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Dermatology Flashcards

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1
Q

what are the most common signs presented by an animal with a dermatology issue?

A 
pruritus
scale
alopecia
crusting
ulceration
erosion
nodules
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2
Q

what can pruritus be due to?

A

allergy
parasites
microbial infection
ears

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3
Q

what type of disorders are implied when scale is present?

A

keratinisation disorders

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4
Q

what are primary skin lesions?

A

those that develop within the skin of their own accord

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5
Q

what is alopecia?

A

hair loss - may also be secondary

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6
Q

what is a bullae?

A

localised collection of fluid >0.5cm in diameter and larger than a vesicle

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7
Q

what is erythema?

A

a diffuse or localised redness of the skin which disappears with diascopy

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8
Q

what is a macule?

A

flat skin discolouration <1cm in diameter without surface elevation or depression

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9
Q

what is a nodule?

A

solid elevation greater than 1 cm usually extending into the dermis

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10
Q

what are large nodules referred to as?

A

masses

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11
Q

what is a papule?

A

small solid elevation of skin up to 1cm in diameter

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12
Q

what is a papule caused by?

A

infiltration of inflammatory cells, fluid or foreign material (calcium), with oedema and epidermal hyperplasia

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13
Q

what is a patch?

A

localised flat change in skin pigmentation larger than 1cm in diameter (a big macule)

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14
Q

what is a plaque?

A

flat topped elevation of the skin >0.5cm, flatter than a nodule

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15
Q

what is a plaque formed from?

A

coalition of papules

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16
Q

what is a pustule?

A

small elevation of epidermis filled with purulent material

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17
Q

what is a vesicle?

A

small elevation of the epidermis filled with clear fluid <0.5cm in diameter (blister like)

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18
Q

what is a wheal?

A

sharply raised lesion consisting of oedema, appears and disappears within minutes to hours

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19
Q

what are secondary lesions created by?

A

scratching, chewing or other trauma to the skin

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20
Q

what are secondary skin lesions the result of?

A

infections

evolve from regressing primary lesions

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21
Q

what is an comedone?

A

dilated hair follicle filled with cornified cells and sebaceous material

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22
Q

what is a crust?

A

dried exudate, cells, pus and scale adherent to the surface

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23
Q

what is an epidermal collarette?

A

excoriation / erosion, superficial damage to the epidermis

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24
Q

what is a fissure?

A

linear cleavage into the epidermis

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25
Q

what is hyperkeratosis?

A

increase in thickness in the cornified layer of the skin

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26
Q

when is hyperkeratosis often seen?

A

chronic skin disease

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27
Q

what is hyper and hypopigmentation?

A

changes in skin colour

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28
Q

what is lichenification?

A

thickening of the skin resulting in a cobblestone appearence

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29
Q

what is scale?

A

accumulation of loose fragments of the cornified layer of the skin

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30
Q

what is ulceration?

A

full thickness loss of the epidermis exposing the dermis

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31
Q

what is erosion?

A

some level of damage to the epidermis

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32
Q

what is involved in the process of diagnosing dermatological issues?

A

history
physical exam
list of viewed signs/problems
differential diagnoses which inform diagnostic plan

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33
Q

what is the key part of diagnosis of dermatology diseases?

A

history

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34
Q

what areas of the body are included in a dermatological physical exam?

A

ears (otoscope)
pads
ventrum

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35
Q

what questions should be asked during history taking to aid diagnosis of dermatological issues?

A

diet
other animals in the house
any human skin issues - zoonosis

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36
Q

what are the main diagnostic techniques used in dermatology?

A 
acetate tape
skin scrapings
impression smears
flea comb
trichogram
skin biopsy
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37
Q

what can be found during acetate tape for cytology?

A

malassezia
bacteria
inflammatory cells
squames

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38
Q

what can be found from performing deep skin scrapings?

A

demodex mites

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39
Q

what can be found from performing superficial skin scrapings?

A

cheyletiella

sarcoptes

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40
Q

what can be found by performing impression smears of skin?

A

inflammatory cells
malassezia
bacteria

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41
Q

what bacteria may be found after performing impression smears?

A

staphylococci

bacilli - Pseudomonas

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42
Q

where should be swabbed when performing an ear swab?

A

bottom of vertical canal

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43
Q

what may be found when testing with a flea comb?

A

fleas

cheyletiella

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44
Q

what is a trichogram?

A

hair pluck

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45
Q

what is anagen hair?

A

new growth within follicle

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46
Q

what is telogen hair?

A

resting phase of hair growth

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47
Q

what may be found from a trichogram?

A 
anagen and telogen hair
mite and lice eggs
evidence of pruritus
dermatophytosis
hair shaft abnormalities
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48
Q

how can evidence of pruritus be seen in trichogram?

A

broken ends of hairs

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49
Q

what is dermatophytosis?

A

infection of hair and skin caused by dermatophytes

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50
Q

what may be evidence of flea infestation seen from flea combing?

A

flea faeces - small red spots

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51
Q

what breed of cats is dermatophytosis often seen in?

A

persian

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52
Q

what are the signs of dermatophytosis?

A

scaling

alopecia

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53
Q

how can dermatophytosis be diagnosed?

A

Wood’s lamp
microscopy
dermatophyte test medium
culture

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54
Q

how does a Woods lamp test for dermatophytosis work?

A

use UV light to check for fluorescence of bacteria on skin

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55
Q

what test medium is used for dermatophytosis?

A

lactophenol cotton blue

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56
Q

how long will a dermatophytosis culture take?

A

2 weeks at room temperature

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57
Q

how can dermatophytosis be treated?

A

topical therapy

systemic therepy

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58
Q

what may apparent cure of small localised lesions of dermatophytosis be due to?

A

hosts immune response rather than products used

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59
Q

where may dermatophytosis infection spread to from obvious lesions?

A

up to 6cm away

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60
Q

what effect can clipping have on dermatophytosis?

A

reduce environmental and host load but can spread the disease around the animal

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61
Q

what shampoos can be used to treat dermatophytosis?

A

Malaseb

Microbex

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62
Q

what dips can be used to treat dermatophytosis?

A

Imaverol

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63
Q

what has Malaseb been proven to help with?

A

decontamination of infected cats environment

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64
Q

how should shampoos for treatment of dermatophytosis be applied?

A

twice weekly and rinsed after 10 minutes

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65
Q

when is systemic treatment of dermatophytosis used?

A

for generalised, chronic infection

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66
Q

what systemic treatment for dermatophytosis is available in cats?

A

Itraconazole

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67
Q

how should Itraconazole be used to treat dermatophytosis?

A

7 days
3 x per day
7 days between each

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68
Q

what forms is Itraconazole available in?

A

suspension or capsules

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69
Q

what drug is used for treatment of dermatophytosis in dogs?

A

Ketoconazole

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70
Q

what is a major source of environmental contamination with dermatophytes?

A

fungal spores on hairs

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71
Q

how can dermatophytes be removed from the environment?

A

combination of physical cleaning and use of chemical agents
grooming equipment, collars, bedding should be thrown away
washable items should be soaked in antifungal disinfectant and then washed above 50

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72
Q

what is the difficulty with using chemicals to clean the environment?

A

staining / damage of soft furnishings

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73
Q

what chemicals can be used to clean the environment following dermatophyte infection of animal?

A

bleach (1:100 dilution)

Enilconazole - spray or smoke bomb

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74
Q

what are the key indications for skin biopsy?

A

neoplasia (suspected or obvious)
unusual or serious generalised dermatosis
condition responding poorly to therapy
other diagnostic tests not helpful
vesicles, bullae, erosions or ulcerations

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75
Q

what forms of anaesthetic are used for skin biopsy?

A

GA - most common

LA and sedation

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76
Q

what skin prep is necessary for biopsy?

A

clip but no scrub as bacteria on skin need to be preserved

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77
Q

what lesions should be chosen for biopsy?

A

multiple sites
fully developed lesions
not chronic or traumatized sites

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78
Q

what are the 2 main types of skin biopsy?

A

punch (4/6/8mm)

excision

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79
Q

what tests may be performed on biopsied tissue?

A

histopathology
culture
cytology

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80
Q

what are the 4 main results of a skin biopsy?

A

diagnostic
compatible with clinical diagnosis
not compatible with a diagnosis
non-diagnostic

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81
Q

what histopathologist should be chosen to deal with skin biopsies?

A

one with interest in skin disease

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82
Q

what should be provided to lab along with sample?

A

full history (age, breed etc)
signs
differential diagnoses

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83
Q

what are “flare factors”?

A

central and additional influences on the perception of pruritus

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84
Q

what are the 4 main “flare factors”?

A

fleas
bacterial and yeast infection
dry skin and low humidity / sweating
psychological factors (stress, anxiety)

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85
Q

what scale is involved in assessment of pruritus?

A

visual analogue scale

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86
Q

who will complete a VAS relating to pruritus?

A

owner

clinican

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87
Q

what should owners be specifically questioned about in relation to pruritus?

A

foot liking and face rubbing which may be interpreted as grooming
head shaking - not solely related to ear infection and can be a sign of generalised pruritus

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88
Q

why must all factors contributing to pruritus be investigated?

A

animal without disease manifestations may tolerate a certain allergic load - small increase may push the animal over the threshold to showing clinical signs.
naturally occuring diseases alongside pruritus may also push animals over this threshold.
There is often more than one cause

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89
Q

what are the clinical signs of canine atopic dermatitis?

A 
self trauma
secondary bacterial and Malessezia (yeast) infections 
alopecia
erythema
excoriation
hyperpigmentation
lichenification
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90
Q

how is canine atopic dermatitis diagnosed?

A

rule out other conditions that cause pruritus

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91
Q

what is used to select allergens for immunotherapy for canine atopic dermatitis?

A

intradermal injections and blood testing

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92
Q

what breeds of dog are particularly prone to atopic dermatitis?

A

GSD
Terrier
animals with lots of skin folds

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93
Q

what is not confirmed by allergen testing?

A

diagnosis of atopic disease

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94
Q

what can allergen testing provide?

A

identification of allergens of clinical significance

basis for allergen specific immunotherapy (ASIT) / immunotherapy

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95
Q

what are the clinical signs of pyoderma?

A

intraepidermal pustules easily disrupted by grooming / scratching
transient primary lesions and secondary lesions of crusting

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96
Q

what is produced by peripheral spread of pyoderma?

A

annular lesion with epidermal collarette

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97
Q

what aspects of pyoderma are sometimes antibiotic responsive?

A

lesions and sometimes the pruritus

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98
Q

when will pyoderma reoccur?

A

if underlying cause is not identified and managed

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99
Q

what are the common underlying causes of pyoderma?

A

ectoparasites
allergy
endocrinopathies

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100
Q

what are the 2 main types of pyoderma?

A

superficial

deep

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101
Q

what happens during superficial pyoderma?

A

bacteria multiply on surface of skin and in hair folicles

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102
Q

what happens during deep pyoderma?

A

infection is deep into hair follicle - often caused by demodex mite

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103
Q

what antibiotic is often used to treat pyoderma?

A

clavanic acid and amoxicillin

104
Q

when does superficial pyoderma usually respond to treatment?

A

3-4 weeks

105
Q

why may pruritus associated with pyoderma resolve completely with treatment?

A

pruritus may be due to immune response to Staphylococci antigens

106
Q

what must happen before any investigations into allergies or endocrinopathies is started?

A

treat bacterial infections throughly

107
Q

what is concerning about treating pyoderma with antibiotics?

A

advent of meticillin resistant Staphylococcus pseudintermedius with repeated treatment

108
Q

what therapy may be used for pyoderma instead of antibiotics or alongside?

A

topical (e.g. shampoos)

clipping of coat

109
Q

what is beneficial about topical therapy for pyoderma?

A

removes scale, crusts and exudate from skin surface
reduces number of bacteria
promotes deeper drainage of lesions
reduction of pain and pruritus

110
Q

how often and for how long should topical treatment for pyoderma be used?

A

2-3 times weekly until clinical remission

111
Q

what do products normally used to treat pyoderma contain?

A

chlorhexadine

112
Q

how long should the shampoo be on the animals coat before through rinsing?

A

10 mins

113
Q

what is Malassezia?

A

opportunistic yeast pathogen

114
Q

where on the body is Malassezia pachydermatis usually found?

A

external ear canal, chin, perioral and interdigital areas

115
Q

what molecule is Malassezia pachydermatis dependent on?

A

lipids

116
Q

what will Malassezia pachydermatis grow on in the lab?

A

Saboraud’s medium

117
Q

what are the predisposing factors to Malassezia pachydermatis?

A

alterations in skin microclimate

allergic and bacterial skin disease

118
Q

where is Malassezia pachydermatis found on the body?

A

generalised with ventral distribution

localised to the face, feet, perianal regions and skin folds

119
Q

what sign is commonly seen with Malassezia pachydermatis?

A

severe pruritus

120
Q

what is the appearance of the skin of an animal with Malassezia pachydermatis?

A 
erythema
scale
hyperpigmentation
oily scale
malodour
121
Q

how can Malassezia pachydermatis infection be diagnosed?

A

impression smears
Acetate tape
culture

122
Q

what test is not recommended for Malassezia pachydermatis?

A

serology

123
Q

how is Malassezia pachydermatis infection treated?

A

twice weekly bathing with miconazole/chlorhexidine based shampoos
bathing with shampoos that have keratolytic effects
systemic therapy with Itraconazole

124
Q

what is a major sign of Malassezia pachydermatis infection?

A

otitis externa

125
Q

how can otitis externa infection with Malassezia pachydermatis be treated?

A

topical or oral steroids will control glandular hyperplasia and prevent cerumen production within the ear canal - effectively starving the yeast

126
Q

what is the most important feature of a fleas life cycle from a treatment perspective?

A

most of the intermediate stages may be found in the hosts environment

127
Q

will the flea usually try to remain on the host?

A

yes but usually removed by grooming or scratching

128
Q

why do allergic animals often have no signs flea infestation?

A

cats especially, are particularly efficient at removing fleas by grooming

129
Q

what is the most common ectoparasite of cats and dogs in the UK?

A

flea - Ctenocephalides felis

130
Q

what is the term flea bite hypersensitivity used to describe?

A

the clinical condition seen in animals that have become sensitised to antigenic components of flea saliva

131
Q

what hypersensitivity reactions are seen with flea bite hypersensitivity?

A

type 1 and type 4 hypersensitivity reactions with late onset IgE and continuous basophil response

132
Q

what signs are seen with flea bite hypersensitivity?

A 
seen on animals dorsal and lateral areas
allopecia
excoration
erythaema
thickening of skin 
pruritus
133
Q

what can be used to help diagnose flea bite hypersensitivity?

A

history
compatible clinical signs
evidence of fleas or flea excreta in the hair coat
evidence of flea infestation on in-contact animals
evidence of Dipylidium caninum infestation
positive response to flea control programme
elimination of differential diagnoses
positive responses to intradermal / serology testing with flea saliva allergen

134
Q

what are the factors which influence the efficacy of flea control?

A 
formulation
hair coat length 
bathing or swimming
use of insecticidal products on the animal
insect growth development inhibitors
135
Q

what are the best formulations of flea control?

A

spot on is best

sprays can work but a lot needs to be used

136
Q

what do insect growth development inhibitors do to affect flea lifecycle?

A

decrease the viability of eggs

137
Q

when are insect growth development inhibitors not effective?

A

pupae and pre-emerged adults remain unaffected and viable for long periods

138
Q

what is the best mechanical control method for indoor management of fleas?

A

through vacuuming

139
Q

what effect will vacuuming have on fleas in the environment?

A

removes larvae and eggs
removes organic debris / flea faeces which are nutritional support for larvae
improves efficacy of environmental spray treatment by aerating carpet before application

140
Q

what is not recommended to remove fleas from the environment?

A

carpet shampooing and steam cleaning due to residual humidity providing optimum growing environment

141
Q

what is the main aim of flea control for unaffected puppies, kittens and adults?

A

prophylaxis

142
Q

how should unaffected puppies, kittens and adults be treated for fleas?

A

regular use of topical on-animal product with demonstrated efficacy, long duration of action and acceptable safety
effective, safe environmental product such as the IGIs

143
Q

how do many owners realise that their pet has a flea infestation?

A

they are being bitten themselves

144
Q

how should an infested dog, cat or environment be treated?

A

effective, fast acting pesticide is required for all in contact pets
treatment of environment that includes insecticide to deal with newly emerging adults
adequate vacuuming

145
Q

how should animals with flea allergy dermatitis be treated?

A

on-animal insecticide
environmental insecticide
use of IGI to ensure long term control
adjunctive treatment with short acting glucocorticoids and/or antibiotics

146
Q

what is crucial for animals with flea allergy dermatitis?

A

fast effective insecticide treatment followed by a preventative programme

147
Q

what can lead to failure to achieve flea control?

A

failure to treat all animals in the house
failure to treat effectively with an on animal product
failure to remove fleas from environment

148
Q

what histological changes are seen in an animal with demodex?

A

mural folliculitis - inflammation of hair follicle walls
folliculitis and furunculosis - superficial and deep boils
nodular dermatitis (itchy dumps on skin) in some cases
interface mural folliculitis

149
Q

how is demodex diagnosed?

A

deep skin scrapings
hair plucks
skin biopsy

150
Q

is skin biopsy a routine procedure for finding demodex?

A

no

151
Q

under what circumstances does generalised demodicosis occur?

A

immune system is suppressed

152
Q

in what animals is demodex common?

A

young dogs <18 months

also seen as adult onset

153
Q

what proportion of demodex cases recover spontaneously?

A

50%

154
Q

should animals with generalised demodocosis be used for breeding?

A

no - predisposition is inherited

155
Q

what defines demodex as generalised?

A

more than 5 lesions
one major body region affected
2 or more feet affected

156
Q

does localised demodicosis usually become generalised?

A

rarely

157
Q

describe the signs of juvenile onset / localised demodicosis

A

focal areas of alopecia and erythema especially on legs and head

158
Q

in principle should localised demodicosis be treated?

A

no - spontaneous resolution in up to 90% of cases

159
Q

what should happen if a single adult demodex mite is found?

A

reassess in a couple of weeks to see if there is demodicosis

160
Q

what can cause adult onset demodex?

A 
suppression of the immune system
corticosteroid therapy
hyperadrenocorticism
chemotherapy
neoplasia
hypothyroidism
idiopathic
161
Q

how can the trigger of adult onset demodex be disocvered?

A 
look at history - including any drug therapies
haematology
serum biochemistry
endocrine function tests
urinalysis
lymph node biopsy
radiography
162
Q

what is the main treatment for demodicosis?

A

acaricidal treatment (fluralaner, afoxolaner, sarolaner)

163
Q

how can secondary bacterial pyoderma to demodicosis be treated?

A

oral cefalexin for 4-12 weeks

bathe with chlorhexidine 3 times a week

164
Q

how long is the life cycle of sarcoptes?

A

up to 3 weeks

165
Q

where are Sarcoptes eggs laid?

A

deep in burrows in the host created by the female

166
Q

where are sarcoptes mites found?

A

superficial layers of the skin

167
Q

what sign is sarcoptes infestation particularly associated with?

A

pruritus

168
Q

why is sarcoptes associated with intense pruritus?

A

due to activity of mites in skin and the development of a hypersensitivity response

169
Q

how can canine sarcoptes be diagnosed?

A

skin scrapings
skin biopsy
ELISA blood test

170
Q

what skin scrapings should be taken to diagnose sarcoptes?

A

multiple, superficial - avoiding crusts and excoriated areas

171
Q

is skin biopsy for sarcoptes diagnosis often useful?

A

only supportive, rarely diagnostic with no reliable histomorphological markers

172
Q

how are sarcoptes mites transmitted?

A

close contact
fomites
red foxes

173
Q

where may animals be exposed to sarcoptes?

A

kennel or grooming parlour - any contamination of the environment

174
Q

how should concurrent staphylococcal infections be treated alongside sarcoptes?

A

appropriate antibacterial therapy including antibacterial shampoo
oral antibiotics for 3 weeks

175
Q

what medication is used to treat scabies?

A

macrocyclic lactones or isoxazolines

176
Q

when may corticosteroids be given to sarcoptes patients?

A

to alleviate pruritus through anti-inflammatory doses (only with sarcoptes treatment alongside)

177
Q

what may accompany the onset of Otodectes cynotis infection?

A

acute signs of irritation

178
Q

what may be developed by some cats in response to feeding Otodectes cynotis mites?

A

profound hypersensitivity

179
Q

what is the main treatment for Otodectes cynotis?

A

selamectin is licensed in cats as a spot on

moxidectin (Advocate)

180
Q

what should be done prior to application of a product indicated for killing Otodectes cynotis mites?

A

wax removed from ear

181
Q

what are Cheyletiella?

A

large surface mites associated with cats, dogs and rabbits

182
Q

where do Cheyletiella live on the host?

A

epidermal pseudo-tunnels

183
Q

what do Cheyletiella feed on?

A

tissue fluids

184
Q

where are Cheyletiella eggs attached?

A

to hair of host by fine fillaments

185
Q

what type of parasites are Cheyletiella?

A

obligate - live full 35 day lifecycle on host

186
Q

what may develop in the animal in response to Cheyletiella?

A

hypersensitivuty

187
Q

who can Cheyletiella be transmitted to?

A

humans - is highly zoonotic

188
Q

why is presence of Cheyletiella mites deemed to be so low?

A

due to flea control measures

189
Q

what are the clinical signs of Cheyletiellosis?

A

variable - most commonly observed in young animals
lesions include scaling
mild pruritus
miliary dermatitis or symmetrical alopecia

190
Q

how can Cheyletiella be diagnosed?

A

microscopic identification of mites or eggs from coat brushings, hair plucks, superficial skin scrapes and acetate tape impressions

191
Q

what is the main method of treatment for Cheyletiellosis?

A

selamectin applied monthly
moxidectin
spraying with fipronil or permethrins
bathing with selenium sulphide or flea shampoos

192
Q

what are Trombiculids known as?

A

harvest mites

193
Q

what are harvest mites?

A

6 legged larvae of Trombicula autumnalis

194
Q

where are Trombicula autumnalis found?

A

present in vegetation in mid to late summer and autumn - particularly in chalk uplands

195
Q

when do Trombiculids attach to the host?

A

larvae attach and feed for 3 days before completing life cycle in the environment

196
Q

where do Trombiculids parasitize?

A

relatively hairless skin (e.g. Henry’s pocket, interdigital spaces and ventrum)

197
Q

can Trombiculids be seen with the naked eye?

A

yes - orange in colour and tend to group together

198
Q

what are the signs of Trombiculids?

A

erythema
papules
crusting
- depends on development of hypersensitivity

199
Q

how is presence of Trombiculids diagnosed?

A

observation of orange six legged larvae and confirmed by microscopy

200
Q

what are the treatment options for Trombiculids?

A 
spraying with flea products containing fipronil (every 2 weeks to prevent mite attachment)
glucocorticoid therapy (if hypersensitivity reaction)
201
Q

what are the 2 main types of louse?

A

biting - Felicola subrostratus

chewing - Trichodectes canis

202
Q

what is the lifecycle of lice?

A

confined to the host and takes 14-21 days

203
Q

where are lice eggs attached?

A

to the hairs

204
Q

how many nymph stages of lice are there before the adult?

A

3

205
Q

are lice contagious?

A

yes - but host specific

206
Q

what are the clinical signs of lice?

A

pruritus and scaling of the dorsum

may develop severe self trauma

207
Q

in what animals are lice common?

A

young animals
debilitated animals
overcrowded or multi-animal houselholds

208
Q

how are lice diagnosed?

A

careful exam of the coat for adults or eggs
acetate tape impression
coat brushings and hair pluck

209
Q

how are lice treated?

A

selamectin and moxidectin (licensed)
fipronil spray (one off)
clip heavily infested animals

210
Q

why may clipping highly lice infested animals be an effective form of treatment?

A

reduces the burden of eggs and adults to allow effective use of topical therapies

211
Q

what are the 3 main zoonotic ectoparasites?

A

fleas
sarcoptes (scabies)
cheylitellia

212
Q

how many hosts are involved in a tick lifecycle?

A

3

213
Q

why are ticks viewed as so dangerous?

A

due to what they carry rather than them themselves

214
Q

how should you remove a tick?

A

using tool or fine tipped tweezers
grasp tick as close to the skin as possible
pull upwards firmly and steadily
don’t squeeze or crush tick body

215
Q

where should exotic ticks be reported to?

A

UK tick surveillance scheme

216
Q

how can ticks be treated?

A

fipronil licensed for monthly control of ticks

deltamethrin (dogs) and flumethrin (cats) based products in a collar

217
Q

what is the main treatment option for dogs and ticks?

A

isoxazoline family of 4 drugs

pyripole based products

218
Q

what parasites are included in the PETS travel scheme?

A

ticks

tapeworms

219
Q

what tapeworm is prevented from infecting the UK by the PETS travel scheme?

A

Echinococcus multilocularis

220
Q

what is the definitive host of echinococcus granulosus?

A

carnivores - have little impact on their health

221
Q

what is caused by Echinococcus granulosus in the intermediate host?

A

cysts in the liver and lungs - take up space and affect organ function

222
Q

what is the name of the cyst caused by echinococcus granulosus?

A

hydatid cyst

223
Q

what is used to treat echinococcus granulosus in the definitive host?

A

praziquantil

224
Q

how is echinococcus granulosus diagnosed and treated in the intermediate host?

A

diagnosis: PM, ultrasound or radiography

no treatment

225
Q

how can echinococcus granulosus be controlled?

A

regular worming of dogs
keep dogs away from fields of sheep to prevent sheep becoming infected
meat should be carefully inspected

226
Q

what are the 3 main zoonotic species of tapeworm?

A

echinococcus granulosus
taenia
echinococcus multilocularis

227
Q

what are the taenia species found in dogs?

A 
taenia multiceps
taenia seralis
taenia pisiformis
taenia hydatigena
taenia ovis
228
Q

what is the main taenia species of cat?

A

taenia taeniformis

229
Q

what is the intermediate stage of taenia hydatigena?

A

cysticerus larvae in abdomen or liver

230
Q

what is the intermediate stage of taenia multiceps?

A

coenurus larvae in brain and spinal cord

231
Q

what is the intermediate stage of taenia ovis?

A

cysticercus larvae in abdomen or liver

232
Q

what is the intermediate stage of taenia taeniaeformis?

A

strobilocerus larvae in liver and abdomen

233
Q

how are cats and dogs infected with taenia?

A

hunting / eating infected meat

234
Q

how can taenia hydatigena be controlled?

A

stop dogs eating offal (don’t feed, remove dead sheep)
stop sheep eating eggs (prevent dogs defecating in pasture)
worming

235
Q

what is caused in the intermediate host by taenia multiceps?

A

space occupying lesion

destruction of nervous tissue

236
Q

what is the destruction of nervous tissue by taenia multiceps known as?

A

Coenurus cerebralis

237
Q

why must all pets be wormed 1-5 days before entering the UK?

A

to prevent echinococcus multilocularis from entering the UK

238
Q

how is echinococcus multilocularis spread?

A

in gut of DH (carnivore) - shed in faeces - attaches to GI wall of IH (rodents and humans) - DH infected when eats IH

239
Q

how is echinococcus multilocularis prevented from becoming endemic in the UK?

A

foxes treated with praziquantil

PETS scheme to prevent entry to UK without praziquantil

240
Q

how is diplidium canium spread?

A

egg packets expelled in faeces
eggs consumed by fleas (IH)
fleas ingested by DH

241
Q

when does toxocara become infectious?

A

egg becomes embryonated - contains L3 larva - within the environment

242
Q

what is the lifecycle of toxocara canis?

A

hatch in the gut
hepato-tracheal migration
can have somatic arrest in adults (stop growing) and be reactivated especially around pregnancy

243
Q

what may reactivate toxocara canis?

A

pregnancy

244
Q

how can T.canis be prevented and controlled?

A

routine worming of dogs
early worming of pups
care with pregnant bitches

245
Q

where is a major source of toxocara canis eggs within the environment?

A

puppies

246
Q

what may be used to treat toxocara canis?

A

benzimidazoles: fenbendazole
endectocides: milbemycin, moxidectin
piperazine citrate

247
Q

what is the worming protocol for pups with toxocara canis?

A

2 wees old
then weeks 4, 6, 9 and 12
then every 3 months

248
Q

how should the bitch be wormed before whelping to prevent toxocara canis being passed to her pups?

A

fenbendazole daily from day 42 - 2 weeks after whelping

moxidectin and selamectin spot on

249
Q

what routine worm control is needed in adult dogs?

A

monthly (or every 3)

250
Q

how should cats be wormed to protect kittens from toxocara?

A

no transplacental transmission (only transmammary) so kittens can just be wormed from 3-4 weeks

251
Q

do cats need to be wormed against toxocara?

A

yes - paratenic hosts of T.cati

252
Q

what are the clinical signs of angiostrongylus?

A 
cough
dyspnoea
anaemia
depression
anorexia
coagulopathy
253
Q

what can angiostrongylus lead to?

A

pneumonia

254
Q

how is angiostrongylus diagnosed?

A

antigen blood test

255
Q

how is angiostrongylus treated and prevented?

A

no cure

prevention: moxidectin and milbemycin

X Clinical Veterinary Nursing Theory (70 decks)

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