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LT Test 2023 > Exposure Control Plan > Flashcards

Exposure Control Plan Flashcards

1
Q

________ defines an infectious disease exposure as “a specific eye, mouth, other mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact with blood or other potentially infectious materials that results from the performance of an employee’s duties.” SB

A

OSHA (p. 11)

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2
Q

Blood or body fluid exposures to intact skin for a period longer than _____, is termed a “Risk” exposure by IDP. SB

A

30 Minutes (p. 11)

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3
Q

A __________ bloodborne exposure is defined as blood or body fluid contact with intact skin for less than 30 minutes. SB

A

“Non- Risk” (p. 11)

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4
Q

The definition of a ________________ “Risk” exposure is determined to be any unprotected contact with a person known or suspected of having active tuberculosis, meningitis of unknown etiology, varicella zoster (chicken pox), measles, pertussis (whooping cough) or other transmissions. SB

A

Airborne Pathogen (p. 12)

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5
Q

After an employee is exposed to an infectious disease, employees must submit the Infectious Disease Report which is form ____________. SB

A

FRD- 314 (p. 12)

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6
Q

What is the form number for the Consent to Collect and Test Blood form? SB

A

FRD- 107 (p. 13)

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7
Q

In the event of an infectious disease exposure from an animal bite, you should Request an Animal Protection Police Officer, Notify the on duty SAFO, and fill out a Supervisor’s Report of Work- Related Injury and/or Illness which is form ________. SB

A

FRD- 071 (p.14)

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8
Q

Medical confidentiality applies to infectious disease exposure reporting. The only deviation from this policy is if __________________. SB

A

The exposure to one employee poses a secondary risk to other employees. (p. 14)

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9
Q

If an employee believes an off-duty exposure occurred contact the on duty SAFO. If unavailable, contact _____________. SB

A

The Uniformed Fire Officer (p. 14)

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10
Q

____________ is given for positive exposures to HIV, Hepatitis B and C, Neisseria meningitidis (meningococcal disease), Bacillus anthracis (anthrax), TB, and rabies. SB

A

Prophylaxis (p. 15)

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11
Q

What is the Good Smartian Citizen Exposure Information Intake Form number? SB

A

FRD- 399- A (p. 15)

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12
Q

Risk exposures for citizens are sent to the Health Department. This right is guaranteed to the Good Samaritan through the ____________________. SB

A

Code of Virginia 32.1-45.1 (p. 15)

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13
Q

What is the purpose of the Exposure Control Plan? (pg.1) FC

A

Reduce exposure to infectious disease and cancer pathogens

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14
Q

How often is the Exposure Control Plan updated? (pg.1) FC

A

Annually

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15
Q

OSHA mandates medical records of occupational infectious disease exposures be kept for employees _____ years from date of separation. (pg.1) FC

A

30 years

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16
Q

The ICP maintains Bloodborne Pathogens training records for ____ years. (pg.1) FC

A

3 Years

17
Q

True or False: Employees responding to incidents requiring patient care shall wear FRD issued exam gloves only. (pg.2) FC

A

False: Exam gloves and Eye Protection

18
Q

Who can replace a lost or misplaced PIC-T Kit? (pg.2) FC

A

EMS Supervisor

19
Q

True of False: N95 respirators are “one-time use” items. (pg.3) FC

A

True

20
Q

When should P100 respirators be used? (pg.3) FC

A

Suspected fentanyl use

21
Q

True or False: Class C and D station uniforms can be worn home and should be laundered at home as stated by OSHA. (pg.3) FC

A

False

22
Q

How many red biohazard bags should contaminated PPE be placed in? (pg.4) FC

A

2

23
Q

Injuries from sharps are recorded on what injury log? (pg.2) FC

A

OSHA 300 Injury Log

24
Q

The command “________” is used when handing off a sharp to another employee for disposal. (pg.5) FC

A

“Passing Sharps”

25
Q

True of False: P2 sharp shuttles can be used multiple times. (pg.6) FC

A

False: One Time Use

26
Q

How do you properly dispose of medic unit sharps containers? (pg.6) FC

A

Tape lid to container, transfer to hospital bio-disposal room

27
Q

What is a “Risk” Exposure? (pg.11) FC

A

Exposure to eye, mouth, mucous membrane, non-intact skin, or parenteral contact with blood, or blood and body fluid exposure to skin for a period longer than 30 mins.

28
Q

What is a Risk Exposure for airborne pathogen? (pg.11,12) FC

A

Unprotected contact with a person known or suspected of having active TB, Meningitis, Chicken Pox, Measles, Pertussis, or other airborne transmitting pathogen.

29
Q

What is 1st step if employee is exposed to infectious disease? (pg.12) FC

A

Wash with antiseptic soap and rinse and skin areas affected.

30
Q

What info is given to SAF Officer for exposure? (pg.12) FC

A

Hospital destination, pt name DOB and MRN, contact number

31
Q

IF source patient refuses transport, what are your steps? (pg.13) FC

A

Notify SAFO, request EMS Supervisor, and remain on scene for blood draw

32
Q

ANSI stands for what organization? (pg. 2) JH

A

American National Standards Institute

33
Q

If a patient has a respiratory illness that may compromised by using an N95 Respiratory, what is an acceptable alternative? (pg. 3) JH

A

NRB Mask

34
Q

If an employee declines vaccinations for a disease that is covered under the Code of Virginia 65.2-401.1 Ordinary Disease of Life, without written confirmation that it would be harmful to the individual, do they forfeit their right to coverage? (pg. 11) JH

A

YES

35
Q

Bloodborne pathogen exposure with in-tact skin for less than 30 minutes is defined as…. (pg. 11) JH

A

Non-Risk

36
Q

If an animal bite occurs, what forms must be completed in an ‘Injury Packet’? (pg. 14) JH

A

FRD 71 (Work Related Injury/Illness), FRD 315 (BC Injury/Illness Investigation Report), and FRD 317 (Injury/Accident Narrative Supplement)

37
Q

If a ‘Good Samaritan’ is exposed on an incident, what two forms must filled out? JH

A

FRD 399A (Good Samaritan Exposure Intake Form) and FRD 399B w/ Incident Number (Good Samaritan Exposure Brochure)

LT Test 2023 (30 decks)

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