Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

X Clinical Veterinary Nursing Theory > Cardiovascular Disease > Flashcards

Cardiovascular Disease Flashcards

You may prefer our related Brainscape-certified flashcards:
Nursing Pharmacology flashcards NCLEX-RN® flashcards Nursing Mental Health flashcards Nursing Fundamentals flashcards Nursing Safety & Infection flashcards Nursing Adult Health flashcards NCLEX-PN® flashcards Nursing Management of Care flashcards Nursing Pediatrics flashcards Nursing Maternity flashcards
1
Q

what is the function of the heart?

A

to pump blood around the body (via the lungs and systemic circulation)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

what is the normal HR of dogs?

A

60-180 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

what is the average heart rate of cats?

A

120-240 bpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

when are congenital cardiac diseases present?

A

from birth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

in what age group of animals are congenital heart diseases most often seen?

A

young animals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

what causes congenital heart diseases?

A

abnormalities of heart development in utero

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

what are 4 of the common congenital cardiac diseases?

A

aortic stenosis
pulmonic stenosis
patent ductus arteriosus
ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

what is occurring during aortic or pulmonic stenosis?

A

narrowing of valves

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

what is a patent ductus arteriosus?

A

failure of the closure of a foetal vessel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

what is a ventricular septal defect?

A

hole in ventricular septum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

when do acquired heart diseases develop?

A

later on in life

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

what are the most common heart diseases of the valves in dogs?

A

myxomatous mitral valve disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

what is the most common heart disease of the myocardium in dogs?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

what is the most common heart disease of the pericardium in dogs?

A

pericardial effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

what is the most common acquired heart disease in cats?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

what is the other type of cardiac disease apart from congential and acquired?

A

arrhythmias

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

what are the 2 main types of arrhythmia?

A

bradyarrhythmia and tachyarrhythmia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

what tests/assessments form part of the diagnosis of heart disease?

A 
full history
physical exam
blood tests
blood pressure
ECG
Holter monitor
Echocardiography
thoracic radiographs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

what is a Holter monitor used for?

A

24h ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

what is involved in echocardiography?

A

cardiac ECG

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

how do patients with cardiac disease present?

A 
incidental finding
exercise intolerance
weakness 
syncope
heart failure
sudden death
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

how may heart disease be found incidentally?

A

heart murmur or arrhythmia detected on vaccination

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

what are the main signs of left sided heart failure?

A

tachypnoea

dyspnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

what are the main signs of right sided heart failure?

A

difficulty breathing and/or distended abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

what areas should be assessed on physical exam of a patient with suspected heart disease?

A 
body condition
mucous membranes
jugular veins
peripheral pulses
RR
heart auscultation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

what may be found when assessing body condition of a patient with suspected heart disease?

A

cardiac cachexia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

what is cardiac cachexia?

A

loss of lean muscle mass seen with severe heart disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

what are you assessing when looking at a patients mucous membranes?

A

colour and CRT - perfusion and oxygenation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

what may be shown by looking at the jugular veins of a patient with potential heart disease?

A

pulsation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

what are you assessing when looking at a patients peripheral pulses?

A

quality of pulse
is it regular
any deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

what are pulse deficits?

A

HR present but peripheral pulse isn’t (may only be for the odd beat)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

what is the normal RR for a sleeping/normal dog?

A

<30 brpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

what may the RR be of a dog with CHF?

A

> 35-40 brpm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

when auscultating the heart what are you looking at?

A

HR
rhythm
assessment of pulses alongside

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

what can be assessed about HR rhythm?

A

regular or irregular

gallop sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

what are gallop sounds?

A

abnormal extra heart sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

what should be assessed simultaneously with HR auscultation?

A 
pulse quality (weak/strong)
pulse deficits
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

what are you listening for if a heart murmur has been detected?

A

timing (at systole or distole)

point of maximal intensity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

what valve murmurs have their point of maximal intensity on the left side of the patient?

A

pulmonary
aortic
mitral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

what valve murmurs have their point of maximal intensity on the right side of the patient?

A

tricuspid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

what are the grades of heart murmur?

A

1-6

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

describe a grade 1 heart murmur

A

very quiet, takes time to localise

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

describe a grade 2 heart murmur

A

quiet, less loud than heart sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

describe a grade 3 heart murmur

A

obvious, as loud as heart sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

describe a grade 4 heart murmur

A

louder than heart sounds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

describe a grade 5 heart murmur

A

very loud with precordial thrill

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

describe a grade 6 heart murmur

A

very loud, thrill, audible even when lifting stethoscope off chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

what is precordial thrill?

A

feel murmur against hand if placed on chest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

what should be assessed when auscultating the lungs?

A

RR
adventitious sounds (anything other than breathing)
crackles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

what are the typical findings in a patient with heart failure?

A 
reduced cardiac output
weakness
exercise intolerance
syncope
heart murmur
gallop sounds
arrhythmias
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

what are the signs of reduced cardiac output?

A 
weak peripheral pulses
tachycardia
pale MM
prolongued CRT
congestion
usually short history of clinical signs
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

what is congestion due to?

A

blood is not pumped forwards rapidly enough so pressure in the respective atria increases and blood backs up into vessels of the lungs or systemic circulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

what are the signs of left sided (lung) congestion?

A

pulmonary oedema
tachypnoea
dyspnoea
cough

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

what are the signs of right sided (systemic) congestion?

A

distended peripheral veins
ascites
pleural effusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

what is ascites?

A

fluid build up in abdomen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

what types of blood test are used to assess cardiac function?

A

haematology
biochemistry
cardiac biomarkers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

what does haematology asses with regards to cardiac function?

A

systemic diseases

anaemia (haemic murmur)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

what is a haemic murmur?

A

heart murmur caused by the change in blood flow sounds through the heart due to altered blood composition caused by anaemia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

what does biochemistry assess with regards to cardiac function?

A

kidney values

electrolytes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

what are the two cardiac biomarkers used to assess cardiac function?

A

cardiac troponin I (cTnI)

n-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

what is cardiac troponin I (cTnI) a marker for?

A

myocardial cell damage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

what is n-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP) a marker for?

A

myocardial stretch (increases with heart failure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

what type of test can be used in cats for n-terminal pro-B-type natriuretic peptide (NT-proBNP)?

A

snap test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

in what sort of environment should BP be measured?

A

quiet and relaxed

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

what techniques can be used to indirectly measure blood pressure?

A

doppler or osscillometric

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

what should the cuff be level with when measuring BP?

A

the heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

what is normal systolic BP?

A

120-140 mmHg

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

what effect can hypertension have on the heart and heart disease?

A

increases cardiac workload

can contribute to progression of disease

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

what may be indicated about heart function by BP lower than 80 mmHg?

A

decompensated heart failure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

what can ECG be used to do in patients with suspected cardiovascular disease?

A

further characterise findings from auscultation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

what may ECG be used to characterise?

A

bradycardia
tachycardia
irregular rhythm
pulse deficits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

what may a Holter monitor (24hr ECG) be used to measure?

A

intermittent arrhythmias
clinical importance of arrhythmia
response to antiarrhythmatic therapy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

how can a Holter monitor be useful in investigating intermittent arrhythmias?

A

can detect those that may not be seen on a short recording

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

how can a Holter monitor aid the discovery of the clinical importance of arrhythmia?

A

suspected cause of syncope
exercise intolerance
can assess the frequency and severity of arrhythmia at home

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

why does hypertension increase cardiac workload?

A

more pressure must be overcome by the heart to push blood forwards from the ventricles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

what are thoracic radiographs indicated for?

A

cough
tachypnoea
dyspnoea

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

how many views should be taken during thoracic radiology?

A

at least 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

what 2 views must be taken for thoracic radiographs?

A

right lateral

dorsoventral

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

what may be shown by thoracic radiography?

A

congestive heart failure

lung pathology

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

what may be seen on a thoracic radiograph that indicates congestive heart failure?

A

pulmonary oedema

distended pulmonary veins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

give 2 examples of lung pathology that may be shown on thoracic radiographs

A

pneumonia

neoplasia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

what is cardiomegaly?

A

increased heart size

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

what is vertebral heart size?

A

long and short axis of heart measurements are scaled against the vertebrae and then added to give a score

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

what is the ideal vertebral heart score for dogs?

A

<10.7

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

what is the ideal vertebral heart score for cats?

A

<8

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

what factors may indicate cardiomegaly on a thoracic radiograph?

A

vertebral heart size
elevation of trachea
left atrium enlarged
increased sternal contact

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

does sternal contact vary between species and breeds?

A

yes - heart tends to resemble owner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

what are the most important congenital cardiac diseases?

A

stenosis of the great vessels
patent ductus arteriosus
ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

what is stenosis of the great vessels?

A

narrowing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

what are the great vessels most often affected by stenosis?

A

aorta

pulmonary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

what is the most common congenital heart disease in cats?

A

ventricular septal defect

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

what are the 3 types of stenosis location?

A

subvalvular
valvular
supravalvular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

how is stenosis of great vessels diagnosed?

A

echocardiography

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

what is occurring during subvalvular stenosis?

A

tissue is blocking blood flow from below the valve

95
Q

what is occurring during valvular stenosis?

A

valve itself is unable to open properly

96
Q

what is occurring during supravalvular stenosis?

A

narrowing is occurring in the great vessel itself

97
Q

what is the most common location of stenosis in the aortic valve?

A

subvalvular

98
Q

what does aortic stenosis result in?

A

left ventricular hypertrophy

left sided congestive heart failure

99
Q

why does aortic stenosis lead to left sided congestive heart failure?

A

the heart cannot cope with the extra work of pushing blood through the valve

100
Q

what is the most common location of pulmonic stenosis?

A

valvular

101
Q

what is the result of pulmonic stenosis?

A

right ventricular hypertrophy

right sided congestive heart failure

102
Q

why does pulmonic stenosis result in right ventricular hypertrophy?

A

due to the excess work required by the heart to force blood through the narrow channel

103
Q

what are the clinical signs and findings of stenosis of the great vessels?

A 
often asymptomatic
arrhythmias
exercise intolerance
syncope
congestive heart failure
104
Q

what are the treatments available for stenosis of the great vessels?

A

beta blockers
balloon valvuloplasty
standard medical management of congestive heart failure

105
Q

how do beta blockers help to treat stenosis of the great vessels?

A

reduces the work of the ventricles and protects the heart

106
Q

what is involved in a balloon valvuloplasty?

A

balloon is placed across the valve and is used to stretch it open

107
Q

what type of great vessel stenosis can balloon valvuloplasty be used for?

A

pulmonic stenosis only

108
Q

what is cutting balloon valvuloplasty?

A

use of balloon to break down sub aortic stenosis

109
Q

what is a ductus arteriosus?

A

normal fetal connection between pulmonary artery and aorta due to the need to bypass the lungs in utero

110
Q

what should happen to the ductus arteriosus after birth?

A

should close after birth when first breaths are taken and form ligamentum arteriosum

111
Q

what happens if the ductus arteriosus remains patent?

A

blood flows from the aorta to the pulmonary artery continuously due to the high aortic and lower pulmonary pressure

112
Q

where is the murmur for patent ductus arteriosus heard?

A

left heart base - under left arm pit

113
Q

what may happen to the patient if ductus arteriosus remains patent?

A

congestive heart failure

114
Q

when is patent ductus arteriosus often found?

A

as an incidental finding potentially at vaccination

115
Q

what are the main treatment methods for patent ductus arteriosus?

A

interventional closure
surgical ligation of artery
congestive heart failure therapy

116
Q

how is interventional closure of patent ductus arteriosus performed?

A

insertion of catheter and device into femoral artery which is then floated up to the heart and placed within ductus arteriosus

117
Q

what is the most common location of a ventricular septal defect?

A

upper septum just below the aortic valve

118
Q

are ventricular septal defects usually symptomatic?

A

no - often picked up as an incidental finding

119
Q

describe the murmur associated with a ventricular septal defect

A

right sided systolic

120
Q

what murmur is heard with a small ventricular septal defect?

A

loud

121
Q

what murmur is heard with a large ventricular septal defect?

A

soft murmur

122
Q

why do larger ventricular septal defects lead to softer murmurs?

A

the larger the defect the lower the pressure of the blood that is pushed through meaning that it makes less noise

123
Q

how are ventricular septal defects diagnosed?

A

echocardiography

124
Q

how are ventricular septal defects often treated?

A

usually none necessary

heart failure treatment

125
Q

what is the normal life expectancy of an animal with a ventricular septal defect?

A

normal if it is small

126
Q

what are the main acquired cardiac diseases of dogs?

A

myxomatous mitral valve disease
dilated cardiomyopathy
pericardial effusion

127
Q

what are the main acquired cardiac diseases of cats?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

128
Q

what is the most common cardiac disease of dogs?

A

myxomatous mitral valve disease - makes up 75% of cases

129
Q

what causes myxomatous mitral valve disease?

A

idiopathic with hereditary/genetic element

130
Q

what types of dogs often have myxomatous mitral valve disease?

A

small breed (>20kg)

131
Q

what are examples of 2 breeds that commonly suffer with myxomatous mitral valve disease?

A

cavalier king charles spaniel

dachshunds

132
Q

at what age does myxomatous mitral valve disease often set in?

A

adult - 7 to 8 years

133
Q

what valve is most commonly affected by myxomatous mitral valve disease?

A

mitral

134
Q

what other valve can be affected by myxomatous mitral valve disease?

A

tricuspid (right AV)

135
Q

how is myxomatous mitral valve disease diagnosed?

A

echocardiography

136
Q

what are the 2 key effects of myxomatous mitral valve disease?

A

thickening of valve leaflets

prolapse of valve leaflets

137
Q

what are the effects of thickening of valve leaflets due to myxomatous mitral valve disease?

A

regurgitation of blood into atria from ventricles
left atrial dilation
left ventricular dilation

138
Q

what happens during prolapse of valve leaflets due to myxomatous mitral valve disease?

A

valve is looser so is pulled back into atria at points during the cardiac cycle

139
Q

what heart murmur is associated with myxomatous mitral valve disease?

A

left sided apical systolic heart murmur

140
Q

how rapidly does myxomatous mitral valve disease progress?

A

slowly - long asymptomatic period

141
Q

what may myxomatous mitral valve disease progress to?

A

left sided congestive heart failure

142
Q

what is a common cardiac disease of larger dogs?

A

dilated cardiomyopathy

143
Q

what causes dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

idiopathic and hereditary

144
Q

what large breed dogs are predisposed to dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

doberman
great dane
newfoundland

145
Q

what age does onset of dilated cardiomyopathy begin?

A

4-5

146
Q

what type of murmur is present with dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

left apical systolic murmur - not always present

147
Q

what is dilated cardiomyopathy a disease of?

A

the myocardium

148
Q

what does dilated cardiomyopathy lead to?

A

left ventricular dilation
decreased systolic function
arrhythmias

149
Q

how is dilated cardiomyopathy diagnosed?

A

echocardiaography

150
Q

can dilated cardiomyopathy be asymptomatic?

A

yes - often for years

151
Q

what is the prognosis of dilated cardiomyopathy?

A

guarded - progression may be rapid, particularly in certain breeds

152
Q

in what breeds can advance of dilated cardiomyopathy be rapid?

A

doberman

153
Q

what can dilated cardiomyopathy lead to?

A

arrhythmias
sudden death
congestive heart failure

154
Q

what may cause pericardial effusion?

A

idiopathic
neoplasia
bacterial
(many causes really!)

155
Q

in what animals is pericardial effusion often seen?

A

large breed, adult dogs

156
Q

what is happening during pericardial effusion?

A

fluid builds up in the pericardial sac and compromises filling of the heart

157
Q

what is cardiac tamponade?

A

collapse of right atrium due to high external pressure from filled pericardial sac

158
Q

how does pericardial effusion affect the heart?

A

decreases cardiac output

right sided heart failure

159
Q

why is the right side of the heart usually more affected by pericardial effusion than the left?

A

lower pressures in the right side of the heart than in the left

160
Q

how is pericardial effusion diagnosed?

A

echocardiography

161
Q

how is pericardial effusion treated?

A

pericardiocentesis

162
Q

what position should animals be in for pericardiocentesis?

A

left lateral

163
Q

what area of the chest should be surgically prepared for pericardiocentesis?

A

3rd to 8th intercostal space

164
Q

what level of sedation is required for pericardiocentesis?

A

mild

165
Q

what equipment is used to drain the pericardium?

A

large catheter or chest drain

166
Q

how can the correct placement of the catheter in the pericardium be ensured?

A

echocardiography

167
Q

what should be checked about the fluid drained from around the heart during pericardiocentesis to ensure that it is from the pericardial sac and not the heart itself?

A 
check for clotting (faster if blood)
check PCV (should be lower than blood)
168
Q

what should be measured with regards to fluid drained during pericardiocentesis?

A

volume drained

169
Q

what samples of pericardial fluid should be collected?

A

cytology - EDTA

culture - sterile

170
Q

what is the most common cardiac disease in cats?

A

hypertrophic cardiomyopathy

171
Q

what are the main causes of hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

genetic

172
Q

what age does hypertrophic cardiomyopathy usually set on in cats?

A

adult - wide age range

173
Q

what must be excluded before determining hypertrophic cardiomyopathy as the cause of cardiac hypertrophy?

A

other causes of hypertrophy

174
Q

what are 2 other causes of cardiac hypertrophy in cats aside from hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

hyperthyroidism

systemic hypertension

175
Q

what effect does hypertrophic cardiomyopathy have on cardiac output?

A

increased thickness of myocardium impairs filling in diastole

176
Q

how is hypertrophic cardiomyopathy diagnosed?

A

echocardiography

177
Q

how may hypertrophic cardiomyopathy be discovered?

A

incidental finding

178
Q

what sounds are often heart on auscultation of the heart in a patient with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

murmur

gallop sounds

179
Q

what are gallop sounds?

A

abnormal extra heart sound

180
Q

how may animals with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy present?

A

in heart failure with pleural effusion and pulmonary oedema

with aortic thromboembolysm

181
Q

what can cause a compensated cat to progress to heart failure rapidly?

A

stress
anaesthesia
IVFT

182
Q

what are the signs of aortic thromboembolysm?

A

sudden onset lameness
cold leg
peripheral cyanosis
pain

183
Q

where do blood clots often originate from in animals with hypertrophic cardiomyopathy?

A

atria and ventricles

184
Q

what is heart failure due to?

A

disease progression
decompensation of previously stable cardiac failure
development of impedance of cardiac filling (e.g. pericardial effusion)

185
Q

what are the signs of left sided heart failure?

A 
congestion of pulmonary circulation 
pulmonary oedema
tachypnoea
dyspnoea
pulmonary crackles
cough
186
Q

in what animals is a cough seen during left sided heart failure?

A

dogs

187
Q

what are the signs of right sided heart failure?

A 
congestion of systemic circulation
distended peripheral veins
positive hepatojugular reflex
ascites
pleural effusion
188
Q

what is the hepatojugular reflex?

A

compression of the liver leading to fluid movement up the jugular

189
Q

what doe left and right sided heart failure lead to?

A

decreased cardiac output

190
Q

what are the physiological signs of decreased cardiac output?

A

tachycardia
weak peripheral pulses
slow capillary refill time

191
Q

how may cats in heart failure present that is different to dogs?

A

with hypothermia and bradycardia

192
Q

what must be remembered when handling and treating all heart failure patients?

A

they are very fragile (especially cats) and so need to be in a low stress and calm environment

193
Q

how is heart failure treated?

A 
diuretic
minimise stress
oxygen
Pimobendan
ACE inhibitor
Spironolactone
water available at all times
194
Q

what is the name of the commonly used diuretic for heart failure patients?

A

Furosemide

195
Q

what is the role of Pimobendan in treating heart failure?

A

increases heart contractility

196
Q

what animals is Pimobendan most commonly used in?

A

dogs

197
Q

what is the role of ACE inhibitors in treating heart failure?

A

vasodilator

anti-remodelling

198
Q

what is the role of Spironolactone in treating heart failure?

A

weak diuretic and anti remodelling

199
Q

why must water always be available to patients on diuretics?

A

risk of AKI if dehydrated

200
Q

what is the target RR for patients with heart failure?

A

<40 bpm

201
Q

what is the target systolic BP for patients in heart failure?

A

> 100 mmHg

202
Q

what are the signs that a patient with heart failure is improving?

A

decreased RR and effort
decreased HR
improved pulse quality
improved CRT

203
Q

why should heart failure patients be sent home as soon as possible?

A

less stressful at home

life expectancy is reduced so they should be home with their family as much as possible

204
Q

what must owners be warned about heart failure treatment?

A

is lifelong

205
Q

what can be assessed when looking at ECG?

A 
heart rate
whether sinus complexes are normal
is HR regular or irregular
anything abnormal
early or late complexes
timings
206
Q

what are supraventricular complexes?

A

normal rhythms

207
Q

what are ventricular complexes?

A

abnormal ECG complexes

208
Q

what is the name used for early ECG complexes?

A

premature

209
Q

what is the name used for late ECG complexes?

A

escape

210
Q

Identify this ECG trace

A

normal sinus

211
Q

what is sinus bradycardia?

A

physiologically normal slow heart rate (e.g. during sleep)

212
Q

what are the 3 main types of abnormal bradycardias?

A

atrial standstill
atrioventricular blocks
sick sinus syndrome

213
Q

what are the 3 types of AV block?

A

1 to 3

214
Q

what is happening during atrioventricular block?

A

AV node is not functioning correctly

215
Q

how would second degree heart block appear on an ECG?

A

some P waves not followed by QRS

216
Q

what is the difference between 1st and 2nd degree AV block?

A

first is due to slow conduction so there will be and increased P-Q interval
second will involve some conducted P waves and others not

217
Q

identify the abnormality in this ECG trace

A

2nd degree AV block

218
Q

what are the atrial and ventricular heart rates during 3rd degree AV block?

A

atrial - 200 bpm

ventricular - 40 bpm

219
Q

what are QRS complexes like in 3rd degree AV block?

A

wide and bizzare

220
Q

identify the abnormality shown in this ECG trace

A

3rd degree AV block

221
Q

where does supraventricular tachycardia originate?

A

from the atria

222
Q

what are the QRS complexes like during supraventricular tachycardia?

A

narrow but similar to sinus complexes

223
Q

identify the abnormality shown in this ECG trace

A

supraventricular tachycardia

224
Q

describe atrial fibrillation

A

HR 210 bpm
irregular rhythm
no P waves on ECG

225
Q

identify the abnormality shown in this ECG trace

A

atrial fibrilation

226
Q

where do ventricular arrhythmias originate from?

A

ventricular myocardium

227
Q

describe the QRS complexes associated with ventricular arrhythmia

A

wide and bizzare

228
Q

identify the abnormality shown in this ECG trace

A

ventricular arrhythmia

229
Q

what occurs during ventricular premature complexes?

A

earlier than expected QRS complex seen on ECG

230
Q

are ventricular PVC always an issue?

A

no - unless they are regular / frequent

231
Q

identify the abnormality shown in this ECG trace

A

ventricular premature complex

232
Q

what heart rate is associated with ventricular tachycardia?

A

375 bpm

233
Q

what is happening during ventricular tachycardia?

A

run of ventricular PVC which shorten diastole and affect coronary and global perfusion

234
Q

identify the abnormality shown in this ECG trace

A

ventricular tachycardia

X Clinical Veterinary Nursing Theory (70 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions