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LT Test 2023 > Field Communications > Flashcards

Field Communications Flashcards

1
Q

Condition 3 is used when greater than ____ of department units are either committed to incidents or out of service. SB

A

50%

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2
Q

_________ is an assigned group on a trunked radio system, commonly referred to as channels. SB

A

Talk groups.

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3
Q

__________ is the entity responsible for coordinating the availability of beds in the five hospitals and two trauma centers closest to the incident. SB

A

Regional Hospital Coordination Center (RHCC)

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4
Q

All Northern Virginia (NOVA) Fire and Rescue Departments use a _________ MHz trunking radio system. SB

A

700/800 MHz (p.5)

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5
Q

How many primary talkgroups in use on the radio zone? SB

A
  1. (p.6)
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6
Q

Channels Alpha and _______ are used as the dispatch channels. SB

A

Papa. (p.6)

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7
Q

Typical range of channels November and Oscar are about a ______ line of sight of other radio users. SB

A

One mile. (p. 7)

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8
Q

Dispatchers will not receive or monitor EA activation on channels _______ and ________. SB

A

November and Oscar. (p. 7)

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9
Q

What is a MICP? SB

A

Major Incident Communications Plan. (p.8)

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10
Q

What are the four categories of noise during communications? SB

A

Physical or External, Semantic, Psychological, and Physiological. (p.10-11)

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11
Q

____________ is declared when a responder believes that physical threats could cause injury or death. SB

A

Signal I (p. 11)

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12
Q

At the time a Signal I is declared or suspected, the following minimum FD resources, aside from law enforcement shall be dispatched: _________________. SB

A

The closest suppression piece, EMS transport unit, Battalion Chief, Safety Officer.

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13
Q

An EA will transmit the emergency signal to which talk groups? SB

A

The talk group currently assigned to the radio on which the EA was pressed. (p.15)

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14
Q

What are the three categories of an EA transmission?

A

EA on an incident without command established, EA on an incident with command established, EA not related to an incident. (p. 16)

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15
Q

What are the 4 C’s of Communication? SB

A

Connect, Convey, Clarify, and Confirm. (p.19)

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16
Q

) On a multi-unit incident, who should the OIC of a company contact to inform of their intent to add on to call? SB

A

the dispatched Command Officer. (p. 25)

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17
Q

True or False: When responding to Incidents, units should communicate with each other through dispatch to ensure clarity and conciseness by having the third verify message? SB

A

False: Units shall communicate directly to one another and shall not routinely go through dispatch.

18
Q

How many Routine Response Conditions are there? SB

A

Three.

19
Q

True or False: the OIC should notify command and wait for approval to split their crew into an X-ray crew? SB

A

True. (p. 28)

20
Q

What is the ECC? SB

A

Emergency Communications Center. (p. 26)

21
Q

What is the Jurisdictional number for Metropolitan Washington Airport Authority? SB

A

3.

22
Q

The Universal safety channel in all primary radio zones is channel ____. (pg.7) FC

A

Oscar

23
Q

Typical range of channels November and Oscar is about ____ of line of sight of other radio users. In building coverage will vary. (pg.7) FC

A

A Mile

24
Q

A _____ is a plan that distributes radio channels to the various sections, branches, division, and groups of the Incident Command System (ICS). (pg.8) FC

A

Major Incident Communications Plan (MICP)

25
Q

When making radio transmissions, DO NOT use names EXCEPT during ___ and ____. (pg.10) FC

A

MAYDAY and missing member on PAR Check

26
Q

Noise during the communication process is grouped into what 4 categories? (pg.10,11) FC

A

Physical/External, Semantic, Psychological, Physiological

27
Q

When a responder believes that physical threats could cause injury or death, they should call ____? (pg.11,12) FC

A

Signal 1

28
Q

Aside from Law Enforcement, what FD resources are dispatched on Signal 1? (pg.12) FC

A

Closest suppression piece, 1 EMS transport unit, 1 BC, 1 SAF Officer

29
Q

Basic use of this button on radio is to alert the dispatcher to a situation which field personnel feel they are in a life-threatening situation. (pg.15) FC

A

Emergency Activation (EA)

30
Q

What are the 4 Cs Communications Model? (pg.19) FC

A

Connect, Convey, Clarify, Confirm

31
Q

The Initial Progress report should be given at approximately ___ minutes. (pg.22) FC

A

10 minutes

32
Q

When adding to multi-unit response with a chief officer, the OIC will contact ___________ via assigned response channel and announce their intent to respond. (pg.25) FC

A

Dispatched Command Officer

33
Q

When adding to incident and announcing intent to respond, what other two pieces of info should be relayed to the Command Officer? (pg.25) FC

A

Current Location and Expected Arrival Order

34
Q

In cases where the riding position is not pertinent, the portable radio alias will contain the suffix __ to indicate portable. (pg.27) FC

A

P

35
Q

How many Regional Response Conditions are used by NOVA departments? (pg.29) FC

A

3

36
Q

Condition __ is used when greater than 50% of department units are committed to incidents or OOS. (pg.29) FC

A

3

37
Q

Condition __ is used during periods of extended high incident activities or when one or more major events are taking place. (pg.29) FC

A

2

38
Q

Which radio channels are not impacted by Failsoft? (pg.32) FC

A

November and Oscar

39
Q

PAR Checks are done starting at the _____ timer and ever ______ thereafter. (pg.4) FC

A

20-minute, 20-minutes

40
Q

_________ is a two-way assistance by fire departments dispatched automatically under prearranged plans or contracts on the basis that each ill aid the other. (pg.2) FC

A

Automatic Aid

LT Test 2023 (30 decks)

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