Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

X Clinical Veterinary Nursing Theory > Feline Infectious Disease > Flashcards

Feline Infectious Disease Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Pharmacology flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Adult Health flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards
1
Q

when is infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease common?

A

in multi-cat environments (e.g multi-cat households/shelters)
stressed cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what are the most prevalent causes of infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A 
feline herpes virus (FHV-1)
feline calicivirus (FCV)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what are the less common causes of infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

chlamydia felis
Bordetella brochiseptica
secondary bacterial infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

what are the main symptoms of infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

watery discharge from nose and eyes with staining
inappetance
snuffly
ulcers in mouth / on tongue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

what tends to cause the most severe infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

viral agents esp. FHV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what type of virus is FHV-1?

A

enveloped DNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what happens to cats post FHV-1 exposure / infection?

A

most cats become latent lifelong carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

where is FHV-1 carried in the cat?

A

trigeminal ganglion within the face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what can trigger shedding of FHV-1?

A

stressful event e.g. other illness, immunosuppression, new family member

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

when is shedding of FHV-1 triggered?

A

4-12 days post stressful event

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

how long do cats shed FHV-1 for?

A

~1 week

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

will cats show clinical signs when shedding FHV-1?

A

not always - may be silent shedders

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

how is FHV-1 spread?

A

close contacts

phomites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what type of virus is FC?

A

non-enveloped, single stranded RNA virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

how long does FC last in the cat post infection?

A

up to 1 month in oropharyngeal tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

where does FC persist following infection?

A

oropharyngeal tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

how long does carrier state of FC last?

A

most cats around a month - some may be lifelong carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

when does shedding of FC occur following infection?

A

continuously - may be asymptomatic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

how is FC spread?

A

phomite
close contact
aerosol also possible

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

where are infectious agents of both FHV-1 and FC found?

A

in respiratory secretions - oculo-nasal discharge, saliva

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

what cells of the naive cat are targeted by FHV-1 and FCV?

A

upper respiratory tract epithelial and lymphoid tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

where else does FCV replicate?

A

systemic tissues

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

where is FCV also shed?

A

urine and faeces of infected cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

how long is the incubation period of FHV-1 and FCV?

A

2-6 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

when does viral shedding of FHV-1 and FCV occur after infection?

A

1 day - before the clinical signs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

when are clinical signs seen after infection with FHV-1 and FCV?

A

2-6 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is the range of symptoms seen with FHV-1 and FCV?

A

can be very mild to severe and life threatening

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what animals suffer more severely with FHV-1 and FCV?

A

kittens and immunocompromised patients

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what can FHV-1 and FCV symptoms be exacerbated by?

A

secondary opportunistic infections caused by damage to tissues by initial virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

where are main symptoms of FHV-1 and FCV seen?

A

oral
nasal
occular
some systemic (FCV)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are dendritic ulcers pathognomic for?

A

FHV-1

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what oral lesions are seen with FHV-1 and FCV?

A

gingivostomatitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what is gingivostomatitis?

A

inflammation of gingiva and oral mucosa generally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

what oral lesions are seen with FCV?

A

lingual ulcers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

where can samples be taken from to diagnose FHV-1 and FCV?

A

conjunctival or pharyngeal swabs (depending on area most affected)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what tests may be used to diagnose infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

PCR
virus isolation
culture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what test is most sensitive to FCV?

A

virus isolation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what cause of infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease is usually diagnosed by culture?

A

C.felis

B.bronchoseptica

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease can PCR show?

A

all 4: FHV-1, FCV, C.felis, B.bronchosepta

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what supportive therapies are needed for treatment of infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

fluid therapy

nutrition

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what specific medications might be needed for treatment of infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

antivirals
antibiotics for secondary infections
analgesia
appetite stimulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

what are the key elements of nursing care for patients with infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

clean face with warm, wet swab
barrier creams
occular lubricant
nebulisation to loosen secretions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

why is cleaning the patients face with a warms wet swab necessary when they are suffering with cat ‘flu?

A

improved comfort

improved smell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

what is the role of barrier creams in the patient with infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

prevent scald caused by discharge from nose and eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

what should not be used on cats with cat flu?

A

olbas oils / human cold remedies as they are highly irritant to nasal mucosa

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

why should injectable meds be given to infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease patients where possible?

A

due to oral ulcers they may find oral handling undcomfortable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

why should cats with infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease be restrained without hands under mouth/near neck?

A

altered head position may lead to pharyngeal obstruction which can cause difficulty breathing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what must be corrected in the first 24-48hrs of infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease treatment?

A

dehydration and electrolyte imbalance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what method of eating is preferred in patients with infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

orally

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what should patients with infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease be fed?

A

small volume, palatable, warm foods

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

how often should infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease patients be fed?

A

4-6x a day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

when should uneaten food be removed from a cats kennel?

A

after 20-30 mins as may increase nausea and stress levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what drugs may be used to aid nutrition?

A

anti-emetics and appetite stimulants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

how may severe flu cases need to be fed?

A

tube feeding - meds can also be given this way

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what antiviral drugs are used to treat recurrent or severe FHV-1?

A

Famciclovir

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what is the effect of Famciclovir?

A

clinical improvement and reduced shedding of virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what antiviral drugs are used in FHV-1 cats with conjunctivitis?

A

Lysine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

how does lysine work?

A

antagonises arginine which is needed for FHV-1 replication

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what is the role of Lysine?

A

improves conjunctivitis in FHV-1 cats

reduces FHV-1 shedding

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what is the role of recombinant feline interferon gamma?

A

significantly improves refractory stomatitis in FCV infected cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

when should secondary bacterial infections be suspected alongside infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

if thick, mucopurulent discharges present

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what tests should be performed if secondary bacterial infection alongside infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease suspected?

A

culture and sensitivity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what antibiotic is the best for both C.felis and B.bronchiseptica?

A

doxycycline

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

what is the alternative antibiotic that can be given if Doxycycline is contraindicated?

A

Amoxycillin clavulanate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what are the issues with Doxycycline as an antibiotic?

A

not ideal with anorexic patients and there is risk of oesophageal stricture if drug remains in the oesophagus for a prolonged period

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what other medication may be given to patients with infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease?

A

analgesia

mucolytics

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what type of analgesia is most commonly used for infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease patients?

A

opioids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

why may NSAIDs not be a suitable analgesic for infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease patients?

A

if corneal ulceration is present NSAIDs may suppress the helpful inflammatory response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what are mucolytics?

A

substances which break down mucous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

when can mucolytics only be used?

A

if animal is unable to clear mucous themselves as will make runnier mucous worse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

give an example of a mucolytic

A

bromhexine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

how can the environment that a cat with infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease has been in be managed?

A

thorough cleaning
disinfection of fomites
cages

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how long does FHV-1 survive for?

A

18 hours at room temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

how can FHV-1 be inactivated?

A

by most disinfectants and drying

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

how long does FCV survive in the environment?

A

up to 1 month / longer in dry conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what cleaning agents can be used to kill FCV?

A

bleach

accelerated hydrogen peroxide

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

what disinfectant agents are FCV resistant to?

A

QAC

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

which animals should be placed in isolation facilities?

A

clinically affected patients

suspected carriers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

when should infectious patients be handled?

A

last

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what sort of nursing is required for infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease patients?

A

barrier nursing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

what should be done about infectious feline upper respiratory tract disease patients if isolation facilities are not available?

A

barrier nursing
house respiratory cats at one end of ward
sneeze barriers
if cages are facing each other there should be 2m between
disinfect cage at end of stay and leave empty for 2 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is the role of FHV-1/FCV vaccines?

A

reduces incidence and severity ofdisease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what do FHV-1 and FCV vaccines form part of?

A

CORE vaccines

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what immunity is gained from FHV-1 and FCV vaccination?

A

local humoral (IgA) and cell mediated immunity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

how long does maternally derived FHV-1 and FCV immunity last?

A

6-16 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what are the 2 types of FHV-1 / FCV vaccines available?

A

attenuated live or inactivated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

what type of FHV-1/FCV vaccine be used wherever possible?

A

attenuated live

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

when can inactivated FHV-1/FCV vaccines be used?

A

immunosuppressed and pregnat cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

when can kittens be vaccinated against FHV-1/FCV?

A

6-8 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

how does the initial course of FHV-1/FCV vaccines work?

A

from 6-8 weeks
every 3-4 weeks
until at least 16 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

when should cats be re-vaccinated for FHV-1/FCV?

A

every 1-3 years after

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

when should queens also be vaccinated against FHV-1/FCV?

A

prior to mating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

how can FHV-1/FCV be prevented?

A

minimise stress
avoid overcrowding
quarantine new additions to multi-cat households for 3-4 weeks
don’t breed from clinically infected queens
consider early weaning (although could be detrimental) if outbreak

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

how can FHV-1/FCV be prevented in catteries?

A

house cats individually unless from same household at home
impermeable sneeze barrier
over 4ft apart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

what are the signs of highly virulent calicivirus?

A

upper respiratory disease (as for FCV)

cutaneous signs - especially head and limbs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

what are the cutaneous signs of highly virulent calicivirus?

A

ulceration
crusting
alopecia
oedema

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

what severe signs may a cat with highly virulent calicivirus exhibit?

A

sever respiratory signs - pulmonary oedema and pleural effusion
hepatic and pancreatic involvement - icterus, vomiting and diarrhoea
marked pyrexia, anorexia, lethargy and weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

what can highly virulent calicivirus result in?

A

peracute death (sudden)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

what type of bacteria is Chlamydia felis?

A

obligate intracellular bacteria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

what are the 2 forms of Chlamydia felis?

A 
elementary body (EB) - infectious form
reticulate body (RB) - non infectious form
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

how are C.felis bacteria elementary bodies transmitted?

A

via direct contact, fomites and aerosols

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

how long doe C.felis survive in the environment?

A

a few days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

what disinfectants is C.felis susceptible to?

A

most disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

what happens to EB C.felis when it attaches to host epithelial cells?

A

internalised into inclusion and morphs into RB

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

what does RB C.felis do?

A

replicates in host cells, matures to EB and is released from cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

what is the incubation period of C.felis?

A

2-5 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

what is the key sign of C.felis?

A

severe conjunctivitis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

what cats are typically infected by C.felis?

A

young cats (<1 year) from multi cat households

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

what are the main clinical presentations of C.felis?

A 
feline conjunctivitis (acute/chronic/recurrent)
upper respiratory signs
corneal ulceration (rare)
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

how is C.felis diagnosed?

A

PCR from conjunctival swabs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

how is C.felis treated?

A

oral doxycycline for 4 weeks
at least 2 weeks after clinical resolution
in cattery all in contact cats should be treated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

is a vaccine for C.felis available?

A

yes - non core

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

what type of bacteria is B.bronchiseptica?

A

aerobic, gram negative, cocco bacilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

where may B.bronchiseptica be found?

A

clinically healthy dogs and cats as well as those with respiratory disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

where is B.bronchiseptica most prevalent?

A

high density populations e.g. boarding kennels/catteries

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

how long does B.bronchiseptica persist in the environment?

A

~10 days

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

what disinfectants are B.bronchiseptica susceptible to?

A

most

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

how is B.bronchiseptica passed on?

A

airborne
fomites
infected water sources

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

what is the incubation period of B.bronchiseptica?

A

2-10 dasy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

hwo does B.bronchiseptica lead to secondary infections?

A

respiratory colonisation leads to inflammation and so increased mucus production. This impairs host defences and so increases susceptibility to secondary infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

how does B.bronchiseptica infection most commonly present?

A

upper respiratory tract and large airway disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

what are kittens with B.bronchiseptica susceptible to?

A

pneumonia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

what are the signs of B.bronchiseptica?

A

sneezing
mucoid/mucopurulent nasal discharge
harsh cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

how is B.bronchiseptica diagnosed?

A

use of brochoalveolar lavage fluid
culture and sensitivity
PCR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

how can B.bronchiseptica be treated?

A

doxycycline 1-4 weeks

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

is there a vaccine for B.bronchiseptica?

A

yes - intranasal (non core)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

what type of viruses are FIV and FeLV?

A

enveloped RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

what are retroviruses?

A

viruses with RNA which is reverse transcribed within the host to produce proviral DNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

how well do FIV and FeLV survive outside the host?

A

poor survival - rapidly desiccated, inactivated by disinfectants

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

how does a cell become persistently infected with FIV and FeLV?

A

virus fuses with host cell membrane
viral reverse transcriptase enzyme converts RNA to proviral DNA
provirus integrated into host genome leading to persistent infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

what viral enzyme converts RNA to proviral DNA?

A

reverse transciptase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

what part of the FIV and FeLV genome encodes core viral proteins?

A

gag

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

what is an example of a gag gene in FIV?

A

p24

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

what part of the FIV and FeLV genome encodes enzymes (including reverse transcriptase)?

A

pol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

what part of the FIV and FeLV genome encodes envolope glycoproteins?

A

env

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

what is an example of a gag gene in FeLV?

A

p27

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

what is an example of a env gene in FIV?

A

gp40

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

what is an example of a env gene in FeLV?

A

gp70

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

what is FIV similar to?

A

HIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

is FIV zoonotic?

A

no

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

do all cats with FIV develop AIDS?

A

not all

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

what is the survival rate of cats with FIV?

A

comparable to those without FIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

how does the pathogenicity of FeLV compare to FIV?

A

more pathogenic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

what does the increased pathogenicity of FeLV mean?

A

more direct association with clinical disease than FIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

what clinical disease does FeLV lead to?

A

bone marrow disorders
haematopoietic neoplasia
immunosuppression

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

how is FIV transmitted?

A

bite wounds (high conc. in saliva)
infected blood products
some vertical transmission (~1/3 of kittens born to an infected mother)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

how is FeLV transmitted?

A

allogrooming - prolongued oronasal salivary exposure
fomites
vertical transmission effective
infected blood products

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

what is the signalment of FIV?

A

fighters
outdoor access
older
male

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

what is the global seroprevalence of FIV?

A

1-12% (lower end in pets, higher in feral)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

what is the signalment of FeLV?

A

close contact cats
outdoor access
median age ~3
entire

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

what is the global seroprevalence of FeLV?

A

1-6%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

what has caused a decline in global seroprevalence of FeLV?

A

vaccination (in core program)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

what is the effect of age on FeLV infection?

A

infection as an adult is less likely to lead to disease than in a younger cat (age related immunity)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

what is clinical course of FIV comparable to?

A

HIV / AIDS

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

how long does FIV infection last?

A

lifelong as virus is integrated into host genome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

what is commonly seen in cats with FIV?

A

prolonged (years) asymptomatic phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

what happens in the acute pahse of FIV infection?

A

virus replicates in local lymphoid tissue and leads to transient lymphadenopathy (large firm lymph nodes)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

when does peak viraemia of FIV occur?

A

8-12 weeks post infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

what are the signs of peak viraemia of FIV?

A

transient illness - lethargy, pyrexia, inappetance, GI signs, weight loss

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

is illness around peak FIV viraemia often noticed by owners?

A

no - often undiagnosed at this stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

following acute FIV infection what can happen?

A

asymptomatic phase which lasts lifetime

asymptomatic phase which then leads clinical / terminal phase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

what cells are particularly targeted by FIV?

A

CD4 T cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

what is the effect of FIV infection attacking CD4 T cells?

A

impaired response to infectious agents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

what is often seen in the terminal phase of FIV?

A 
chronic gingivostomatitis
opportunistic infections
neurological disease
neoplasia
myelosupression
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

when will viral load of FIV begin to climb after the initial peak load around 8-12 weeks post infection?

A

when CD4 t cell number become so low that the immune system can no longer suppress the virus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

what happens to viral load following acute phase of FIV?

A

immune system will suppress virus for a while

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

what are the clinical signs of FIV?

A

predisposition to secondary infection
neoplasia
occular lesions
anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

what cats are commonly screened for FIV (and FeLV)?

A

sick cats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

what do FIV screening tests detect?

A

antibodies against FIV

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

what does a positive result on an FIV test indicate?

A

FIV infection (based on 2 key assumptions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

what are the 2 key assumptions that a positive FIV result is based on?

A

no history of vaccination

cat is older than 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

why will vaccination history affect FIV test results?

A

vaccine will induce antibodies and these will be detected by the test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

why will the age of a kitten affect the result of an FIV test?

A

kittens may acquire maternal antibodies through colostrum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

how should a positive FIV result be confirmed?

A

by using a test from a different manufacturer or a different test type (especially when screening a well cat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

when is FIV more likely to be the cause of a current illness in the cat?

A

if immuno-incompetancy or lymphoma is a feature of the current disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

what may cause false negative FIV test results?

A

in early disease
in terminal disease
kittens with rapidly progressive disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

why may a FIV test give a false negative in early disease?

A

takes up to 8 weeks for antibodies to be detectable

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

why may a FIV test give a false negative in terminal disease?

A

antibody production may be impaired at this stage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

why may a FIV test give a false negative in kittens?

A

may have large viral burden with minimal antibody response

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

what should you do if suspicious of a false negative FIV test?

A 
re-check 2 months later
use PCR (blood) to check for DNA
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

when should cats be tested for FIV outside of sickness?

A 
known exposure to FIV+ cat
before rehoming to muti-cat household
blood donor screening
before FIV vaccine
seropositve kittens <6 months old
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

what should seropositve kittens <6 months old be retested?

A

> 6 months

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

what is the outcome if a FIV seropositve kitten <6 months old becomes negative when retested?

A

FIV negative result - positive was due to maternal antibodies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

what are the clinical signs of initial FeLV infection?

A

nonspecific clinical signs (inappetance, pyrexia, lethargy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

how is FeLV shed during the infection period?

A

salivary shedding mainly along with urinary and faecal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

what are the 3 possible outcomes of FeLV infections?

A

abortive infection
regressive infection
progressive infection

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

what will lead to an abortive FeLV infection?

A

strong immune response

188
Q

what does abortive infection mean in terms of FeLV immunity?

A

animal becomes immune to FeLV

189
Q

how is FeLV regressive infection caused?

A

ineffective immune response which leads to haematogenous spread in the blood. This then causes bone marrow infection which is suppressed by an effective immune response but as the infection has already entered the blood stream regressive infection will follow at some point (either immediate or delayed)

190
Q

when will bone marrow infection with FeLV occur?

A

approx 3 weeks post infection

191
Q

what causes progressive FeLV infection?

A

inadequate immune response

established bone marrow infection

192
Q

what does progressive FeLV infection lead to?

A

persistent viraemia

manifestations of FeLV related disease

193
Q

what are the main clinical manifestations of FeLV?

A

anaemia / bone marrow disorders
neoplasia
immunosuppression
other

194
Q

what infections can arise from FeLV associated immunosuppression?

A

opportunistic
gingivostomatitis
FHV and FCV
Mycoplasma haemofelis

195
Q

what are the effects of FeLV associated immunosuppression on treatment and vaccine response?

A

respond less well to therapy compared to healthy cats

have impaired response to vaccinations

196
Q

what type of anaemia is most common in FeLV?

A

non-regenerative macrocytic

197
Q

why is macrocytic non-regenerative anaemia in FeLV so significant?

A

unusual to see macrocytic non-regenerative anaemia

198
Q

what is regenerative anaemia linked to FeLV often caused by?

A

IMHA

Mycoplasma haemofelis

199
Q

what are the main FeLV related anaemia and bone marrow disorders?

A

anaemia (non-regenerative most common)
neutropenia
thrombocytopenia
various severe and pre-malignant bone marrow disorders

200
Q

what is the most common FeLV related neoplasia?

A

lymphoma

leukaemia

201
Q

what is the risk increase associated with lymphoma in FeLV cats compared to healthy cats?

A

60% risk increase

202
Q

what is the normal age of FeLV lymphoma cats?

A

young

203
Q

what type of lymphoma is strongly associated with FeLV?

A

thymic

204
Q

why are most cats with lymphoma FeLV negative now?

A

due to FeLV vaccination and so low prevelance

205
Q

List 5 other FeLV associated diseases

A 
Ansocoria
reproductive failure
neurologic signs
immune-mediated diseases
GI signs
206
Q

how is FeLV diagnosed?

A

screening blood tests

207
Q

what is an example of a test for FeLV?

A

ELISA for FeLV antigen (capsid protein)

208
Q

what should be done if a FeLV positive result is gained in a healthy or sick cat?

A

repeat test

209
Q

what should be done to confirm a FeLV positive result in a sick cat?

A

repeat with a different test manufacturer or methodology

210
Q

how should a cat be evaluated for FeLV regressive infection if healthy?

A

4-6 month time interval before repeat test to allow time for regression

211
Q

what confirmatory tests can be used for FeLV?

A

immunoflourescent antibody

PCR

212
Q

what sample can be used for an immunoflourescent antibody test for FeLV?

A

blood and bone marrow

213
Q

what sample can be used for a PCR test for FeLV?

A

blood
bone marrow
any tissue sample

214
Q

what does a immunoflourescent antibody test for FeLV look for?

A

FeLV antigens in blood cells which indicate marrow infection

215
Q

what does a PCR test for FeLV look for?

A

proviral DNA

Viral RNA

216
Q

why may a FeLV false negative occur?

A

can take up to 1 month for FeLV antigen to be detectable

217
Q

what should be done if an FeLV test result is negative but exposure is suspected?

A

retest in 1-2 months

218
Q

why is the FeLV diagnosis in kittens not complicated like the FIV diagnosis?

A

tests are looking for antigens not antibodies

maternal antibodies or vaccine antibodies cannot interfere with test

219
Q

is there currently any medication which can clear FIV and FeLV virus from the body?

A

no

220
Q

what are the main methods of treatment for FIV and FeLV?

A

supportive management and nursing care

221
Q

what are the main nursing care points for FIV and FeLV patients?

A 
ensure well hydrated
adequate nutritional provision
management of manifestations of disease
antiviral drugs
interferons
222
Q

how can bacterial manifestations of FIV and FeLV be managed?

A

antibiotics

223
Q

how can chronic gingivostomatosis manifestations of FIV and FeLV be managed?

A

dental hygiene
extractions
analgesia/anti-inflammatories

224
Q

how can uveitis manifestations of FIV and FeLV be managed?

A

anti-inflammatories

atropine

225
Q

what may antiviral drugs be useful for during supportive management of FIV/FeLV?

A

may help with gingivostomatosis or neurological signs in FIV cats

226
Q

how should FIV/FeLV cats be managed at home?

A

indoor only
neutered
seperate + and - cats
no hunting or raw food

227
Q

what should increase in frequency for FIV/FeLV cats?

A

heath checks

228
Q

what should FIV/FeLV cats be vaccinated against?

A

core vaccinable diseases

229
Q

what type of vaccines should be used for FIV/FeLV positive cats?

A

inactivated only

230
Q

why should FIV/FeLV cats remain indoors?

A

prevent transmission

reduce exposure to opportunistic infections

231
Q

how can FIV/FeLV viruses be removed from the environment?

A

1:32 bleach in water solution

fomite transmission in FeLV key - no shared equip

232
Q

how can FIV be prevented?

A

vaccination

233
Q

what are the risks associated with FIV vaccine?

A

adjvant in vaccine is linked to risk of sarcoma
vaccine is not fully protective
complicates interpretation of serology results

234
Q

what cats in the UK are usually vaccinated against FIV?

A

only those at high risk - prolific fighters

235
Q

what must be done before vaccinating against FIV?

A

test to ensure cat is seronegative

236
Q

how can FeLV be prevented?

A

vaccine (non-core)

237
Q

what does the FeLV vaccine do when used prophylactically?

A

offers protection from progressive infection

238
Q

what cats should be vaccinated against FeLV?

A

outdoor cats

multi-cat environment (especially if FeLV + cat in household)

239
Q

when should FeLV vaccines be started?

A

kitten vaccines

240
Q

hen are repeat vaccines of FeLV needed?

A

q1-3 years depending on brand

241
Q

what is the prognosis for sick positive FIV cats?

A

less than one year

242
Q

what is the median length of survival post FIV diagnosis?

A

4-6 years

243
Q

is there a significant difference between healthy positive vs. negative cats survival?

A

no

244
Q

what leads to more rapid FIV deterioration?

A

feline AIDS in kittens and geriatric cats

245
Q

what is the prognosis of FeLV regressive infection?

A

usually leads to FeLV associated disease within 3-5 years
survival time is less than half that of non-FeLV cats
once sick prognosis and quality of life is poor

246
Q

describe a feline coronavirus (FCoV)

A

large
enveloped
RNA virus

247
Q

why does the virulence of FCoV vary?

A

mistakes occur frequently during replication meaning that some are able to infect macrophages and others have no disease signs at all

248
Q

what are the signs of a low virulence FCoV?

A

often no signs - GI infection

249
Q

what are the signs of a medium virulence FCoV infection?

A

may see vomiting and diarrhoea

250
Q

describe the effect of a high virulence FCoV infection

A

mutlisystemic effects - fatal

251
Q

how is FCoV transmitted?

A

faecoorally

252
Q

where is FCoV found?

A

everywhere within the environment

253
Q

how prevalent is FCoV infection?

A

high - up to 100% of cats in multicat households will be infected with FCoV at some satge

254
Q

how prevalent is FCoV related clinical disease?

A

very low - low virulent strain is common

255
Q

what can FCoV mutate into?

A

feline infectious peritonitis

256
Q

how is FCoV infection shed?

A

faecally

257
Q

how will another cat pick up FCoV infection?

A

faeco-oral transmission

smelling faeces, contaminated fomites (shared litter trays)

258
Q

where does FCoV replicate?

A

within the intestine

259
Q

are there usually signs of FCoV infection?

A

frequently no signs, can be small intestinal diarrhoea

260
Q

when is FCoV shed faecally?

A

1 week following infection

some cats are lifelong shedders

261
Q

when can mutation of FCoV to FIPV occur?

A

any time after FCoV infection

often a number of months later

262
Q

where does mutation from FCoV to FIP occur?

A

within the individual cat

263
Q

is FIPV considered to be spread between cats?

A

no

264
Q

why is FIPV not considered to be spread between cats?

A

as the mutation of FCoV to FIPV occurs in individual cats

265
Q

how is FIPV systemically disseminated?

A

by its ability to replicate within macrophages and so be carried in the blood

266
Q

in how many FCoV infected cats does FIPV occur?

A

5%

267
Q

what are the 2 types of FIPV?

A

wet and dry

268
Q

what does the type of FIPV depend on?

A

individuals immune response

269
Q

which is the most common form of FIPV?

A

wet

270
Q

what happens during wet FIPV?

A

inflammation around blood vessels causes them to become leaky leading to effusions

271
Q

what happens during dry FIPV?

A

inflammation doesnt cause effusion, leads to formation of granulomas which prevent the organs from working properly

272
Q

what is the outcome of FIPV?

A

invariably fatal

273
Q

how many cases of FIP are wet?

A

up to 80%

274
Q

what does wet FIP lead to the development of?

A

effusions and their associted clinical signs

275
Q

what are the signs associated with abdominal effusion?

A

abdominal distention

276
Q

what are the signs associated with pleural effusion?

A

tachypnoea

dyspnoea

277
Q

what are the signs associated with pericardial effusion?

A

right sided heart failure if effusion is large enough

278
Q

what signs will a wet FIP cat present with?

A 
frequently jaundiced
lethargy
inappetance
weight loss
pyrexia
279
Q

how does dry FIP cause organ dysfunction?

A

development of pyo/granulomatous lesions withn multiple organs leading to dysfunction and sometimes organomegaly

280
Q

what is organomegaly?

A

increased size of organs

281
Q

what areas of the body are affected by dry FIP?

A 
lymph nodes
brain 
eyes
liver 
kidney
282
Q

what are the main signs of dry FIP which is affecting the brain?

A

neurological signs including seizures

283
Q

what are the main signs of dry FIP which is affecting the eyes?

A

uveitis

chorioretinitis

284
Q

what are the main signs of dry FIP which is affecting the intestines?

A

focal granulomas

285
Q

what are the main signs of dry FIP which is affecting the kidneys?

A

renomegaly

286
Q

are effusions seen with dry FIP?

A

no - may develop with time leading to wet FIP

287
Q

what are the main signs of dry FIP?

A 
may be jaundiced
lethargy
inappetance
weight loss
pyrexia
288
Q

of wet and dry FIP which is the more chronic disease?

A

dry

289
Q

is there a specific test for FIP?

A

no

290
Q

is there a test to distinguish between FCoV and FIP?

A

no as they are the same virus

291
Q

what is the only testable difference between FCoV and FIP?

A

ability to infect macrophages

and so ability to cause multi-systemic disease

292
Q

what is the signalment of FIP?

A

commonly under 1 but well recognised up to 3 years old
pure bred cats
multi-cat households

293
Q

when is a second peak of FIP seen?

A

in geriatric cats

294
Q

what may be seen in the history of FIP cats?

A

a recent stressor (e.g. rehoming, vaccination, neutering)

295
Q

what is often found on examination of FIP cats?

A 
weight loss
poor condition
often jaundiced
\+/- effusions
\+/- occular changes
\+/- neurological signs
\+/- palpably enlarged lymph nodes / liver / kidneys
296
Q

what is seen on haematology assessment of FIP cats?

A

may be normal
no classic sign
often lymphopenia and non-regenerative anaemia

297
Q

what are the typical serum biochemistry changes of a cat with FIP?

A

increased globulin
reduced albumin
increased bilirubin
increased alpha1-acid glycoprotein

298
Q

what is the albumin:globulin ratio in FIP cats?

A

<0.4

299
Q

what is increase in alpha1-acid glycoprotein associated with?

A

inflammatory conditions so not specific to FIP

300
Q

what imaging may be used in patients with FIP?

A

abdominal ultrasound
thoracic ultrasound
CNS MRI if neuro signs

301
Q

why should you keep scanning an FIP cat even if fluid isn’t seen?

A

as it may develop after fluid therapy which shouldn’t happen in a normal cat

302
Q

what are you looking for on an abdominal ultrasound of an FIP cat?

A

abdominal effusion
lymphadenomegaly
various other organ changes

303
Q

what are you looking for on a thoracic ultrasound of an FIP cat?

A

pleural effusion

pericardial effusion

304
Q

what equipment is required for an abdominocentisis?

A

10 ml syringe
butterfly catheter
EDTA and serum tubes

305
Q

what is the most useful test for FIP?

A

effusion analysis

306
Q

why is there high levels of protein in exudate?

A

due to increased globulin levels

307
Q

describe effusion exudate

A

thick
yellow
proteinaceous

308
Q

what cells are often found in exudate of a FIP cat?

A

neutrophils and macrophages

309
Q

what test can be used to check for presence of exudate (not FIP specific)?

A

Rivalta’s test

310
Q

What are the 2 other effusion fluid tests that can be performed to diagnose FIP?

A

FCoV reverse transcriptase PCR

Innunocytochemistry

311
Q

what is RT-PCR of effusion fluid from a FIP cat looking for?

A

FCoV nucleic acid in effusions

312
Q

when may you get a false negative PCR for FCoV?

A

if no/small amount of FCoV in sample

313
Q

how does immunocytochemistry of effusion fluid from a FIP cat work?

A

use of fluorescent labelled probes to demonstrate FCoV within macrophages (only seen with FIP)

314
Q

what can be tested if the patient doesn’t have wet FIP and so there is no effusion fluid to use?

A

wait to see if effusion develops
histopathology of perivascular granulomatous /pyogranulomatous lesions in affected organs
immunohistochemistry to demonstrate FCoV in macrophages

315
Q

what process is histopathology for FIP often used in?

A

post mortem diagnosis

316
Q

is FCoV serology useful at all?

A

no

317
Q

why is FCoV serology not at all useful?

A

only demonstrates FCoV exposure which is likely to have happened to every cat due to it’s prevalence in the environment

318
Q

when do antibodies to FCoV / carrier status of FCoV occur?

A

healthy cats who are carrying FCoV who will never get FIP

cats with FIP

319
Q

why can a negative FCoV serology result never be used to exclude FIP infection?

A

immune response may not have occurred at all

immune response is now reduced due to the progress of disease

320
Q

is there treatment available for FIP?

A

currently uniformly fatal

321
Q

what is management of FIP aimed at?

A

improving quality of life - palliation

322
Q

when is euthanasia of FIP cases usually warranted?

A

within weeks of diagnosis

323
Q

what drug can be used to palliate signs of FIP for a short period in mildly affected cases?

A

Prednisolone

324
Q

why may dry FIP cases survive longer?

A

wet become hypovolaemic quickly due to effusions

325
Q

what treatments are being trialed for FIP?

A

protease inhibitors

nucleoside analogues

326
Q

what is the main role of the treatments that are currently being trialed for FIP?

A

interfere with replication of virus

327
Q

what type of immunity is required for protection from FIP?

A

cell mediated immunity

328
Q

what antibodies to FCoV are kittens born with?

A

maternally derived

329
Q

when does kittens antibodies to FCoV wane?

A

after around 6 weeks when they will be infected by their mother / environment

330
Q

is vaccination for FCoV currently advised?

A

no

331
Q

via what route is the FCoV vaccine given?

A

intranasal

332
Q

when is the FCoV vaccine licenced from?

A

16 weeks

333
Q

why is systemic immunity to FCoV following vaccine not convincing?

A

replicates within the respiratory tract and doesn’t migrate

likely to be local immunity only

334
Q

what happens if FIP develops following FCoV vaccine?

A

prior vaccine can exacerbate the clinical disease

335
Q

why can prior FCoV vaccine exacerbate FIP clinical disease?

A

antibody related immune complexes are involved in pathogenesis of the pyo/granulomatous inflammatory reactions

336
Q

is FIP considered infectious?

A

no

337
Q

how long can FCoV survive in the environment?

A

a few days

338
Q

how long can FCoV survive in faeces?

A

up to 7 weeks

339
Q

what cleaning methods is FCoV susceptible to?

A

most disinfectants including bleach (1:32)

340
Q

who should be informed if a cat dies of FIP?

A

the breeder

341
Q

how long should a single cat household wait before acquiring another cat if the previous one has died from FIP?

A

2 months to enable household FCoV to die

342
Q

how should the post FIP infection period be managed in a multi-cat household?

A

take steps to reduce stress/overcrowding
ensure cleanliness
consider that other cats are likely already FCoV exposed

343
Q

where should queens kitten to reduce FCoV risk?

A

away from other cats

344
Q

what are some key breeder considerations to prevent FCoV becoming FIP?

A

queens should kitten away from other cats
consider early weaning
avoid repeat matings that have resulted in multiple FIP kittens
quarantine household and avoid breeding 6 months following FIP case

345
Q

how can FIP be prevented?

A

minimise stress
aim for single or small group cat households
avoid overcrowding
ensure good hygiene - FCoV spread faecally

346
Q

how can stress be minimised to reduce risk of FIP?

A

don’t re-home kittens too early

seperate major events over a number of weeks (e.g. rehoming, vaccination and neutering)

347
Q

is it possible to have a FCoV free household?

A

almost impossible

348
Q

how can you increase the likelihood of FCoV free household?

A

maintain single/small group closed population
test any new additions (PCR) and only introduce negative cats
evaluate FCoV antibodies and FCoV shedding to seperate + and - cats

349
Q

what drug has been shown to reduce faecal shedding of FCoV?

A

Oral Mutian X

350
Q

what is Toxoplasma gondii a type of?

A

protozoal parasite

351
Q

what is the definitive host of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

cats

352
Q

what are the intermediate hosts of Toxoplasma gondii?

A

most warm blooded vertebrates (including cats and humans - zoonotic)

353
Q

what is the definitive host of a parasite?

A

the host in which parasitic sexual maturity and reproduction occurs

354
Q

what is the intermediate host of a parasite?

A

the host in which one (or more) stage(s) of parasitic development occurs

355
Q

what is the transport host of a parasite?

A

a host in which the parasite may survive but no parasitic development occurs - may be a vector / vehicle for transmission to other hosts

356
Q

how many people in the UK are infected with Toxoplasma?

A

up to 1/3 of people

357
Q

do all people infected with Toxoplasma develop disease?

A

no - only a minority

358
Q

how are humans infected with Toxoplasma?

A

ingestion of raw meat or contact with faeces which contain it

359
Q

what leads to sporulation of Toxoplasma oocysts?

A

appropriate conditions e.g. oxygen level, temperature, humidity

360
Q

what happens during sporulation of Toxoplasma oocysts?

A

development of sporozoites within oocysts

361
Q

what is the name of the non infectious T.gondii oocyst?

A

unsporulated form

362
Q

what is the name of the infectious form of T.gondii oocyst?

A

sporulated form

363
Q

what is found in the sporulated oocyte of T.gondii?

A

sporozoites

364
Q

what is schizogony?

A

asexual reproduction which produces merozoites

365
Q

what is produced by schizogony of T.gondii?

A

merozoites

366
Q

what will merozoites of T.gondii transform into?

A

either macrogamete (female) or microgamete (male)

367
Q

how is an T.gondii oocyst formed from micro and macro gametes?

A

through sexual reproduction penetration of macrogamete by microgamete

368
Q

when are tachyzoites formed?

A

during rapidly dividing stage - active infection

369
Q

when are bradyzoites formed?

A

slowly dividing / tissue cyst stage (latent infection)

370
Q

what happens if bradyzoites are ingested by cats?

A

transforms to merozoites in the GI tract

371
Q

when do T.gondii oocycts become infectious to the intermediate host?

A

following sporulation

372
Q

what is the only definitive host of T.gondii?

A

cats

373
Q

how are cats typically infected with T.gondii?

A

ingestion of bradyzoites in prey tissues or raw meat

374
Q

where are merozoites formed in the cat?

A

intestinal epithelial cells

375
Q

how is the zygote shed from the host cat?

A

faecally as an unsporulated oocyst

376
Q

how long are oocysts shed in the definitive hosts faeces?

A

up to 3 weeks post ingestion

377
Q

how does T.gondii enter the intermediate host?

A

sporulated oocyst or bradyzoite ingestion (raw meat)

378
Q

how does systemic spread of T.gondii occur in the intermediate host?

A

sporozoites released in intestinal tract which leads to systemic spread by penetration of blood and lymph

379
Q

what types of mammalian cells can T.gondii enter/infect?

A

most types of cells

380
Q

what causes clinical T.gondii disease in the intermediate host?

A

rapid asexual reproduction (tachyzoites) within cells which leads to pathology in infected organ/cell

381
Q

how long can production of host bradyzoites persist for?

A

indefinitely

382
Q

when may production of tissue bradyozoites be reactivated?

A

at times of stress, pregnancy, immunosuppression

383
Q

what are the particular sites of T.gondii replication?

A

CNS, skeletal muscle, organs

384
Q

what can infection of mammalian cells with T.gondii lead to?

A

cell death

385
Q

what antibodies are produced in response to acute infection with T.gondii?

A

IgM

386
Q

what antibodies are produced in response to convalescence from infection with T.gondii?

A

IgG

387
Q

what do antibodies to T.gondii correlate with?

A

infection status rather than clinical disease

388
Q

how is clinical T.gondii disease prevented in most intermediate hosts?

A

most will mount a successful immune response which prevents ongoing T. gondii replication and so clinical disease

389
Q

what can immunosuppression of a T. gondii intermediate host at any time lead to?

A

reactivation of latent disease

390
Q

why is there geographical variation in seroprevalence of T. gondii?

A

due to the difference in conditions - some of which may not be optimal for oocyst sporulation

391
Q

how may sick cats are seropositive for T.gondii?

A

1/3

392
Q

what are the main risk factors for T.gondii exposure?

A

raw diet
outdoor lifestyle
hunting
age

393
Q

why does age increase risk for T.gondii exposure?

A

more time to be exposed!

394
Q

what are the clinical signs of T. gondii?

A 
non specific - lethragy anorexia
occular
neurological
hepatic
pancreatic
pulmonary
395
Q

are GI signs often seen in T. gondii infection?

A

no - even though it is a GI disease

396
Q

what are the occular sign of T. gondii?

A

uveitis

chorioretinitis

397
Q

what are the neurological signs of T. gondii?

A

CNS
neuromuscular disease
altered behaviour (e.g. rats loose aversion to cats)

398
Q

what are the pulmonary signs of T. gondii?

A

dyspnoea

399
Q

is there specific pathognomic examination / routine finding associated with T. gondii?

A

no

400
Q

what may be indicated by serum biochemistry of suspected T. gondii patient?

A

organ involvement (e.g. altered hepatic/muscle enzymes)

401
Q

what may be revealed by thoracic radiographs of a patient with T. gondii?

A

pulmonary parenchymal disease

402
Q

are faecal oocysts helpful when diagnosing T. gondii?

A

no

403
Q

why are faecal oocysts not helpful when diagnosing T.gondii?

A

indicates that the cat has been a definitive host recently due to short period of shedding but doesn’t indicate clinical disease

404
Q

how can t. gondii be diagnosed?

A

looking for immune response to the organism

looking for organism itself

405
Q

what antibodies will show response to T. gondii?

A

IgM

IgG

406
Q

what level of IgM will indicate clinical T. gondii disease?

A

> 1:64

407
Q

what level of IgG will indicate T. gondii clinical disease?

A

4 fold increase in IgG

408
Q

when is IgG usually detactable?

A

3-4 weeks post T. gondii infection

409
Q

how long may levels of IgG remain elevated for following T. gondii infection?

A

commonly remain elevated for years

410
Q

when is IgM usually detectable following T. gondii infection?

A

2-4 weeks

411
Q

when has IgM usually returned to normal after T. gondii infection?

A

by 16 weeks

412
Q

how can the T. gondii organism be found?

A

cytology

histology

413
Q

where may cytology / histology samples be taken from to test for T. gondii?

A 
fluid analysis (CSF, bronchoalveolar lavage, effusions)
FNA or biopsy (e.g. liver)
414
Q

what is indicated if T. gondii is found in cytology / histology?

A

diagnostic for clinical disease

415
Q

what is indicated if T. gondii is not found in cytology / histology?

A

doesn’t exclude the disease

416
Q

what may be performed on sample if T. gondii is found in cytology / histology?

A

PCR specific to T. gondii as it appears microscopically identical to N. caninum

417
Q

what is the most common treatment for t. gondii?

A

Clindamycin

418
Q

how long is Clindamycin given for to treat T. gondii?

A

4 weeks

419
Q

what is a consideration when giving Clindamycin to treat T. gondii?

A

oesophageal strictures are a risk - ensure it is washed down or given with food

420
Q

what supportive management of T. gondii is needed?

A

uveitis therapies
systemic prednisolone (anti-inflammatory)
nutritional / fluid support / anti-emetics

421
Q

what uveitis therapies may be given to T. gondii patients?

A

analgesia

anti-inflammatories

422
Q

is elimination of T. gondii possible?

A

no - treatment only suppresses replication and improves clinical signs

423
Q

what makes prognosis of T. gondii poor?

A

CNS, hepatic or pulmonary involvement

concurrent disease leading to immunosuppression or actual immunosuppression

424
Q

what may survivors of T. gondii be left with?

A

may recover fully or be left with residual dysfunction due to affected organs

425
Q

what is the most common route that humans are infected with T. gondii?

A

ingestion of tissue cysts from raw meat ingestion

426
Q

how can lambing pose a T. gondii infection risk?

A

causes abortion in sheep

contact with infected sheep placentae / lambing discharges

427
Q

can T. gondii survive in the environment?

A

yes and resistant to most disinfectants

428
Q

when can T. gondii risk foetal complications (inc. still birth)?

A

if initial infection occurs during preganacy

429
Q

how can regular cleaning of litter tray avoid T. gondii infection?

A

takes 1-5 days for sporulation to occur so if faeces are removed regularly there should be no infection risk

430
Q

how are haemotropic mycoplasmas commonly identified clinically?

A

feline erythrocytic infections

431
Q

what are the 3 types of haemotropic mycoplasmas?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis
Candidatus Mycoplasma haemominutum
Candidatus Mycoplasma turicensis

432
Q

what is the pathogenic type of haemotropic mycoplasma?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

433
Q

can all 3 species of haemotropic mycoplasmas be present in cats?

A

yes - separately and concurrently

434
Q

what are the modes of transmission of haemoplasmas?

A 
remains elusive - suggested routes:
iatrogenic
various arthropod vectors (e.g. fleas)
bite / fight wounds
vertical transmission
435
Q

what is the main iatrogenic method of haemoplasma transmission?

A

blood transfusions

436
Q

what are the risk factors for haemoplasmosis?

A

outdoor access
male
non-pedigree

437
Q

what are the additional risk factors for M. haemofelis disease?

A

young

FIV and/or FeLV positive

438
Q

what is the least prevalent but most pathogenic of the 3 feline mycoplasmas?

A

Mycoplasma haemofelis

439
Q

where does M. haemofelis attach?

A

cell surface of erythrocytes

440
Q

what does M. haemofelis lead to?

A

haemolytic anaemia

441
Q

what are the clinical signs of M. haemofelis related to?

A

anaemia

442
Q

what is the incubation period of M. haemofelis?

A

2 days - 1 month

443
Q

how long does acute disease (haemolytic anaemia) last in M. haemofelis?

A

2-4 weeks

444
Q

why is there cyclical pathogen presence with (sometimes cyclical) anaemia in M. haemofelis infection?

A

rapid replication of pathogen and then removal by the immune system

445
Q

how may the presence of M. haemofelis vary between individuals?

A

severity and duration - can cause sudden collapse and anaemia in some

446
Q

how may M. haemofelis be overcome?

A

treatment or natural recovery in some cases

447
Q

what happens during the recovery phase of M. haemofelis?

A

complete removal or sub-clinical clearance of organism from blood

448
Q

what do of M. haemofelis signs depend on?

A

severity of diesase

449
Q

what are the clinical signs of M. haemofelis?

A 
non-specific - weak, lethargic, inappetant
pallor (pale)
tachypnoea
icterus (uncommon)
tachycardia
heart murmurs
splenomegaly
pyrexia
pica
450
Q

what can cause icterus in the M. haemofelis patient?

A

due to haemolysis

451
Q

what would be found on haematology tests of a patient with M. haemofelis?

A

regenerative or pre-regenerative anaemia
reticulocytes
agglutination

452
Q

why does agglutination of RBC occur in haematology of M. haemofelis patients?

A

antibodies attach to bacteria on the RBC surface which causes them to clump together

453
Q

is blood smear examination reliable in M. haemofelis diagnosis?

A

no

454
Q

why is blood smear not reliable in M. haemofelis diagnosis?

A

cyclical nature of infection means haemoplasmas aren’t always visible on RBC
haemoplasmas may fall off ex vivo RBC following collection
other features cannot be reliably differentiated from haemoplasmas (e.g. Howell-Jolly bodies)

455
Q

what is the best method of diagnosing haemoplasmas?

A

PCR

456
Q

what sample is used for PCR to test for haemoplasmas?

A

blood sample (EDTA)

457
Q

what is the first line of treatment of haemoplasmas?

A

Doxycycline

458
Q

how long does Doxycycline treatment for M. haemofelis last for?

A

2 weeks

459
Q

what is gained through Doxycycline treatment of M. haemofelis?

A

clinical remission but may not eradicate organism

460
Q

what other treatment may be offered for M. haemofelis?

A

blood transfusions

prednisolone

461
Q

what is the role of prednisolone in treatment of M. haemofelis?

A

steroids to treat IMHA

462
Q

when is response to M. haemofelis treatment usually seen?

A

within a few days

463
Q

are haemoplasmas seen in dogs?

A

of rare clinical significance

may be carried

464
Q

what is the canine specific haemoplasma?

A

Haemoplasma spp.

465
Q

under what scenario can haemoplasmas cause haemolytic anaemia in dogs?

A

splenectomised patients
immunocompromise
concurrent disease

X Clinical Veterinary Nursing Theory (70 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions