Fill-in-the-Blank Neurological Drugs Flashcards
1
Q
This type of drug (not a specific drug) that reduces the perception of pain.
A
analgesics
2
Q
This type of drug (not a specific drug) that reduces or relieves anxiety.
A
tranquilizers
3
Q
This type of drug (not a specific drug) that makes the patient sleepy, but the patient can still be easily aroused.
A
sedatives
4
Q
This type of drug (not a specific drug) that removes all sensations.
A
anesthetics
5
Q
This type of drug (not a specific drug) that increases CNS activity.
A
stimulants
6
Q
This type of drug (not a specific drug) that reduces seizure activity.
A
anticonvulsants
7
Q
The term means pain receptors.
A
nociceptors
8
Q
This is the term that describes the conversion of physical trauma to a pain nerve signal.
A
transduction
9
Q
This is the term that describes the stage of pain pathway where the pain impulses travel up the sensory nerve.
A
transmission
10
Q
This is the pain pathway process by which the pain signal is modified as it passes through the spinal cord.
A
modulation
11
Q
This is the term that describes how after trauma more nociceptors begin to fire over time to increase the perception of pain.
A
hyperalgesia
12
Q
This term describes how inflammation from trauma increases the firing of other sensory receptors besides nociceptors that can be perceived as increased pain.
A
hyperesthesia
13
Q
This is the term that describes how after trauma the dampening of pain signals within the spinal cord lessens over time resulting in an increased perception of pain.
A
wind up
14
Q
This is the compound derived from poppy seeds.
A
opiate
15
Q
This is the term that describes opium-like drug.
A
opioid
16
Q
This is the state of sleepiness from which the patient is NOT easily aroused.
A
narcosis
17
Q
This is a term that describes the type of drug that combines a tranquilizer plus a sedative.
A
neuroleptanalgesics
18
Q
This is the opioid receptor that accounts for most of the analgesia when stimulated.
A
mu receptors
19
Q
This is the other opioid receptor that accounts for some analgesia but not as much as the mu receptor.
A
kappa receptors
20
Q
This term describes an opioid drug that produces the maximal effect on an opioid receptor.
A
full opioid agonist
21
Q
This term describes an opioid drug that has a weaker effect on an opioid receptor than other stronger drugs, but still does have some effect on the opioid receptor.
A
partial agonist/partial antagonist
22
Q
This term describes an opioid drug that stimulates both mu and kappa receptors.
A
mixed opioid agonist
23
Q
This term describes an opioid drug that stimulates mu opioid receptors to the maximum amount.
A
full mu agonist
24
Q
This term describes an opioid drug that has a weaker stimulatory effect on the mu receptor compared to other stronger mu stimulating drugs.
A
partial mu agonist
25
A drug that stimulates weaker analgesia via kappa receptor stimulation, but at the same time blocks the mu receptor would be called this.
full kappa agonist (partial or full mu antagonist)
26
Unpleasant hallucinations.
dysphoria
27
Constipation from use of analgesics.
opioid-induced constipation
28
What is the prototype opioid drug against which most other opioid drugs are compared?
morphine
29
Type of pain that originates from the organs of the body.
visceral pain
30
Type of pain that originates from discrete locations on the surface of the body.
somatic pain
31
Receptor(s) on which morphine is an agonist.
mu receptors
32
Term used to describe hydromorphone or oxymorphone activity on the mu receptor.
full mu agonists
33
This change in body temperature occurs with hydromorphone or oxymorphone.
hyperthermia
34
Strong opioid administered by a patch.
fentanyl
35
This term means that when an opioid is given and achieves a certain level of analgesia, giving more of the opioid will NOT increase the depth of analgesia.
ceiling effect
36
Mixed agonist/antagonist opioid; ceiling effect; short duration; cough suppressant.
butorphanol
37
Mixed agonist, strong kappa effect; ceiling effect; longer duration than butorphanol; can be sprayed in mouth of fractious cats.
buprenorphine
38
Mu agonist, alpha 2 agonist analgesic; should not be used with antidepressant drugs.
tramadol
39
Pure opioid antagonist drug.
naloxone
40
This is another term for a tranquilizer type drug.
ANXIOLYTIC DRUG
41
This type of drug makes an animal sleepy, but they can be easily aroused.
SEDATIVE
42
These is a condition of sleepiness from which the animal is not easily awakened.
NARCOSIS
43
This term is applied to drugs that are “narcotic” or produce a sleep associated with narcosis.
HYPNOTIC
44
Phenothiazine tranquilizer.
ACEPROMAZINE
45
Receptor phenothiazines work on to produce most of their tranquilization and antiemetic effect.
DOPAMINE RECEPTOR
46
Receptor phenothiazines work on to add to tranquilization but would interfere with the results of allergy skin testing.
HISTAMINE RECEPTOR
47
Receptor phenothiazines interact with that makes phenothiazines contraindicated for use in animals that are hypotensive.
ALPHA 1 RECEPTOR
48
This appears in the eye as a side effect of phenothiazine tranquilization.
NICTITATING MEMBRANE (3RD EYELID)
49
This side effect of acepromazine is of concern in breeding stallions.
TRANSIENT PENILE PROLAPSE
50
Valium (brand name -- what is the generic name for?)
DIAZEPAM
51
Benzodiazepine that is paired with tiletamine in Telazol®.
zolazepam
52
Benzodiazepine that is a secondary anticonvulsant drug.
CLONAZEPAM
53
Reverses the effects of diazepam or midazolam.
FLUMAZENIL
54
Receptor on which drugs like detomidine and medetomidine work.
ALPHA 2
55
Rompun (brand name -- what is generic name for?)
XYLAZINE
56
Neurotransmitter decreased by action on alpha 2 receptor.
NOREPINEPHRINE
57
This means that once analgesia has been achieved with an alpha 2 agonist drug, further administration of alpha 2 agonist drug will NOT produce any greater level of analgesia.
CEILING EFFECT
58
Xylazine type drugs cause an initial increase in blood pressure by stimulating what receptor?
ALPHA 1
59
As a result of the initial increase in blood pressure above, what effect does this have on heart rate?
DECREASED HEART RATE
60
If the alpha 1 stimulation effect from a drug starts to decrease, what happens to the diameter of the arterioles?
INCREASED DIAMETER OF ARTERIOLES => VASODILATION
61
Dilation of arterioles does what to arterial blood pressure?
DECREASES ARTERIAL BLOOD PRESSURE
62
Which species of livestock is very sensitive to the effects of alpha 2 agonists.
CATTLE
63
What are the two reversal agents for the effects for drugs like xylazine or detomidine?
YOHIMBINE AND ATIPAMEZOLE
64
Term that describes reversible loss of all sensations associated with unconsciousness?
GENERAL ANESTHESIA
65
Term that describes reversible loss of all sensation in a small area without loss of consciousness?
LOCAL ANESTHESIA
66
Short acting barbiturate.
PENTOBARBITAL
67
Long acting barbiturate used orally to control epileptic seizures.
PHENOBARBITAL
68
Drug that has largely replaced barbiturates to induce anesthesia.
PROPOFOL
69
Receptor propofol stimulates to produce nervous system depression.
GABA RECEPTOR
70
Ion that flows into neuron when GABA receptor is stimulated that results in nervous system depression.
CHLORIDE (CL-) ION
71
Receptor propofol inhibits to produce anesthesia.
N-methyl-D-aspartate (NMDA) RECEPTOR
72
Means “not breathing”.
APNEA
73
Drug that induces anesthesia but may cause Heinz body anemia in cats.
PROPOFOL
74
What are the two dissociative anesthetic drugs used in veterinary medicine?
KETAMINE
75
Dissociative anesthetic found in Telazol.
TILETAMINE
76
What is the state induced by dissociative anesthetics?
CATALEPTIC STATE
77
Receptor antagonized by ketamine or tiletamine to produce analgesia?
NMDA RECEPTOR
78
Part of the autonomic nervous system active under the effects of dissociative anesthetics.
SYMPATHETIC NERVOUS SYSTEM
79
What drugs are given with dissociative anesthetics to produce more muscle relaxation?
BENZODIAZEPINES OR ALPHA 2 AGONISTS
80
Short acting anesthetic agent that enhances GABA inhibitory effect on CNS, but is not propofol.
ETOMIDATE
81
Term used to describe the increased muscle tone observed with ketamine, tiletamine, and etomidate.
WAXY RIGIDITY
82
Neurosteroid anesthetic agent.
ALFAXALONE
83
Receptor site for afaxalone.
GABA RECEPTOR
84
Concentration used as a measure of potency for the effect of the anesthetic gas.
MINIMUM ALVEOLAR CONCENTRATION (MAC)
85
Anesthetic gas that has a potent pungent, musty odor making it hard to mask patient down with it; causes vasodilation which likely has minimal effect in a healthy patient but could be a problem in a hypotensive patient.
ISOFLURANE
86
Anesthetic gas that has faster induction and recovery than isoflurane; good for use in C-sections for that reason.
SEVOFLURANE
87
Anesthetic gas that is the most commonly used anesthetic gas in veterinary medicine.
ISOFLURANE
88
Anesthetic gas that requires a special heated and pressurized vaporizer to deliver the anesthetic liquid into a gas form.
DESFLURANE
89
Anesthetic gas that provides the most precise control over anesthetic depth of the three gasses described.
DESFLURANE
90
Weak anesthetic gas added to other stronger anesthetic gasses to reduce the need for the stronger gas.
NITROUS OXIDE
91
Anesthetic gas contraindicated for use in animals that may have a damaged segment of bowel that could rupture if inflated with gas.
NITROUS OXIDE
92
Class of CNS stimulants that includes caffeine.
METHYLXANTHINES
93
Toxic component of chocolate that is also a CNS stimulant.
THEOBROMINE
94
CNS stimulant typically found in migraine headache medications, pep pills, and diet pills.
CAFFEINE
95
Type of chocolate that contains the most concentration of theobromine.
BAKER'S CHOCOLATE
96
Two types of bronchodilators that are also CNS stimulants.
AMINOPHYLLINE AND THEOPHYLLINE
97
CNS stimulant drug used to stimulate respiratory rate and depth of breathing.
DOXAPRAM
98
Type of CNS stimulants that work by allowing more norepinephrine to be released.
ALPHA 2 ANTAGONISTS
99
Two alpha-antagonist CNS stimulants.
YOHIMBINE AND ATIPAMEZOLE
100
Type of CNS stimulant that works by blocking the mu receptors.
NALOXONE
101
An opioid antagonist.
NALOXONE
102
Defined as periods of excessive brain electrical activity
SEIZURE
103
Type of seizure in which the seizure is manifests itself in one limb or one area of the body.
FOCAL SEIZURE
104
Type of seizure that results in movement involving the whole body.
GENERALIZED SEIZURE
105
Generalized term for spastic muscle movements as the result of a seizure.
CONVULSION
106
Type of convulsion in which the limbs become rigid from sustained muscle contraction.
TONIC CONVULSION
107
Type of convulsion in which the limbs rapidly alternate between contractions and relaxation (jerking movements).
CLONIC CONVULSION
108
Mixture of convulsive signs in which there is rigidity of the limbs followed by rapid alteration of tonus and clonus (jerking movements).
TONIC-CLONIC CONVULSION
109
Disease that is characterized by recurring seizures originating from the brain.
EPILEPSY
110
Type of epilepsy for which there is no identifiable cause.
IDIOPATHIC EPILEPSY
111
The state of being in a seizure.
STATUS EPILEPTICUS
112
Clinical signs that occur just prior to a seizure.
PRODROME OR PRODROMAL PHASE
113
Another term for the seizure itself.
ICTUS
114
Period of time immediately after the seizure characterized by behavior changes, confusion, etc.
POST-ICTAL PHASE
115
Drug of choice for long term control of seizure activity.
PHENOBARBITAL
116
Neurotransmitter affected by phenobarbital.
GAMMA AMINO BUTYRIC ACID (GABA)
117
Ion that flows into neuron to cause hyperpolarization with GABA receptor stimulation.
CHLORIDE (CL-)
118
Organ that metabolizes phenobarbital.
LIVER
119
Enzyme family that metabolizes phenobarbital.
MIXED-FUNCTION OXIDASES (MFOs)
120
Specific members of the enzyme family that metabolizes phenobarbital.
CYTOCHROME P450
121
Means that the rate of metabolism of a drug has been sped up.
INDUCED METABOLISM
122
This term describes the checking of a drug’s concentration in the blood in order to adjust the dosage level.
THERAPEUTIC MONITORING
123
Two liver-related enzymes that will increase on the blood chemistry profile test after administration of phenobarbital.
ALKALINE PHOSPHATASE (ALP) AND ALANINE AMINOTRANSFERASE (ALT)
124
This is a liver disease caused by a drug.
DRUG INDUCED HEPATOPATHY
125
This term means that an adverse reaction is not dose related and is unpredictable as to which animal is going to experience it.
IDIOSYNCRATIC REACTION
126
Adverse reaction to phenobarbital in which the animal appears anxious, paces, whines excessively.
HYPERACTIVITY SYNDROME
127
Drug of choice for treatment of status epilepticus.
DIAZEPAM
128
Benzodiazepines work by enhancing the effect of this neurotransmitter.
GABA NEUROTRANSMITTER
129
This is the phenomenon in which a PO administered drug is largely removed from the blood coming from the GI tract before the drug can reach systemic circulation.
FIRST PASS EFFECT
130
Dosage form of diazepam that can be given at home that by-passes the liver’s first pass effect; used by pet owners at home if pet has a seizure.
SUPPOSITORY
131
Added to phenobarbital to control seizures in an animal in which phenobarbital does not control the seizure adequately by itself.
POTASSIUM BROMIDE (KBr)
132
Type of pain that originates from the nerve itself.
NEUROPATHIC PAIN
133
Anticonvulsant drug used to treat neuropathic pain.
GABAPENTIN
