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PHARMACOLOGY 2 Vet Tech > Fill-in-the-Blank Antibiotics > Flashcards

Fill-in-the-Blank Antibiotics Flashcards

1
Q

A term that describes the type of drug that could kill or inhibit bacteria, viruses, fungi, or protozoa.

A

ANTIMICROBIAL

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2
Q

A term that describes the type of drug that kills microbes but specifically is used to describe a drug that kills primarily bacteria.

A

ANTIBIOTIC

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3
Q

A term applied to any drug that “kills bacteria”.

A

BACTERICIDAL

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4
Q

A term applied to any drug that “inhibits the growth of bacteria”.

A

BACTERIOSTATIC

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5
Q

A term applied to any drug that inhibits the growth of fungi.

A

FUNGISTATIC

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6
Q

A term applied to any drug that kills viruses.

A

VIRUCIDAL

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7
Q

The term that describes the types of microbes killed or inhibited by the drug.

A

SPECTRUM OF ACTIVITY

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8
Q

A term that means “without oxygen”.

A

ANAEROBIC

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9
Q

The term used to describe an antibacterial drug that is effective against bacteria in 2 or more quadrants of the spectrum of activity quadrants.

A

BROAD SPECTRUM ANTIBACTERIAL

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10
Q

The term used to describe an antibacterial drug that only affects 1 or 2 quadrants.

A

NARROW SPECTRUM ANTIBACTERIAL

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11
Q

Lowest drug concentration at which bacteria are inhibited.

A

MINIMUM INHIBITORY CONCENTRATION (MIC)

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12
Q

Lowest drug concentration at which bacteria are killed.

A

MINIMUM BATERICIDAL CONCENTRATION (MBC)

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13
Q

The dose that gives the highest drug concentration before toxicity or side effects become unacceptable.

A

MAXIMUM TOLERATED DOSE (MTD) by host

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14
Q

This term means the bacteria can survive in the presence of antibiotics designed to kill or inhibit them.

A

RESISTANCE

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15
Q

This is the phenomenon in which the presence of an antibiotic in the environment of the bacteria causes resistant bacteria to proliferate and cause disease.

A

SELECTION PRESSURE

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16
Q

These are trace amounts of drugs, chemicals, or their metabolites left in tissues.

A

RESIDUES

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17
Q

This is the amount of time between when the last dose of the drug was given until the animal can be harvested for human food or its milk and eggs sold for human food.

A

WITHDRAWAL TIME

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18
Q

Part of the bacteria that holds bacteria together against osmotic forces.

A

CELL WALL

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19
Q

Part of the bacteria that regulates the flow of electrolytes and essential molecules in and out of the cell.

A

CELL MEMBRANE

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20
Q

Structure inside bacterial cell that produces proteins.

A

RIBOSOME

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21
Q

Strand that carries a copy of the DNA code for protein formation to the ribosome.

A

messsenger-RNA => m-RNA

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22
Q

Added to sulfonamides to inhibit folic acid synthesis and make sulfonamide drugs bactericidal.

A

TRIMETHOPRIM

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23
Q

The group of penicillins to which penicillin G belongs.

A

NATURAL PENICILLINS

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24
Q

The group of penicillins to which amoxicillin and ampicillin belong.

A

AMINOPENICILLINS

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25
Q

The group of penicillins to which dicloxacillin belongs.

A

PENICILLINASE-RESISTANT PENICILLINS

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26
Q

The group of penicillins to which carbenicillin belongs.

A

EXTENDED SPECTRUM PENICILLINS

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27
Q

The strands that form the backbone of the bacterial cell wall.

A

PEPTIDOGLYCAN

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28
Q

The enzyme that links peptides to the backbone of the bacterial cell wall.

A

TRANSPEPTIDASE

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29
Q

Penicillin readily destroyed by stomach acid.

A

PENICILLIN G

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30
Q

Enzyme produced by Staphylococci bacteria that destroys penicillins or cephalosporins.

A

LACTAMASE ENZYME

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31
Q

Beta lactamase that specifically attacks penicillins.

A

PENICILLINASES

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32
Q

Two compounds added to penicillins to prevent them from being digested by bacteria’s beta-lactamase enzyme.

A

CLAVULANIC ACID AND SULBACTAM

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33
Q

Describes the infection that occurs when orally administered antibiotic kills beneficial GI tract bacteria allowing more pathogenic disease causing bacteria to proliferate producing severe diarrhea and possibly death.

A

SUPERINFECTION OR SUPRAINFECTION

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34
Q

Four species in which penicillin should not be given by mouth because it can produce severe or fatal diarrhea.

A

GUINEA PIGS, FERRETS, HAMSTERS, AND RABBITS

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35
Q

Form of penicillin G that can be given IV.

A

AQUEOUS SOLUTION, I.E. PENCILLIN G COMPLEXED WITH SODIUM OR POTASSIUM

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36
Q

Added to penicillin G to be absorbed over 24 hours.

A

PROCAINE

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37
Q

Added to penicillin G to be absorbed over 3-5 days.

A

BENZATHINE

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38
Q

Two aminopenicillins.

A

AMOXICILLIN AND AMPICILLIN

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39
Q

Added to ampicillin to slow absorption.

A

TRIHYDRATE

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40
Q

Target site of action for cephalosporins.

A

CELL WALL FORMATION

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41
Q

4 first generation cephalosporins.

A

CEFADROXIL, CEPHAPIRIN, CEPHALEXIN (KEFLEX), CEFAZOLIN (KEFZOL)

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42
Q

3 third generation cephalosporins.

A

CEFOVECIN (CONVENIA), CEFPODOXIME (SIMPLICEF), CEFTIOFUR (NAXCEL)

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43
Q

Describes the type of treatment that is based upon what bacteria should be present in the infection site and what drugs historically have worked against
such bacteria; usually done prior to getting results back from culture and susceptibility tests.

A

EMPIRICAL TREATMENT

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44
Q

Specific beta lactamases that work against cephalosporins but not penicillins.

A

CEPHALOSPORINASES

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45
Q

Location where cephalosporins and penicillins can achieve much higher concentrations that that found in the rest of the body.

A

RENAL TUBULES (URINE)

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46
Q

4 food animal species cephalosporins may NOT be given in an extra label manner.

A

CATTLE, SWINE, CHICKENS, TURKEYS

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47
Q

The spectrum of activity for which aminoglycosides are usually used.

A

GRAM NEGATIVE AEROBES

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48
Q

The type of environments in which aminoglycosides are NOT used.

A

ANAEROBIC

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49
Q

The bacterial organelle that is the target for aminoglycoside actions.

A

RIBOSOME

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50
Q

Proteins are made up of these.

A

AMINO ACIDS

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51
Q

These transport amino acids to the ribosome.

A

TRANSFER RNA = tRNA

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52
Q

This carries the code for protein formation from the nucleus to the ribosome.

A

MESSENGER RNA = mRNA

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53
Q

This is the term that describes the ability of aminoglycosides to continue to kill bacteria long after the drug has left the site of infection.

A

POST-ANTIBIOTIC EFFECT

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54
Q

Two organs of the body that accumulate aminoglycosides.

A

RENAL TUBULAR CELLS AND INNER EAR

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55
Q

Means toxicity of the inner ear.

A

OTOTOXICITY

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56
Q

Means toxicity of the kidney.

A

NEPHROTOXICITY

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57
Q

An increase of these two things in the urine constitutes an early sign of renal injury from aminoglycosides

A

BLOOD UREA NITROGEN (BUN) AND CREATININE

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58
Q

How much of the kidney filtering function that needs to be compromised before BUN and creatinine on the blood chemistry profile begin to increase.

A

75%

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59
Q

This is the part of the inner ear responsible for balance.

A

VESTIBULAR APPARATUS

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60
Q

This is the rapid, repetitive eye movement that occurs when an animal has inner ear disease.

A

NYSTAGMUS

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61
Q

The most nephrotoxic aminoglycoside.

A

NEOMYCIN

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62
Q

Means pus producing.

A

PYOGENIC

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63
Q

Which fluoroquinolone is a human drug that got a lot of attention when anthrax was being used as a terrorist weapon?

A

CIPROFLOXACIN

64
Q

The bacterial enzyme that is the target for fluoroquinolone’s action.

A

DNA GYRASE

65
Q

Against what Gram-positive bacteria are quinolones not very effective?

A

STREPTOCOCCUS

66
Q

What tissue may be damaged by high doses of enrofloxacin (and other quinolones) during periods of rapid bone growth?

A

CARTILAGE

67
Q

This term means “disease of the retina”.

A

RETINOPATHY

68
Q

Which quinolone was reported to cause blindness due to retinopathy in the cat?

A

ENROFLOXACIN (BAYTRIL)

69
Q

Which quinolone was developed for cats only?

A

PRADOFLOXACIN (VERAFLOX)

70
Q

Which quinolone was the 1st quinolone to be used in veterinary medicine?

A

ENROFLOXACIN (BAYTRIL)

71
Q

Which two tetracyclines are considered to be older and more soluble?

A

TETRACYCLINE AND OXYTETRACYCLINE

72
Q

Which two tetracyclines are considered to be newer and more lipid-soluble (or lipophilic)?

A

MINOCYCLINE AND DOXYCYCLINE

73
Q

By what suffix are members of the tetracycline drug family recognized?

A

“-CYCLINE”

74
Q

What organelle is the target for the mechanism of action for the tetracycline family of antibiotics?

A

RIBOSOME

75
Q

Are tetracyclines considered bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

BACTERIOSTATIC

76
Q

What cellular organelle produces proteins?

A

RIBOSOME

77
Q

This is the molecule that brings amino acids into the ribosome to form a protein.

A

transfer RNA = tRNA

78
Q

What is the type of bacteria that cause Rocky Mountain spotted fever and Potomac horse fever.

A

RICKETTSIA

79
Q

What bacterial infection is birds is treated with tetracyclines?

A

CHLAMYDIA

80
Q

What is the name of the organism that causes Lyme disease?

A

BORRELIA

81
Q

What type of bacteria causes leptospirosis?

A

SPIROCHETE BACTERIA OF LEPTOSPIROSIS = LEPTOSPIRA

82
Q

What type of bacteria doesn’t have a cell wall?

A

MYCOPLASMA

83
Q

What is the genus and species name for heartworm?

A

DIROFILARIA IMMITIS

84
Q

What bacterium lives within the heartworm?

A

WOLBACHIA

85
Q

This term describes an organism living dependently upon another organism that contributes to the other organism’s health)

A

SYMBIONT

86
Q

What is the tetracycline of choice for killing Wolbachia?

A

DOXYCYCLINE

87
Q

Which two tetracyclines should NOT be given orally with cheese and dairy products?

A

TETRACYCLINE AND OXYTETRACYCLINE

88
Q

This is the term that describes how excreted tetracyclines into the GI tract will be reabsorbed from the gut and enter the body over and over again.

A

ENTEROHEPATIC CIRCULATION

89
Q

What anti-stomach ulcer drug should not be given with PO tetracycline drug?

A

SUCRALFATE

90
Q

Which two tetracycline drugs chelate less than 20% with ions?

A

DOXYCYCLINE AND MINOCYCLINE

91
Q

These can become stained in young animals treated with tetracycline.

A

TEETH

92
Q

This tetracycline should never be used IV in horses

A

DOXYCYCLINE

93
Q

This tetracycline has been reported to cause esophageal erosions and ulcers when given PO. (in cats)

A

DOXYCYCLINE

94
Q

Are sulfonamides by themselves bactericidal or bacteriostatic?

A

BACTERIOSTATIC

95
Q

What are two compounds that when added to a sulfonamide produce a potentiated sulfonamide?

A

TRIMETHOPRIM OR ORMETOPRIM

96
Q

Type of sulfonamide (not a specific drug) that is meant to stay within the GI tract to produce its effect.

A

ENTERIC

97
Q

Type of sulfonamide (not a specific drug) that is meant to be absorbed into the body to produce its effect.

A

SYSTEMIC

98
Q

Which specific sulfonamide drug is used as an enteric sulfonamide?

A

SULFASALAZINE

99
Q

Bacterial compound whose formation is disrupted by sulfonamide drugs.

A

FOLIC ACID

100
Q

These are single-cellular organisms larger than bacteria that are killed by sulfonamides.

A

PROTOZOA

101
Q

Organism that causes toxoplasmosis.

A

TOXOPLASMA

102
Q

What does EPM stand for?

A

EQUINE PROTOZOA MYELOENCEPHALITIS

103
Q

What organism causes EPM?

A

SARCOCYSTIS NEURONA

104
Q

These are intestinal protozoa killed by sulfonamides.

A

COCCIDIA

105
Q

This sulfonamide is used for its colon anti-inflammatory effect more than its antibiotic effect.

A

SULFASALAZINE

106
Q

What does KCS stand for?

A

KERATOCONJUCTIVITIS SICCA

107
Q

What is the other name for KCS?

A

DRY EYE

108
Q

Drug used to treat dry-eye caused by sulfonamides.

A

CYCLOSPORIN

109
Q

This term means “itching”.

A

PRURITUS

110
Q

This term means “crystals in the urine”.

A

CRYSTALLURIA

111
Q

A lincosamide drug used for treating mastitis in cattle.

A

PIRLIMYCIN

112
Q

A lincosamide used for treating deep puncture wounds, dental socket infections, or deep pyodermas in dogs; Antirobe is the trade name.

A

CLINDAMYCIN

113
Q

Compound that is close in structure to erythromycin and stimulates intestinal motility.

A

MOTILIN

114
Q

Human macrolide that is used to treat mycoplasma pneumonia.

A

AZITHROMYCIN

115
Q

Macrolide that causes GI cramps and abdominal pain as typical side effects.

A

ERYTHROMYCIN

116
Q

Which macrolide has been used as a human suicide drug?

A

TILMICOSIN (MICOTIL)

117
Q

Which macrolide antibiotic is used to treat infectious bovine keratoconjunctivitis (IBK)?

A

TYLOSIN (TYLAN)

118
Q

What is the other common name used for IBK?

A

PINK EYE

119
Q

Which macrolide is used to treat chronic diarrhea of unknown origin in the dog?

A

TYLOSIN (TYLAN)

120
Q

What antimicrobials is only effective against anaerobic bacteria, but also kills Giardia, but can’t be used in any food animal because it is banned from use in these species?

A

METRONIDAZOLE (FLAGYL)

121
Q

What is the target for the action of metronidazole in bacteria?

A

DNA AND NUCLEIC ACIDS

122
Q

For what organism was metronidazole developed to treat?

A

GIARDIA

123
Q

What body system shows clinical side effects with metronidazole?

A

CENTRAL NERVOUS SYSTEM

124
Q

What drug is known for its excellent ability to penetrate tissues, but is banned from use in any food animals because it causes aplastic anemia in
humans.

A

CHLORAMPHENICOL

125
Q

What drug is related to chloramphenicol, has all of its advantages, but is FDA approved for use in food animals to treat respiratory disease?

A

FLORENICOL (NUFLOR)

126
Q

This term means no white cells or red blood cells are being produced by the bone marrow.

A

APLASTIC ANEMIA

127
Q

What term means “skin plant”?

A

PHYTES

128
Q

Are blastomycosis and histoplasmosis superficial or deep mycoses?

A

DEEP MYCOSIS

129
Q

What antifungal agent is given only by IV, works rapidly, but is considered to be very toxic?

A

AMPHOTERICIN B

130
Q

This term means, “kills fungus”.

A

FUNGICIDAL

131
Q

This is the target molecule for amphotericin B.

A

ERGOSTEROL

132
Q

This is the cell structure that is damaged by the action of amphotericin B.

A

FUNGAL CELL MEMBRANE

133
Q

Means “harmful to the kidney”.

A

NEPHROTOXICITY

134
Q

Molecule to which amphotericin B binds with in dog cells to produce toxicity in this species.

A

CHOLESTEROL

135
Q

This means the drug molecule has been surrounded by lipid molecules.

A

LIPOSOMAL BASED FORM = LIPID COMPLEXED

136
Q

Which –azole is the old, oral imidazole prototype drug?

A

KETOCONAZOLE

137
Q

This term means that the drug prevents fungi from growth or division but does not kill them.

A

FUNGISTATIC

138
Q

This enzyme is the target for –azole drugs.

A

CYTOCHROME P-450

139
Q

CYP 450 converts progesterone to what?

A

ESTOSTERONE

140
Q

Ketoconazole reduces the clinical signs of this particular endocrine disease that is caused by excessive production of cortisol.

A

CUSHING’S DISEASE

141
Q

This term describes the effects caused by a drug that result in birth defects.

A

TERATOGENIC

142
Q

This –azole drug does NOT inhibit CYP-450 enzymes, needs acidic pH to be absorbed, and does not penetrate the CNS or eye very well.

A

ITRACONAZOLE

143
Q

Fungal infection that occurs in the back of the throat area specifically in horses.

A

GUTTURAL POUCH MYCOSIS

144
Q

This –azole drug is considered to be a first-choice drug for non-life threatening mycoses in the dog, cat and exotic animals that do NOT involve the CNS.

A

ITRACONAZOLE

145
Q

This –azole drug is often the drug of choice for mycotic meningitis or ocular mycoses inside the globe of the eye.

A

FLUCONAZOLE

146
Q

This term refers to fungal infections of the urinary bladder.

A

MYCOTIC CYSTITIS

147
Q

This –azole drug is the drug of choice for treating mycotic cystitis.

A

FLUCONAZOLE

148
Q

This –azole drug is available as a veterinary otic preparation and as a human systemic drug given PO.

A

POSACONAZOLE

149
Q

List the two topically applied antifungals that are older imidazole drugs.

A

CLOTRIMAZOLE AND MICONAZOLE

150
Q

This –azole drug is topically applied and considered to be a 2nd generation topical antifungal.

A

POSACONAZOLE

151
Q

Which antifungal drug is for dermatophyte treatment, takes 4-6 weeks to work, and creates skeletal and cranial malformations in fetuses if given to pregnant cats.

A

GRISEOFULVIN (GRIFULVIN V, GENERICS)

152
Q

This is the target for griseofulvin inside fungal cells.

A

MICROTUBULES OF MITOTIC SPINDLE

153
Q

Antifungal that is a compound used against fleas.

A

LUFENURON (SENTINEL)

154
Q

Lufenuron prevents this from being incorporated into fungi cell wall.

A

CHITIN

155
Q

Antifungal drug for dermatophyte treatment that inhibits ergosterol synthesis by inhibiting enzyme squalene epoxidase.

A

TERBINAFINE (LAMASIL)

156
Q

Very old antifungal agent still used as a shampoo; mechanism by which it works is unknown.

A

POTASSIUM OR SODIUM IODINE

PHARMACOLOGY 2 Vet Tech (8 decks)

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