Fill-in-the-Blank Antiparisitics Flashcards
1
Q
This means that the antiparasitic agent is more toxic to the parasite than it is the host animal.
A
SELECTIVE TOXICITY
2
Q
What four groups constitute the “at risk” populations when using antiparasitic drugs?
A
OLD, YOUNG, PREGNANT, DEBILITATED
3
Q
This is the concept by which a population of parasites is protected from being exposed to an antiparasitic agent so as to reduce the development of resistant parasites.
A
REFUGIA
4
Q
This term describes how the presence of an antiparasitic drug causes resistant parasite population to emerge.
A
SELECTION PRESSURE
5
Q
This describes the type of drugs that are regulated by the FDA and are prescription only.
A
LEGEND DRUGS
6
Q
This agency regulates pesticides.
A
UNITED STATES ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY (USEPA)
7
Q
This term describes antiparasitic compounds used specifically for internal parasites.
A
ENDOPARASITICIDES
8
Q
This term describes antiparasitic compounds used specifically for external parasites.
A
ECTOPARASITICIDES
9
Q
This term describes antiparasitic compounds that affect both internal and external parasites.
A
ENDECTOCIDES
10
Q
This term means those worms that are round in cross-section.
A
NEMATODES
11
Q
This is another term for tapeworms.
A
CESTODES
12
Q
This is another term for fluke parasite.
A
TREMATODES
13
Q
This term is used to describe any type of anti-worm medication.
A
ANTHELMINTICS
14
Q
This term is used to describe medication used to treat worms that are round in cross-section.
A
ANTINEMATODALS
15
Q
This term is used to describe drugs that treat fluke infections.
A
ANTITREMATODALS
16
Q
This term is used to describe drugs that treat tapeworms.
A
ANTICESTODALS
17
Q
This term describes those antinematodals that actually kill the worms.
A
VERMICIDE
18
Q
This term describes those anticestodals that kill the worms.
A
CESTOCIDES, TAENIACIDES
19
Q
This term describes those antinematodals that only paralyze the worm allowing them to be expelled with the feces.
A
VERMIFUGE
20
Q
This term describes those antiparasitics that treat Giardia species and coccidia.
A
ANTIPROTOZOALS
21
Q
What are the 4 avermectin drugs used in veterinary medicine?
A
IVERMECTIN, SELAMECTIN, DORAMECTIN, AND EPRINOMECTIN
22
Q
What are the 2 milbemycin drugs used in veterinary medicine?
A
MILBEMYCIN OXIME, MOXIDECTIN
23
Q
What is the receptor site for macrolides in the parasite?
A
GLUTAMATE RECEPTOR
24
Q
What ion moves when glutamate receptors are stimulated?
A
CHLORIDE (CL-)
25
Macrolides combine with what receptor in mammals to produce toxicity?
GAMMA AMINOBUTYRIC ACID (GABA) RECEPTOR
26
What keeps the macrolides from entering the CNS of mammals?
P-glycoprotein (P-gp)
27
What are the two names of the gene that codes for P-gp?
MULTIPLE DRUG RESISTANCE (MDR1) GENE = ABC TYPE B1 (ABCB1) GENE
28
What breed of dog is most commonly associated with defective MDR1 genes?
COLLIE
29
This term describes the reabsorption of active drugs excreted into the GI tract by the liver, produces an effect, and is excreted by the liver over and over.
ENTEROHEPATIC CIRCULATION
30
First macrolide in veterinary medicine.
IVERMECTIN
31
Topically applied macrolide for dogs and cats for fleas and heartworm prevention.
SELAMECTIN (REVOLUTION)
32
What two avermectins are primarily used for large animals (food animals).
DORAMECTIN (DECTOMAX) AND EPRINOMECTIN (EPRINEX)
33
Milbemycin type of drug that is used as a 6-month heartworm preventative.
MOXIDECTIN (PRO HEART 6)
34
Only macrolide that is FDA approved as a microfilaricide.
MOXIDECTIN (ADVANTAGE MULTI)
35
Specific target molecule to which benzimidazoles attach.
BETA-TUBULIN
36
The prototype benzimidazole still used primarily for its antifungal effect in otic preparations.
THIABENDAZOLE (TRESADERM)
37
The benzimidazole that is used only in horses.
OXIBENDAZOLE (ANTHELCIDE EQ)
38
The benzimidazole that is used in cattle, sheep, and goats against nematodes, cestodes, trematodes, and Giardia.
ALBENDAZOLE (VALBAZEN)
39
The benzimidazole that is approved for use in dogs, cattle, and horses, has antitrematodal activity, anticestodal activity, and is used against Giardia.
FENBENDAZOLE (PANACUR, SAFE-GUARD)
40
The benzimidazole that is for dogs only; is a pro-drug that is metabolized to more active benzimidazoles.
FEBANTEL (DRONTAL PLUS)
41
The benzimidazole is contraindicated in pregnant dogs due to risk for abortion and fetal abnormalities at 3x normal dose.
FEBANTEL (DRONTAL PLUS)
42
Type of antinematodal that is effective only against roundworms and hookworms; used in small animals, horses, and food animals; not an anticestodal.
PYRANTEL (NEMEX, STRONGID)
43
Type of pyrantel that is a suspension.
PYRANTEL PAMOATE
44
This is the specific type of receptor that pyrantel combines with to produce its antiparasitic effect.
NICOTINIC ACETYLCHOLINE
45
Antinemtatodal developed specifically for cats that is a once-a-month as a topically applied product.
EMODEPSIDE (PROFENDER)
46
What receptor does emodepside attach with to produce its antiparasitic effect?
LATROPHILIN RECEPTOR OF NEMATODES
47
What OTC antiparasitic is effective only against roundworms (ascarids)?
PIPERAZINE
48
With what receptor does piperazine combine?
GABA RECEPTOR
49
What are the two anticestodal drugs used in veterinary medicine?
PRAZIQUANTEL (DRONCIT) AND EPSIPRANTEL (CESTEX)
50
This is the head of the tapeworm.
SCOLEX
51
This is the name for the segments of the body of the tapeworm.
PROGLOTTIDS
52
If this tapeworm egg is ingested in humans, it produces large cysts in the liver.
ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS
53
Which of these two drugs is effective against Echinococcus granulosus?
PRAZIQUANTEL (DRONCIT)
54
Genus and species name for the heartworm parasite.
DIROFILARIA IMMITIS
55
This is the stage of the heartworm life cycle that is injected into the dog or cat from the mosquito.
INFECTIVE LARVAE
56
This is the stage of the heartworm life cycle that is produced by the adult heartworms.
YOUNG LARVAE
57
This is the heartworm adulticide drug.
MELARSOMINE (IMMITICIDE)
58
Muscles located along the spine of the back into which melarsomine is injected.
EPAXIAL MUSCLES
59
Part of the heart in which adult heartworms are located.
RIGHT VENTRICLE
60
Describes the conditions when adult heartworms fill the right ventricle, right atrium, and large blood vessels returning blood to the heart from the body.
CLASS 4 HEARTWORM DISEASE = CAVAL SYNDROME
61
This is the bronchoconstriction that can occur in cats as the result of adult heartworms.
HEARTWORM ASSOCIATED RESPIRATORY DISEASE (HARD)
62
This drug (the active ingredient, not the trade name) is the only FDA approved microfilaricide.
MOXIDECTIN
63
What group of drugs constitutes the heartworm preventative drugs?
MACROLIDES = MACROCYCLIC LACTONES
64
Which heartworm preventative (active ingredient) is used in the 6-month injectable heartworm preventative?
MOXIDECTIN (PRO HEART6)
65
What is the symbiont that lives within the heartworm parasite?
WOLBACHIA
66
What drug is used to kill Wolbachia?
DOXYCYCLINE
67
Drug group that treats protozoa by inhibiting folic acid synthesis pathway.
SULFONAMIDE ANTIBIOTICS
68
What does EPM stand for?
EQUINE PROTOZOA MENINGOENCEPHALITIS (EPM)
69
Organism that causes toxoplasmosis.
TOXOPLASMA GONDII
70
Organism that causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis.
SARCOCYSTIS NEURONA
71
What anti-coccidia drug works by blocking the absorption of vitamin B1?
AMPROLIUM (CORID)
72
Term that means a drug causes birth defects.
TERATOGENIC
73
Name the two benzimidazoles used to treat protozoa?
ALBENDAZOLE (VALBAZEN) AND FENBENDAZOLE (PANACUR, SAFE-GUARD)
74
Which benzimidazole is potentially teratogenic?
ALBENDAZOLE
75
What oral antibiotic is effective against anaerobic bacteria and specifically Giardia, but can produce neurologic side effects?
METRONIDAZOLE (FLAGYL)
76
Which oral antibiotic is effective against anaerobic bacteria, but is one of the drugs of choice for treating disseminated toxoplasmosis?
CLINDAMYCIN (ANTIROBE)
77
Kills protozoa by facilitating the transport of ions across the cell membrane?
IONOPHORES = LASALOCID (BORATEC) AND MONENSIN (RUMENSIN)
78
In what animal species should monensin never be used?
HORSE
79
Drug developed specifically for treatment of Sarcocystis neurona.
PONAZURIL (MARQUIS)
80
Family of insecticides derived from chrysanthemum extract.
PYRETHRINS
81
Name 4 Type I pyrethroids.
RESMETHRIN, ALLETHRIN, PERMETHRIN, FLUMETHRIN
82
Name 2 Type II pyrethroids.
FENVALERATE AND DELTAMETHRIN
83
This governmental agency regulates topically applied insecticides.
USEPA
84
Type of pyrethroid (I or II) that produces paralysis in the insect or parasite.
PYRETHROID II
85
Synergist compound added to pyrethroids to increase killing action.
PIPERONYL BUTOXIDE (PBO)
86
This term means that the compound is more toxic to the target parasite than it is the mammalian host.
SELECTIVE TOXICITY
87
Pyrethroid that should NOT be used in cats.
PERMETHRIN
88
What non-mammalian species of pet is very susceptible to toxicity from pyrethroids?
FISH
89
Pyrethroid that is a repellent.
PERMETHRIN
90
Pyrethroid incorporated into a flea collar for dogs and cats.
FLUMETHRIN
91
External antiparasitic indicated for demodectic mange, incorporated into tick collars, and livestock mange dips.
AMITRAZ
92
Receptor to which amitraz binds in mammals to produce CNS depression.
ALPHA 2
93
Neurotransmitter decreased as a result of amitraz effect in mammals.
NOREPINEPHRINE
94
What are the two alpha-2 antagonist reversal agents?
YOHIMBINE, ATIPAMEZOLE (ANTISEDAN)
95
Topically applied products that block GABA receptor.
FRONTLINE, FRONTLINE PLUS (FIPRONIL)
96
Stimulation of GABA receptor normally causes what ion to move into cells?
CHLORIDE (CL-)
97
On what receptor do imidacloprid products work?
NICOTINIC CHOLINERGIC (ACETYLCHOLINE) RECEPTOR
98
Products like imidacloprid, nitenpyram, and spinosyns are called what (in reference to their action site)?
NEONICOTINOIDS
99
External parasite drug taken as a pill but kills flea adults only; used extra-label to kill maggot infestation.
NITENPYRAM (CAPSTAR)
100
Two spinosyn compounds used as oral and topically applied external antiparasitics.
SPINOSAD (COMFORTIS) AND SPINETORAM (CHERISTIN)
101
Spinosyn that has an interaction with ivermectin at high doses.
SPINOSAD (COMFORTIS)
102
Topical flea treatment for dogs and cats that is a pro-drug that has to be taken into the flea and metabolized to the insecticidal compound.
INDOXACARB (ACTIVYL)
103
Receptor indoxacarb works on.
NA+ CHANNEL RECEPTOR
104
What are the three isoxazoline compounds?
AFOXOLANER (NEXGARD), FLURALANER (BRAVECTO), SAROLANER (SIMPARICA)
105
The receptor afoxolaner targets.
GABA RECEPTOR
106
What does IDI stand for?
INSECT DEVELOPMENT INHIBITOR
107
What does JHA stand for?
JUVENILE HORMONE ANALOG
108
What is the compound that forms the hard part of the outer shell of the insect?
CHITIN
109
What product is a chitin-inhibiting IDI?
LUFENURON
110
What are the two juvenile hormone analog products used in veterinary medicine?
METHOPRENE AND PYRIPROXIFEN
111
What are two repellent compounds?
PERMETHRIN AND DIETYLTOLUAMIDE (DEET)
112
Which repellent is used in veterinary products?
PERMETHRIN
113
What mammalian species should permethrin NOT be used?
CAT
