Fill-in-the-Blank Antibiotics Flashcards
1
Q
A term that describes the type of drug that could kill or inhibit bacteria, viruses, fungi, or protozoa.
A
ANTIMICROBIAL
2
Q
A term that describes the type of drug that kills microbes but specifically is used to describe a drug that kills primarily bacteria.
A
ANTIBIOTIC
3
Q
A term applied to any drug that “kills bacteria”.
A
BACTERICIDAL
4
Q
A term applied to any drug that “inhibits the growth of bacteria”.
A
BACTERIOSTATIC
5
Q
A term applied to any drug that inhibits the growth of fungi.
A
FUNGISTATIC
6
Q
A term applied to any drug that kills viruses.
A
VIRUCIDAL
7
Q
The term that describes the types of microbes killed or inhibited by the drug.
A
SPECTRUM OF ACTIVITY
8
Q
A term that means “without oxygen”.
A
ANAEROBIC
9
Q
The term used to describe an antibacterial drug that is effective against bacteria in 2 or more quadrants of the spectrum of activity quadrants.
A
BROAD SPECTRUM ANTIBACTERIAL
10
Q
The term used to describe an antibacterial drug that only affects 1 or 2 quadrants.
A
NARROW SPECTRUM ANTIBACTERIAL
11
Q
Lowest drug concentration at which bacteria are inhibited.
A
MINIMUM INHIBITORY CONCENTRATION (MIC)
12
Q
Lowest drug concentration at which bacteria are killed.
A
MINIMUM BATERICIDAL CONCENTRATION (MBC)
13
Q
The dose that gives the highest drug concentration before toxicity or side effects become unacceptable.
A
MAXIMUM TOLERATED DOSE (MTD) by host
14
Q
This term means the bacteria can survive in the presence of antibiotics designed to kill or inhibit them.
A
RESISTANCE
15
Q
This is the phenomenon in which the presence of an antibiotic in the environment of the bacteria causes resistant bacteria to proliferate and cause disease.
A
SELECTION PRESSURE
16
Q
These are trace amounts of drugs, chemicals, or their metabolites left in tissues.
A
RESIDUES
17
Q
This is the amount of time between when the last dose of the drug was given until the animal can be harvested for human food or its milk and eggs sold for human food.
A
WITHDRAWAL TIME
18
Q
Part of the bacteria that holds bacteria together against osmotic forces.
A
CELL WALL
19
Q
Part of the bacteria that regulates the flow of electrolytes and essential molecules in and out of the cell.
A
CELL MEMBRANE
20
Q
Structure inside bacterial cell that produces proteins.
A
RIBOSOME
21
Q
Strand that carries a copy of the DNA code for protein formation to the ribosome.
A
messsenger-RNA => m-RNA
22
Q
Added to sulfonamides to inhibit folic acid synthesis and make sulfonamide drugs bactericidal.
A
TRIMETHOPRIM
23
Q
The group of penicillins to which penicillin G belongs.
A
NATURAL PENICILLINS
24
Q
The group of penicillins to which amoxicillin and ampicillin belong.
A
AMINOPENICILLINS
25
The group of penicillins to which dicloxacillin belongs.
PENICILLINASE-RESISTANT PENICILLINS
26
The group of penicillins to which carbenicillin belongs.
EXTENDED SPECTRUM PENICILLINS
27
The strands that form the backbone of the bacterial cell wall.
PEPTIDOGLYCAN
28
The enzyme that links peptides to the backbone of the bacterial cell wall.
TRANSPEPTIDASE
29
Penicillin readily destroyed by stomach acid.
PENICILLIN G
30
Enzyme produced by Staphylococci bacteria that destroys penicillins or cephalosporins.
LACTAMASE ENZYME
31
Beta lactamase that specifically attacks penicillins.
PENICILLINASES
32
Two compounds added to penicillins to prevent them from being digested by bacteria’s beta-lactamase enzyme.
CLAVULANIC ACID AND SULBACTAM
33
Describes the infection that occurs when orally administered antibiotic kills beneficial GI tract bacteria allowing more pathogenic disease causing bacteria to proliferate producing severe diarrhea and possibly death.
SUPERINFECTION OR SUPRAINFECTION
34
Four species in which penicillin should not be given by mouth because it can produce severe or fatal diarrhea.
GUINEA PIGS, FERRETS, HAMSTERS, AND RABBITS
35
Form of penicillin G that can be given IV.
AQUEOUS SOLUTION, I.E. PENCILLIN G COMPLEXED WITH SODIUM OR POTASSIUM
36
Added to penicillin G to be absorbed over 24 hours.
PROCAINE
37
Added to penicillin G to be absorbed over 3-5 days.
BENZATHINE
38
Two aminopenicillins.
AMOXICILLIN AND AMPICILLIN
39
Added to ampicillin to slow absorption.
TRIHYDRATE
40
Target site of action for cephalosporins.
CELL WALL FORMATION
41
4 first generation cephalosporins.
CEFADROXIL, CEPHAPIRIN, CEPHALEXIN (KEFLEX), CEFAZOLIN (KEFZOL)
42
3 third generation cephalosporins.
CEFOVECIN (CONVENIA), CEFPODOXIME (SIMPLICEF), CEFTIOFUR (NAXCEL)
43
Describes the type of treatment that is based upon what bacteria should be present in the infection site and what drugs historically have worked against
such bacteria; usually done prior to getting results back from culture and susceptibility tests.
EMPIRICAL TREATMENT
44
Specific beta lactamases that work against cephalosporins but not penicillins.
CEPHALOSPORINASES
45
Location where cephalosporins and penicillins can achieve much higher concentrations that that found in the rest of the body.
RENAL TUBULES (URINE)
46
4 food animal species cephalosporins may NOT be given in an extra label manner.
CATTLE, SWINE, CHICKENS, TURKEYS
47
The spectrum of activity for which aminoglycosides are usually used.
GRAM NEGATIVE AEROBES
48
The type of environments in which aminoglycosides are NOT used.
ANAEROBIC
49
The bacterial organelle that is the target for aminoglycoside actions.
RIBOSOME
50
Proteins are made up of these.
AMINO ACIDS
51
These transport amino acids to the ribosome.
TRANSFER RNA = tRNA
52
This carries the code for protein formation from the nucleus to the ribosome.
MESSENGER RNA = mRNA
53
This is the term that describes the ability of aminoglycosides to continue to kill bacteria long after the drug has left the site of infection.
POST-ANTIBIOTIC EFFECT
54
Two organs of the body that accumulate aminoglycosides.
RENAL TUBULAR CELLS AND INNER EAR
55
Means toxicity of the inner ear.
OTOTOXICITY
56
Means toxicity of the kidney.
NEPHROTOXICITY
57
An increase of these two things in the urine constitutes an early sign of renal injury from aminoglycosides
BLOOD UREA NITROGEN (BUN) AND CREATININE
58
How much of the kidney filtering function that needs to be compromised before BUN and creatinine on the blood chemistry profile begin to increase.
75%
59
This is the part of the inner ear responsible for balance.
VESTIBULAR APPARATUS
60
This is the rapid, repetitive eye movement that occurs when an animal has inner ear disease.
NYSTAGMUS
61
The most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside.
NEOMYCIN
62
Means pus producing.
PYOGENIC
63
Which fluoroquinolone is a human drug that got a lot of attention when anthrax was being used as a terrorist weapon?
CIPROFLOXACIN
64
The bacterial enzyme that is the target for fluoroquinolone’s action.
DNA GYRASE
65
Against what Gram-positive bacteria are quinolones not very effective?
STREPTOCOCCUS
66
What tissue may be damaged by high doses of enrofloxacin (and other quinolones) during periods of rapid bone growth?
CARTILAGE
67
This term means “disease of the retina”.
RETINOPATHY
68
Which quinolone was reported to cause blindness due to retinopathy in the cat?
ENROFLOXACIN (BAYTRIL)
69
Which quinolone was developed for cats only?
PRADOFLOXACIN (VERAFLOX)
70
Which quinolone was the 1st quinolone to be used in veterinary medicine?
ENROFLOXACIN (BAYTRIL)
71
Which two tetracyclines are considered to be older and more soluble?
TETRACYCLINE AND OXYTETRACYCLINE
72
Which two tetracyclines are considered to be newer and more lipid-soluble (or lipophilic)?
MINOCYCLINE AND DOXYCYCLINE
73
By what suffix are members of the tetracycline drug family recognized?
"-CYCLINE"
74
What organelle is the target for the mechanism of action for the tetracycline family of antibiotics?
RIBOSOME
75
Are tetracyclines considered bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
BACTERIOSTATIC
76
What cellular organelle produces proteins?
RIBOSOME
77
This is the molecule that brings amino acids into the ribosome to form a protein.
transfer RNA = tRNA
78
What is the type of bacteria that cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Potomac horse fever.
RICKETTSIA
79
What bacterial infection is birds is treated with tetracyclines?
CHLAMYDIA
80
What is the name of the organism that causes Lyme disease?
BORRELIA
81
What type of bacteria causes leptospirosis?
SPIROCHETE BACTERIA OF LEPTOSPIROSIS = LEPTOSPIRA
82
What type of bacteria doesn’t have a cell wall?
MYCOPLASMA
83
What is the genus and species name for heartworm?
DIROFILARIA IMMITIS
84
What bacterium lives within the heartworm?
WOLBACHIA
85
This term describes an organism living dependently upon another organism that contributes to the other organism’s health)
SYMBIONT
86
What is the tetracycline of choice for killing Wolbachia?
DOXYCYCLINE
87
Which two tetracyclines should NOT be given orally with cheese and dairy products?
TETRACYCLINE AND OXYTETRACYCLINE
88
This is the term that describes how excreted tetracyclines into the GI tract will be reabsorbed from the gut and enter the body over and over again.
ENTEROHEPATIC CIRCULATION
89
What anti-stomach ulcer drug should not be given with PO tetracycline drug?
SUCRALFATE
90
Which two tetracycline drugs chelate less than 20% with ions?
DOXYCYCLINE AND MINOCYCLINE
91
These can become stained in young animals treated with tetracycline.
TEETH
92
This tetracycline should never be used IV in horses
DOXYCYCLINE
93
This tetracycline has been reported to cause esophageal erosions and ulcers when given PO. (in cats)
DOXYCYCLINE
94
Are sulfonamides by themselves bactericidal or bacteriostatic?
BACTERIOSTATIC
95
What are two compounds that when added to a sulfonamide produce a potentiated sulfonamide?
TRIMETHOPRIM OR ORMETOPRIM
96
Type of sulfonamide (not a specific drug) that is meant to stay within the GI tract to produce its effect.
ENTERIC
97
Type of sulfonamide (not a specific drug) that is meant to be absorbed into the body to produce its effect.
SYSTEMIC
98
Which specific sulfonamide drug is used as an enteric sulfonamide?
SULFASALAZINE
99
Bacterial compound whose formation is disrupted by sulfonamide drugs.
FOLIC ACID
100
These are single-cellular organisms larger than bacteria that are killed by sulfonamides.
PROTOZOA
101
Organism that causes toxoplasmosis.
TOXOPLASMA
102
What does EPM stand for?
EQUINE PROTOZOA MYELOENCEPHALITIS
103
What organism causes EPM?
SARCOCYSTIS NEURONA
104
These are intestinal protozoa killed by sulfonamides.
COCCIDIA
105
This sulfonamide is used for its colon anti-inflammatory effect more than its antibiotic effect.
SULFASALAZINE
106
What does KCS stand for?
KERATOCONJUCTIVITIS SICCA
107
What is the other name for KCS?
DRY EYE
108
Drug used to treat dry-eye caused by sulfonamides.
CYCLOSPORIN
109
This term means “itching”.
PRURITUS
110
This term means “crystals in the urine”.
CRYSTALLURIA
111
A lincosamide drug used for treating mastitis in cattle.
PIRLIMYCIN
112
A lincosamide used for treating deep puncture wounds, dental socket infections, or deep pyodermas in dogs; Antirobe is the trade name.
CLINDAMYCIN
113
Compound that is close in structure to erythromycin and stimulates intestinal motility.
MOTILIN
114
Human macrolide that is used to treat mycoplasma pneumonia.
AZITHROMYCIN
115
Macrolide that causes GI cramps and abdominal pain as typical side effects.
ERYTHROMYCIN
116
Which macrolide has been used as a human suicide drug?
TILMICOSIN (MICOTIL)
117
Which macrolide antibiotic is used to treat infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK)?
TYLOSIN (TYLAN)
118
What is the other common name used for IBK?
PINK EYE
119
Which macrolide is used to treat chronic diarrhea of unknown origin in the dog?
TYLOSIN (TYLAN)
120
What antimicrobials is only effective against anaerobic bacteria, but also kills Giardia, but can’t be used in any food animal because it is banned from use in these species?
METRONIDAZOLE (FLAGYL)
121
What is the target for the action of metronidazole in bacteria?
DNA AND NUCLEIC ACIDS
122
For what organism was metronidazole developed to treat?
GIARDIA
123
What body system shows clinical side effects with metronidazole?
CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM
124
What drug is known for its excellent ability to penetrate tissues, but is banned from use in any food animals because it causes aplastic anemia in
humans.
CHLORAMPHENICOL
125
What drug is related to chloramphenicol, has all of its advantages, but is FDA approved for use in food animals to treat respiratory disease?
FLORENICOL (NUFLOR)
126
This term means no white cells or red blood cells are being produced by the bone marrow.
APLASTIC ANEMIA
127
What term means “skin plant”?
PHYTES
128
Are blastomycosis and histoplasmosis superficial or deep mycoses?
DEEP MYCOSIS
129
What antifungal agent is given only by IV, works rapidly, but is considered to be very toxic?
AMPHOTERICIN B
130
This term means, “kills fungus”.
FUNGICIDAL
131
This is the target molecule for amphotericin B.
ERGOSTEROL
132
This is the cell structure that is damaged by the action of amphotericin B.
FUNGAL CELL MEMBRANE
133
Means “harmful to the kidney”.
NEPHROTOXICITY
134
Molecule to which amphotericin B binds with in dog cells to produce toxicity in this species.
CHOLESTEROL
135
This means the drug molecule has been surrounded by lipid molecules.
LIPOSOMAL BASED FORM = LIPID COMPLEXED
136
Which –azole is the old, oral imidazole prototype drug?
KETOCONAZOLE
137
This term means that the drug prevents fungi from growth or division but does not kill them.
FUNGISTATIC
138
This enzyme is the target for –azole drugs.
CYTOCHROME P-450
139
CYP 450 converts progesterone to what?
ESTOSTERONE
140
Ketoconazole reduces the clinical signs of this particular endocrine disease that is caused by excessive production of cortisol.
CUSHING'S DISEASE
141
This term describes the effects caused by a drug that result in birth defects.
TERATOGENIC
142
This –azole drug does NOT inhibit CYP-450 enzymes, needs acidic pH to be absorbed, and does not penetrate the CNS or eye very well.
ITRACONAZOLE
143
Fungal infection that occurs in the back of the throat area specifically in horses.
GUTTURAL POUCH MYCOSIS
144
This –azole drug is considered to be a first-choice drug for non-life threatening mycoses in the dog, cat and exotic animals that do NOT involve the CNS.
ITRACONAZOLE
145
This –azole drug is often the drug of choice for mycotic meningitis or ocular mycoses inside the globe of the eye.
FLUCONAZOLE
146
This term refers to fungal infections of the urinary bladder.
MYCOTIC CYSTITIS
147
This –azole drug is the drug of choice for treating mycotic cystitis.
FLUCONAZOLE
148
This –azole drug is available as a veterinary otic preparation and as a human systemic drug given PO.
POSACONAZOLE
149
List the two topically applied antifungals that are older imidazole drugs.
CLOTRIMAZOLE AND MICONAZOLE
150
This –azole drug is topically applied and considered to be a 2nd generation topical antifungal.
POSACONAZOLE
151
Which antifungal drug is for dermatophyte treatment, takes 4-6 weeks to work, and creates skeletal and cranial malformations in fetuses if given to pregnant cats.
GRISEOFULVIN (GRIFULVIN V, GENERICS)
152
This is the target for griseofulvin inside fungal cells.
MICROTUBULES OF MITOTIC SPINDLE
153
Antifungal that is a compound used against fleas.
LUFENURON (SENTINEL)
154
Lufenuron prevents this from being incorporated into fungi cell wall.
CHITIN
155
Antifungal drug for dermatophyte treatment that inhibits ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting enzyme squalene epoxidase.
TERBINAFINE (LAMASIL)
156
Very old antifungal agent still used as a shampoo; mechanism by which it works is unknown.
POTASSIUM OR SODIUM IODINE
