Fill-in-the-Blank Antiparisitics Flashcards

1
Q

This means that the antiparasitic agent is more toxic to the parasite than it is the host animal.

A

SELECTIVE TOXICITY

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2
Q

What four groups constitute the “at risk” populations when using antiparasitic drugs?

A

OLD, YOUNG, PREGNANT, DEBILITATED

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3
Q

This is the concept by which a population of parasites is protected from being exposed to an antiparasitic agent so as to reduce the development of resistant parasites.

A

REFUGIA

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4
Q

This term describes how the presence of an antiparasitic drug causes resistant parasite population to emerge.

A

SELECTION PRESSURE

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5
Q

This describes the type of drugs that are regulated by the FDA and are prescription only.

A

LEGEND DRUGS

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6
Q

This agency regulates pesticides.

A

UNITED STATES ENVIRONMENTAL PROTECTION AGENCY (USEPA)

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7
Q

This term describes antiparasitic compounds used specifically for internal parasites.

A

ENDOPARASITICIDES

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8
Q

This term describes antiparasitic compounds used specifically for external parasites.

A

ECTOPARASITICIDES

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9
Q

This term describes antiparasitic compounds that affect both internal and external parasites.

A

ENDECTOCIDES

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10
Q

This term means those worms that are round in cross-section.

A

NEMATODES

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11
Q

This is another term for tapeworms.

A

CESTODES

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12
Q

This is another term for fluke parasite.

A

TREMATODES

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13
Q

This term is used to describe any type of anti-worm medication.

A

ANTHELMINTICS

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14
Q

This term is used to describe medication used to treat worms that are round in cross-section.

A

ANTINEMATODALS

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15
Q

This term is used to describe drugs that treat fluke infections.

A

ANTITREMATODALS

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16
Q

This term is used to describe drugs that treat tapeworms.

A

ANTICESTODALS

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17
Q

This term describes those antinematodals that actually kill the worms.

A

VERMICIDE

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18
Q

This term describes those anticestodals that kill the worms.

A

CESTOCIDES, TAENIACIDES

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19
Q

This term describes those antinematodals that only paralyze the worm allowing them to be expelled with the feces.

A

VERMIFUGE

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20
Q

This term describes those antiparasitics that treat Giardia species and coccidia.

A

ANTIPROTOZOALS

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21
Q

What are the 4 avermectin drugs used in veterinary medicine?

A

IVERMECTIN, SELAMECTIN, DORAMECTIN, AND EPRINOMECTIN

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22
Q

What are the 2 milbemycin drugs used in veterinary medicine?

A

MILBEMYCIN OXIME, MOXIDECTIN

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23
Q

What is the receptor site for macrolides in the parasite?

A

GLUTAMATE RECEPTOR

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24
Q

What ion moves when glutamate receptors are stimulated?

A

CHLORIDE (CL-)

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25
Q

Macrolides combine with what receptor in mammals to produce toxicity?

A

GAMMA AMINOBUTYRIC ACID (GABA) RECEPTOR

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26
Q

What keeps the macrolides from entering the CNS of mammals?

A

P-glycoprotein (P-gp)

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27
Q

What are the two names of the gene that codes for P-gp?

A

MULTIPLE DRUG RESISTANCE (MDR1) GENE = ABC TYPE B1 (ABCB1) GENE

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28
Q

What breed of dog is most commonly associated with defective MDR1 genes?

A

COLLIE

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29
Q

This term describes the reabsorption of active drugs excreted into the GI tract by the liver, produces an effect, and is excreted by the liver over and over.

A

ENTEROHEPATIC CIRCULATION

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30
Q

First macrolide in veterinary medicine.

A

IVERMECTIN

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31
Q

Topically applied macrolide for dogs and cats for fleas and heartworm prevention.

A

SELAMECTIN (REVOLUTION)

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32
Q

What two avermectins are primarily used for large animals (food animals).

A

DORAMECTIN (DECTOMAX) AND EPRINOMECTIN (EPRINEX)

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33
Q

Milbemycin type of drug that is used as a 6-month heartworm preventative.

A

MOXIDECTIN (PRO HEART 6)

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34
Q

Only macrolide that is FDA approved as a microfilaricide.

A

MOXIDECTIN (ADVANTAGE MULTI)

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35
Q

Specific target molecule to which benzimidazoles attach.

A

BETA-TUBULIN

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36
Q

The prototype benzimidazole still used primarily for its antifungal effect in otic preparations.

A

THIABENDAZOLE (TRESADERM)

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37
Q

The benzimidazole that is used only in horses.

A

OXIBENDAZOLE (ANTHELCIDE EQ)

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38
Q

The benzimidazole that is used in cattle, sheep, and goats against nematodes, cestodes, trematodes, and Giardia.

A

ALBENDAZOLE (VALBAZEN)

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39
Q

The benzimidazole that is approved for use in dogs, cattle, and horses, has antitrematodal activity, anticestodal activity, and is used against Giardia.

A

FENBENDAZOLE (PANACUR, SAFE-GUARD)

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40
Q

The benzimidazole that is for dogs only; is a pro-drug that is metabolized to more active benzimidazoles.

A

FEBANTEL (DRONTAL PLUS)

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41
Q

The benzimidazole is contraindicated in pregnant dogs due to risk for abortion and fetal abnormalities at 3x normal dose.

A

FEBANTEL (DRONTAL PLUS)

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42
Q

Type of antinematodal that is effective only against roundworms and hookworms; used in small animals, horses, and food animals; not an anticestodal.

A

PYRANTEL (NEMEX, STRONGID)

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43
Q

Type of pyrantel that is a suspension.

A

PYRANTEL PAMOATE

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44
Q

This is the specific type of receptor that pyrantel combines with to produce its antiparasitic effect.

A

NICOTINIC ACETYLCHOLINE

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45
Q

Antinemtatodal developed specifically for cats that is a once-a-month as a topically applied product.

A

EMODEPSIDE (PROFENDER)

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46
Q

What receptor does emodepside attach with to produce its antiparasitic effect?

A

LATROPHILIN RECEPTOR OF NEMATODES

47
Q

What OTC antiparasitic is effective only against roundworms (ascarids)?

A

PIPERAZINE

48
Q

With what receptor does piperazine combine?

A

GABA RECEPTOR

49
Q

What are the two anticestodal drugs used in veterinary medicine?

A

PRAZIQUANTEL (DRONCIT) AND EPSIPRANTEL (CESTEX)

50
Q

This is the head of the tapeworm.

A

SCOLEX

51
Q

This is the name for the segments of the body of the tapeworm.

A

PROGLOTTIDS

52
Q

If this tapeworm egg is ingested in humans, it produces large cysts in the liver.

A

ECHINOCOCCUS GRANULOSUS

53
Q

Which of these two drugs is effective against Echinococcus granulosus?

A

PRAZIQUANTEL (DRONCIT)

54
Q

Genus and species name for the heartworm parasite.

A

DIROFILARIA IMMITIS

55
Q

This is the stage of the heartworm life cycle that is injected into the dog or cat from the mosquito.

A

INFECTIVE LARVAE

56
Q

This is the stage of the heartworm life cycle that is produced by the adult heartworms.

A

YOUNG LARVAE

57
Q

This is the heartworm adulticide drug.

A

MELARSOMINE (IMMITICIDE)

58
Q

Muscles located along the spine of the back into which melarsomine is injected.

A

EPAXIAL MUSCLES

59
Q

Part of the heart in which adult heartworms are located.

A

RIGHT VENTRICLE

60
Q

Describes the conditions when adult heartworms fill the right ventricle, right atrium, and large blood vessels returning blood to the heart from the body.

A

CLASS 4 HEARTWORM DISEASE = CAVAL SYNDROME

61
Q

This is the bronchoconstriction that can occur in cats as the result of adult heartworms.

A

HEARTWORM ASSOCIATED RESPIRATORY DISEASE (HARD)

62
Q

This drug (the active ingredient, not the trade name) is the only FDA approved microfilaricide.

A

MOXIDECTIN

63
Q

What group of drugs constitutes the heartworm preventative drugs?

A

MACROLIDES = MACROCYCLIC LACTONES

64
Q

Which heartworm preventative (active ingredient) is used in the 6-month injectable heartworm preventative?

A

MOXIDECTIN (PRO HEART6)

65
Q

What is the symbiont that lives within the heartworm parasite?

A

WOLBACHIA

66
Q

What drug is used to kill Wolbachia?

A

DOXYCYCLINE

67
Q

Drug group that treats protozoa by inhibiting folic acid synthesis pathway.

A

SULFONAMIDE ANTIBIOTICS

68
Q

What does EPM stand for?

A

EQUINE PROTOZOA MENINGOENCEPHALITIS (EPM)

69
Q

Organism that causes toxoplasmosis.

A

TOXOPLASMA GONDII

70
Q

Organism that causes equine protozoal myeloencephalitis.

A

SARCOCYSTIS NEURONA

71
Q

What anti-coccidia drug works by blocking the absorption of vitamin B1?

A

AMPROLIUM (CORID)

72
Q

Term that means a drug causes birth defects.

A

TERATOGENIC

73
Q

Name the two benzimidazoles used to treat protozoa?

A

ALBENDAZOLE (VALBAZEN) AND FENBENDAZOLE (PANACUR, SAFE-GUARD)

74
Q

Which benzimidazole is potentially teratogenic?

A

ALBENDAZOLE

75
Q

What oral antibiotic is effective against anaerobic bacteria and specifically Giardia, but can produce neurologic side effects?

A

METRONIDAZOLE (FLAGYL)

76
Q

Which oral antibiotic is effective against anaerobic bacteria, but is one of the drugs of choice for treating disseminated toxoplasmosis?

A

CLINDAMYCIN (ANTIROBE)

77
Q

Kills protozoa by facilitating the transport of ions across the cell membrane?

A

IONOPHORES = LASALOCID (BORATEC) AND MONENSIN (RUMENSIN)

78
Q

In what animal species should monensin never be used?

A

HORSE

79
Q

Drug developed specifically for treatment of Sarcocystis neurona.

A

PONAZURIL (MARQUIS)

80
Q

Family of insecticides derived from chrysanthemum extract.

A

PYRETHRINS

81
Q

Name 4 Type I pyrethroids.

A

RESMETHRIN, ALLETHRIN, PERMETHRIN, FLUMETHRIN

82
Q

Name 2 Type II pyrethroids.

A

FENVALERATE AND DELTAMETHRIN

83
Q

This governmental agency regulates topically applied insecticides.

A

USEPA

84
Q

Type of pyrethroid (I or II) that produces paralysis in the insect or parasite.

A

PYRETHROID II

85
Q

Synergist compound added to pyrethroids to increase killing action.

A

PIPERONYL BUTOXIDE (PBO)

86
Q

This term means that the compound is more toxic to the target parasite than it is the mammalian host.

A

SELECTIVE TOXICITY

87
Q

Pyrethroid that should NOT be used in cats.

A

PERMETHRIN

88
Q

What non-mammalian species of pet is very susceptible to toxicity from pyrethroids?

A

FISH

89
Q

Pyrethroid that is a repellent.

A

PERMETHRIN

90
Q

Pyrethroid incorporated into a flea collar for dogs and cats.

A

FLUMETHRIN

91
Q

External antiparasitic indicated for demodectic mange, incorporated into tick collars, and livestock mange dips.

A

AMITRAZ

92
Q

Receptor to which amitraz binds in mammals to produce CNS depression.

A

ALPHA 2

93
Q

Neurotransmitter decreased as a result of amitraz effect in mammals.

A

NOREPINEPHRINE

94
Q

What are the two alpha-2 antagonist reversal agents?

A

YOHIMBINE, ATIPAMEZOLE (ANTISEDAN)

95
Q

Topically applied products that block GABA receptor.

A

FRONTLINE, FRONTLINE PLUS (FIPRONIL)

96
Q

Stimulation of GABA receptor normally causes what ion to move into cells?

A

CHLORIDE (CL-)

97
Q

On what receptor do imidacloprid products work?

A

NICOTINIC CHOLINERGIC (ACETYLCHOLINE) RECEPTOR

98
Q

Products like imidacloprid, nitenpyram, and spinosyns are called what (in reference to their action site)?

A

NEONICOTINOIDS

99
Q

External parasite drug taken as a pill but kills flea adults only; used extra-label to kill maggot infestation.

A

NITENPYRAM (CAPSTAR)

100
Q

Two spinosyn compounds used as oral and topically applied external antiparasitics.

A

SPINOSAD (COMFORTIS) AND SPINETORAM (CHERISTIN)

101
Q

Spinosyn that has an interaction with ivermectin at high doses.

A

SPINOSAD (COMFORTIS)

102
Q

Topical flea treatment for dogs and cats that is a pro-drug that has to be taken into the flea and metabolized to the insecticidal compound.

A

INDOXACARB (ACTIVYL)

103
Q

Receptor indoxacarb works on.

A

NA+ CHANNEL RECEPTOR

104
Q

What are the three isoxazoline compounds?

A

AFOXOLANER (NEXGARD), FLURALANER (BRAVECTO), SAROLANER (SIMPARICA)

105
Q

The receptor afoxolaner targets.

A

GABA RECEPTOR

106
Q

What does IDI stand for?

A

INSECT DEVELOPMENT INHIBITOR

107
Q

What does JHA stand for?

A

JUVENILE HORMONE ANALOG

108
Q

What is the compound that forms the hard part of the outer shell of the insect?

A

CHITIN

109
Q

What product is a chitin-inhibiting IDI?

A

LUFENURON

110
Q

What are the two juvenile hormone analog products used in veterinary medicine?

A

METHOPRENE AND PYRIPROXIFEN

111
Q

What are two repellent compounds?

A

PERMETHRIN AND DIETYLTOLUAMIDE (DEET)

112
Q

Which repellent is used in veterinary products?

A

PERMETHRIN

113
Q

What mammalian species should permethrin NOT be used?

A

CAT