromazine

A

Phenothiazine tranquilizer that is used to control
vomiting associated with gastrointestinal inflammation, parvo virus, and vomiting from chemotherapy

106
Q

Metoclopramide hydrochloride

A

Used to control vomiting and to treat gastric motility disorders

107
Q

Emetics

A

induce vomiting

108
Q

Must be administered within 2 to 6 hours of toxic ingestion to be ?

A

effective

109
Q

Long-acting barbiturates are used to prevent seizures

A

Phenobarbital

110
Q

Short-acting barbiturates are used in euthanasia solutions

A

Pentobarbital

111
Q

Anticonvulsants

A

Drugs used to control seizures

112
Q

Water-soluble B vitamin used for the treatment or prevention of

A

thiamine deficiency

Pharmacology (15 decks)

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