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PHARMACOLOGY 2 Vet Tech > Fill-in-the-Blank Neurological Drugs > Flashcards

Fill-in-the-Blank Neurological Drugs Flashcards

1
Q

This type of drug (not a specific drug) that reduces the perception of pain.

A

analgesics

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2
Q

This type of drug (not a specific drug) that reduces or relieves anxiety.

A

tranquilizers

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3
Q

This type of drug (not a specific drug) that makes the patient sleepy, but the patient can still be easily aroused.

A

sedatives

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4
Q

This type of drug (not a specific drug) that removes all sensations.

A

anesthetics

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5
Q

This type of drug (not a specific drug) that increases CNS activity.

A

stimulants

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6
Q

This type of drug (not a specific drug) that reduces seizure activity.

A

anticonvulsants

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7
Q

The term means pain receptors.

A

nociceptors

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8
Q

This is the term that describes the conversion of physical trauma to a pain nerve signal.

A

transduction

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9
Q

This is the term that describes the stage of pain pathway where the pain impulses travel up the sensory nerve.

A

transmission

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10
Q

This is the pain pathway process by which the pain signal is modified as it passes through the spinal cord.

A

modulation

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11
Q

This is the term that describes how after trauma more nociceptors begin to fire over time to increase the perception of pain.

A

hyperalgesia

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12
Q

This term describes how inflammation from trauma increases the firing of other sensory receptors besides nociceptors that can be perceived as increased pain.

A

hyperesthesia

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13
Q

This is the term that describes how after trauma the dampening of pain signals within the spinal cord lessens over time resulting in an increased perception of pain.

A

wind up

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14
Q

This is the compound derived from poppy seeds.

A

opiate

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15
Q

This is the term that describes opium-like drug.

A

opioid

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16
Q

This is the state of sleepiness from which the patient is NOT easily aroused.

A

narcosis

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17
Q

This is a term that describes the type of drug that combines a tranquilizer plus a sedative.

A

neuroleptanalgesics

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18
Q

This is the opioid receptor that accounts for most of the analgesia when stimulated.

A

mu receptors

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19
Q

This is the other opioid receptor that accounts for some analgesia but not as much as the mu receptor.

A

kappa receptors

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20
Q

This term describes an opioid drug that produces the maximal effect on an opioid receptor.

A

full opioid agonist

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21
Q

This term describes an opioid drug that has a weaker effect on an opioid receptor than other stronger drugs, but still does have some effect on the opioid receptor.

A

partial agonist/partial antagonist

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22
Q

This term describes an opioid drug that stimulates both mu and kappa receptors.

A

mixed opioid agonist

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23
Q

This term describes an opioid drug that stimulates mu opioid receptors to the maximum amount.

A

full mu agonist

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24
Q

This term describes an opioid drug that has a weaker stimulatory effect on the mu receptor compared to other stronger mu stimulating drugs.

A

partial mu agonist

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25
Q

A drug that stimulates weaker analgesia via kappa receptor stimulation, but at the same time blocks the mu receptor would be called this.

A

full kappa agonist (partial or full mu antagonist)

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26
Q

Unpleasant hallucinations.

A

dysphoria

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27
Q

Constipation from use of analgesics.

A

opioid-induced constipation

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28
Q

What is the prototype opioid drug against which most other opioid drugs are compared?

A

morphine

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29
Q

Type of pain that originates from the organs of the body.

A

visceral pain

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30
Q

Type of pain that originates from discrete locations on the surface of the body.

A

somatic pain

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31
Q

Receptor(s) on which morphine is an agonist.

A

mu receptors

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32
Q

Term used to describe hydromorphone or oxymorphone activity on the mu receptor.

A

full mu agonists

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33
Q

This change in body temperature occurs with hydromorphone or oxymorphone.

A

hyperthermia

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34
Q

Strong opioid administered by a patch.

A

fentanyl

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35
Q

This term means that when an opioid is given and achieves a certain level of analgesia, giving more of the opioid will NOT increase the depth of analgesia.

A

ceiling effect

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36
Q

Mixed agonist/antagonist opioid; ceiling effect; short duration; cough suppressant.

A

butorphanol

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37
Q

Mixed agonist, strong kappa effect; ceiling effect; longer duration than butorphanol; can be sprayed in mouth of fractious cats.

A

buprenorphine

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38
Q

Mu agonist, alpha 2 agonist analgesic; should not be used with antidepressant drugs.

A

tramadol

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39
Q

Pure opioid antagonist drug.

A

naloxone

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40
Q

This is another term for a tranquilizer type drug.

A

ANXIOLYTIC DRUG

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41
Q

This type of drug makes an animal sleepy, but they can be easily aroused.

A

SEDATIVE

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42
Q

These is a condition of sleepiness from which the animal is not easily awakened.

A

NARCOSIS

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43
Q

This term is applied to drugs that are “narcotic” or produce a sleep associated with narcosis.

A

HYPNOTIC

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44
Q

Phenothiazine tranquilizer.

A

ACEPROMAZINE

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45
Q

Receptor phenothiazines work on to produce most of their tranquilization and antiemetic effect.

A

DOPAMINE RECEPTOR

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46
Q

Receptor phenothiazines work on to add to tranquilization but would interfere with the results of allergy skin testing.

A

HISTAMINE RECEPTOR

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47
Q

Receptor phenothiazines interact with that makes phenothiazines contraindicated for use in animals that are hypotensive.

A

ALPHA 1 RECEPTOR

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48
Q

This appears in the eye as a side effect of phenothiazine tranquilization.

A

NICTITATING MEMBRANE (3RD EYELID)

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49
Q

This side effect of acepromazine is of concern in breeding stallions.

A

TRANSIENT PENILE PROLAPSE

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50
Q

Valium (brand name – what is the generic name for?)

A

DIAZEPAM

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51
Q

Benzodiazepine that is paired with tiletamine in Telazol®.

A

zolazepam

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52
Q

Benzodiazepine that is a secondary anticonvulsant drug.

A

CLONAZEPAM

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53
Q

Reverses the effects of diazepam or midazolam.

A

FLUMAZENIL

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54
Q

Receptor on which drugs like detomidine and medetomidine work.

A

ALPHA 2

55
Q

Rompun (brand name – what is generic name for?)

A

XYLAZINE

56
Q

Neurotransmitter decreased by action on alpha 2 receptor.

A

NOREPINEPHRINE

57
Q

This means that once analgesia has been achieved with an alpha 2 agonist drug, further administration of alpha 2 agonist drug will NOT produce any greater level of analgesia.

A

CEILING EFFECT

58
Q

Xylazine type drugs cause an initial increase in blood pressure by stimulating what receptor?

A

ALPHA 1

59
Q

As a result of the initial increase in blood pressure above, what effect does this have on heart rate?

A

DECREASED HEART RATE

60
Q

If the alpha 1 stimulation effect from a drug starts to decrease, what happens to the diameter of the arterioles?

A

INCREASED DIAMETER OF ARTERIOLES => VASODILATION

61
Q

Dilation of arterioles does what to arterial blood pressure?

A

DECREASES ARTERIAL BLOOD PRESSURE

62
Q

Which species of livestock is very sensitive to the effects of alpha 2 agonists.

A

CATTLE

63
Q

What are the two reversal agents for the effects for drugs like xylazine or detomidine?

A

YOHIMBINE AND ATIPAMEZOLE

64
Q

Term that describes reversible loss of all sensations associated with unconsciousness?

A

GENERAL ANESTHESIA

65
Q

Term that describes reversible loss of all sensation in a small area without loss of consciousness?

A

LOCAL ANESTHESIA

66
Q

Short acting barbiturate.

A

PENTOBARBITAL

67
Q

Long acting barbiturate used orally to control epileptic seizures.

A

PHENOBARBITAL

68
Q

Drug that has largely replaced barbiturates to induce anesthesia.

A

PROPOFOL

69
Q

Receptor propofol stimulates to produce nervous system depression.

A

GABA RECEPTOR

70
Q

Ion that flows into neuron when GABA receptor is stimulated that results in nervous system depression.

A

CHLORIDE (CL-) ION

71
Q

Receptor propofol inhibits to produce anesthesia.

A

N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) RECEPTOR

72
Q

Means “not breathing”.

A

APNEA

73
Q

Drug that induces anesthesia but may cause Heinz body anemia in cats.

A

PROPOFOL

74
Q

What are the two dissociative anesthetic drugs used in veterinary medicine?

A

KETAMINE

75
Q

Dissociative anesthetic found in Telazol.

A

TILETAMINE

76
Q

What is the state induced by dissociative anesthetics?

A

CATALEPTIC STATE

77
Q

Receptor antagonized by ketamine or tiletamine to produce analgesia?

A

NMDA RECEPTOR

78
Q

Part of the autonomic nervous system active under the effects of dissociative anesthetics.

A

SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM

79
Q

What drugs are given with dissociative anesthetics to produce more muscle relaxation?

A

BENZODIAZEPINES OR ALPHA 2 AGONISTS

80
Q

Short acting anesthetic agent that enhances GABA inhibitory effect on CNS, but is not propofol.

A

ETOMIDATE

81
Q

Term used to describe the increased muscle tone observed with ketamine, tiletamine, and etomidate.

A

WAXY RIGIDITY

82
Q

Neurosteroid anesthetic agent.

A

ALFAXALONE

83
Q

Receptor site for afaxalone.

A

GABA RECEPTOR

84
Q

Concentration used as a measure of potency for the effect of the anesthetic gas.

A

MINIMUM ALVEOLAR CONCENTRATION (MAC)

85
Q

Anesthetic gas that has a potent pungent, musty odor making it hard to mask patient down with it; causes vasodilation which likely has minimal effect in a healthy patient but could be a problem in a hypotensive patient.

A

ISOFLURANE

86
Q

Anesthetic gas that has faster induction and recovery than isoflurane; good for use in C-sections for that reason.

A

SEVOFLURANE

87
Q

Anesthetic gas that is the most commonly used anesthetic gas in veterinary medicine.

A

ISOFLURANE

88
Q

Anesthetic gas that requires a special heated and pressurized vaporizer to deliver the anesthetic liquid into a gas form.

A

DESFLURANE

89
Q

Anesthetic gas that provides the most precise control over anesthetic depth of the three gasses described.

A

DESFLURANE

90
Q

Weak anesthetic gas added to other stronger anesthetic gasses to reduce the need for the stronger gas.

A

NITROUS OXIDE

91
Q

Anesthetic gas contraindicated for use in animals that may have a damaged segment of bowel that could rupture if inflated with gas.

A

NITROUS OXIDE

92
Q

Class of CNS stimulants that includes caffeine.

A

METHYLXANTHINES

93
Q

Toxic component of chocolate that is also a CNS stimulant.

A

THEOBROMINE

94
Q

CNS stimulant typically found in migraine headache medications, pep pills, and diet pills.

A

CAFFEINE

95
Q

Type of chocolate that contains the most concentration of theobromine.

A

BAKER’S CHOCOLATE

96
Q

Two types of bronchodilators that are also CNS stimulants.

A

AMINOPHYLLINE AND THEOPHYLLINE

97
Q

CNS stimulant drug used to stimulate respiratory rate and depth of breathing.

A

DOXAPRAM

98
Q

Type of CNS stimulants that work by allowing more norepinephrine to be released.

A

ALPHA 2 ANTAGONISTS

99
Q

Two alpha-antagonist CNS stimulants.

A

YOHIMBINE AND ATIPAMEZOLE

100
Q

Type of CNS stimulant that works by blocking the mu receptors.

A

NALOXONE

101
Q

An opioid antagonist.

A

NALOXONE

102
Q

Defined as periods of excessive brain electrical activity

A

SEIZURE

103
Q

Type of seizure in which the seizure is manifests itself in one limb or one area of the body.

A

FOCAL SEIZURE

104
Q

Type of seizure that results in movement involving the whole body.

A

GENERALIZED SEIZURE

105
Q

Generalized term for spastic muscle movements as the result of a seizure.

A

CONVULSION

106
Q

Type of convulsion in which the limbs become rigid from sustained muscle contraction.

A

TONIC CONVULSION

107
Q

Type of convulsion in which the limbs rapidly alternate between contractions and relaxation (jerking movements).

A

CLONIC CONVULSION

108
Q

Mixture of convulsive signs in which there is rigidity of the limbs followed by rapid alteration of tonus and clonus (jerking movements).

A

TONIC-CLONIC CONVULSION

109
Q

Disease that is characterized by recurring seizures originating from the brain.

A

EPILEPSY

110
Q

Type of epilepsy for which there is no identifiable cause.

A

IDIOPATHIC EPILEPSY

111
Q

The state of being in a seizure.

A

STATUS EPILEPTICUS

112
Q

Clinical signs that occur just prior to a seizure.

A

PRODROME OR PRODROMAL PHASE

113
Q

Another term for the seizure itself.

A

ICTUS

114
Q

Period of time immediately after the seizure characterized by behavior changes, confusion, etc.

A

POST-ICTAL PHASE

115
Q

Drug of choice for long term control of seizure activity.

A

PHENOBARBITAL

116
Q

Neurotransmitter affected by phenobarbital.

A

GAMMA AMINO BUTYRIC ACID (GABA)

117
Q

Ion that flows into neuron to cause hyperpolarization with GABA receptor stimulation.

A

CHLORIDE (CL-)

118
Q

Organ that metabolizes phenobarbital.

A

LIVER

119
Q

Enzyme family that metabolizes phenobarbital.

A

MIXED-FUNCTION OXIDASES (MFOs)

120
Q

Specific members of the enzyme family that metabolizes phenobarbital.

A

CYTOCHROME P450

121
Q

Means that the rate of metabolism of a drug has been sped up.

A

INDUCED METABOLISM

122
Q

This term describes the checking of a drug’s concentration in the blood in order to adjust the dosage level.

A

THERAPEUTIC MONITORING

123
Q

Two liver-related enzymes that will increase on the blood chemistry profile test after administration of phenobarbital.

A

ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE (ALP) AND ALANINE AMINOTRANSFERASE (ALT)

124
Q

This is a liver disease caused by a drug.

A

DRUG INDUCED HEPATOPATHY

125
Q

This term means that an adverse reaction is not dose related and is unpredictable as to which animal is going to experience it.

A

IDIOSYNCRATIC REACTION

126
Q

Adverse reaction to phenobarbital in which the animal appears anxious, paces, whines excessively.

A

HYPERACTIVITY SYNDROME

127
Q

Drug of choice for treatment of status epilepticus.

A

DIAZEPAM

128
Q

Benzodiazepines work by enhancing the effect of this neurotransmitter.

A

GABA NEUROTRANSMITTER

129
Q

This is the phenomenon in which a PO administered drug is largely removed from the blood coming from the GI tract before the drug can reach systemic circulation.

A

FIRST PASS EFFECT

130
Q

Dosage form of diazepam that can be given at home that by-passes the liver’s first pass effect; used by pet owners at home if pet has a seizure.

A

SUPPOSITORY

131
Q

Added to phenobarbital to control seizures in an animal in which phenobarbital does not control the seizure adequately by itself.

A

POTASSIUM BROMIDE (KBr)

132
Q

Type of pain that originates from the nerve itself.

A

NEUROPATHIC PAIN

133
Q

Anticonvulsant drug used to treat neuropathic pain.

A

GABAPENTIN

PHARMACOLOGY 2 Vet Tech (8 decks)

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