FCTM 2022 Flashcards

1
Q

to further reduce potential odors in the Cabin, the APU Bleed may be selected

A

3 minutes after APU start. This APU warm-up time enables the seals to reach their optimum performance and eliminates oil traces in the APU airduct.

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2
Q

FMGS prep: The trip wind facility is available if

A

the wind profile has not already been entered

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3
Q

The PM performs this check via a check of the different FMGS pages, in the same order

A

as the FMGS preparation

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4
Q

The maximum brake temperature limitation for takeoff ensures that, in the case of a hydraulic leak,

A

any hydraulic fluid that touches the brake units does not ignite in the wheel well after the landing gear retraction.

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5
Q

If the ACCU PRESS drops below 1 500 PSI, the flight crew should be aware that the Parking Brake can, quite suddenly, become less efficient. If the flight crew encounters any braking problems during taxi, they should set

A

the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw to OFF. They should not apply pressure to the pedals while setting the A/SKID & N/W STRG sw to OFF. Then, the PF should refer to the triple brake indicator and modulate the pressure as necessary.

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6
Q

Brake fans should not be used during takeoff, in order to

A

avoid Foreign Object Damage to fans and brakes.

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7
Q

The flight crew should be aware that the main gear on the inside of a turn will always cut the corner and track inside of the nosewheel track. For this reason, the oversteering technique may be considered especially for A321 where main gear

A

is 20 m behind the pilot.

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8
Q

If the takeoff has to be achieved without air bleed fed from the engines for performance reasons, but air conditioning desired, the

A

APU bleed may be used with packs ON, thus maintaining engine performance level and passenger comfort.

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9
Q

In case of APU auto shut down during takeoff, the engine thrust is

A

frozen till the thrust is manually reduced. The packs revert to engine bleed which causes an increase of EGT to keep N1/EPR.

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10
Q

If the takeoff is performed with one pack unserviceable, the procedure states to set the failed pack to OFF. The takeoff may be performed with the other pack ON (if performances permit) with TOGA or FLEX thrust, the pack being supplied by

A

the onside bleed. In this asymmetric bleed configuration, the N1 takeoff value is limited to the value corresponding to the bleed ON configuration and takeoff performance must be computed accordingly.

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11
Q

Tail strikes most often occur in such adverse conditions as

A

crosswind, turbulence, windshear, etc.

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12
Q

When performance is limiting the takeoff weight, the flight crew uses TOGA thrust and selects

A

the configuration that provides the highest takeoff weight.

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13
Q

the flight crew selects the configuration that provides the maximum FLEX temperature This is done to

A

prolong engine life. The first degrees of flexible thrust have an impact on maintenance costs about 5 times higher than the last one.

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14
Q

the tail clearance at lift off depends on the configuration. The highest flap configuration gives the highest

A

tailstrike margin.

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15
Q

The main purpose of the pitch trim setting for take-off is

A

to provide consistent rotation characteristics.

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16
Q

Crosswind takeoff- direct effect of the reduction in lift due to the extension of the spoilers on one wing will be

A

a reduction in tail clearance and an increased risk of tailstrike.

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17
Q

Acceleration altitude: The speed target jumps: • Either to

A

the managed target speed e.g. speed constraint, speed limit or ECON climb speed • Or to the preselected climb speed (entered by the pilot on the MCDU PERF CLB page before takeoff).

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18
Q

THE ALPHA LOCK FUNCTION The slats alpha/speed lock function will prevent slat retraction at high AOA or low speed at the moment the flap lever is moved from Flaps 1 to Flaps 0. “A. LOCK” pulses above the E/WD Slat indication. The inhibition is removed and the slats retract when both

A

alpha and speed fall within normal values. This is a normal situation for take-off at heavy weight. If Alpha lock function is triggered, the crew will continue the scheduled acceleration, allowing further slats retraction.

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19
Q

during Slats/Flaps transition, the dynamic acceleration of the airplane may lead to a temporary OVERSPEED WARNING even if the current speed is

A

out of the red and black strip displayed on the PFD. In this situation, there are no operational consequences. The flight crew must report any type of overspeed event.

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20
Q

If the aircraft is required to level off below the acceleration altitude, ALT* engages and target speed goes to

A

initial climb speed

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21
Q

Noise abaitment 1 - less noise closer to airport- V2+10 to 20kt- maintain reduced

A

Power and slats and flaps in takeoff configuration

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22
Q

Noise abaitment 2 - far from airport- when flaps/slats are retracted (3 things):

A

Positive rate of climb, reduce power and climb at S speed + 10kt to 20kt

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23
Q

If the crew selects a high V/S, it may happen that the aircraft is unable to climb with this high V/S and to maintain the target speed with Max Climb thrust, for performance reasons. In that case, the AP/FD will guide to the target V/S, and the A/THR will command up to Max Climb thrust, in order to try to keep the target speed; but the aircraft will decelerate and its speed might reach

A

VLS. When VLS is reached the AP will pitch the aircraft down so as to fly a V/S, which allows maintaining VLS. A triple click is generated.

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24
Q

The managed climb speed, computed by the FMGS, provides the most economical climb profile as it takes into account

A

weight, actual and predicted winds, ISA deviation and Cost Index (CI). The managed climb speed also takes into account any speed constraints, e.g. the default speed limit which is 250 kt up to 10 000 ft.

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25
Q

The speed to achieve the maximum rate of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in the shortest time, lies between

A

ECON climb speed and green dot

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26
Q

The speed to achieve the maximum gradient of climb, i.e. to reach a given altitude in a shortest distance, is

A

green dot.

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27
Q

the FMS Go-Around phase may be unduly activated after takeoff if the aircraft is above the ACC ALT and the flight crew sets the thrust levers to TOGA detent with at least CONF 1. the flight crew should do either of the following in order to activate the CLIMB phase:

A

‐ Insert a NEW DEST (different from the current DEST), or ‐ Select the ALTN destination.

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28
Q

When at cruise FL, the AP altitude control is soft. This means that the

A

AP will allow small altitude variation around the cruise altitude (typically ± 50 ft) to keep cruise Mach before a readjustment of thrust occurs. This optimizes the fuel consumption in cruise.

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29
Q

it is recommended to insert the same wind at current FL as the one at

A

Step climb. This is due to wind propagation rules, which might affect the optimum FL computation.

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30
Q

The DATA/Stored Routes function in the MCDU can be used to store up to.

A

five possible diversion routes

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31
Q

If ATC requires a report on a given radial, the crew will use the

A

FIX INFO page or RADIAL FIX INFO page which can be accessed from a lateral revision on F-PLN page at PPOS.

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32
Q

The Cost Index (CI) is used to take into account the relationship between

A

fuel and time related costs in order to minimize the trip cost. CI=0 corresponds to maximum range whereas the CI=999 corresponds to minimum time.

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33
Q

The optimum lift/drag speed is the

A

GD speed

34
Q

The optimum cruise Mach number is automatically targeted. Its value depends on:

A

‐ CI ‐ Cruise flight level ‐ Temperature deviation ‐ Weight ‐ Headwind component.

35
Q

the optimum Mach number will vary according to the above mentioned parameters, e.g. it will increase with an increasing headwind, e.g. +50 kt head wind equates to M.

A

+0.01

36
Q

On aircraft with no failure, and the A/THR engaged or the MAX CLB Thrust applied in manual mode, a continuous speed decay during cruise phase may be due to:

A

‐ A large and continuous increase in tailwind or decrease in headwind, in addition to an increase in the Outside Air Temperature (OAT), that results in a decrease of the REC MAX FL

37
Q

The GD speed uses the lowest quantity of thrust necessary to maintain

A

the required/desired altitude

38
Q

The rate of cooling of fuel can be expected to be in the order of

A

3 °C per hour with a maximum of 12 °C per hour in the most extreme conditions.

39
Q

If fuel temperature approaches the minimum allowed, the ECAM outputs a caution. Consideration should be given to achieving a higher TAT:

A

• Descending or diverting to a warmer air mass may be considered. Below the tropopause, a 4 000 ft descent gives a 7 °C increase in TAT. In severe cases, a descent to as low as 25 000 ft may be required. • Increasing Mach number will also increase TAT. An increase of M 0.01 produces approximately 0.7 °C increase in TAT.

40
Q

Airbus recommends to crosscheck at dispatch, in addition to the regulatory performance requirements, that in the forecast conditions, the FLD for the planned mass is less than the available runway length (LDA). This check should be made for

A

both the destination and the destination alternates.

41
Q

To avoid landing with unduly high autobrake settings, the FLD with autobrake may exceed the LDA as long as all of the following conditions are satisfied:

A

‐ The RWYCC is 5 or 6 ‐ The LD with autobrake is less than the LDA ‐ The FLD with maximum manual braking is less than the LDA.

42
Q

When the runway is wet or contaminated, Airbus recommends the use of maximum reverse thrust. Exceptionally, the flight crew may use idle reverse in wet conditions, when it is ensured

A

that a safe stop with spoilers and wheel braking alone can be made on a runway contaminated with standing water. The LDA should therefore exceed the unfactored LD without reverse for the braking action corresponding to standing water (RWYCC 2, Braking Action Medium to Poor).

43
Q

To avoid landing with unduly high autobrake settings, the FLD with autobrake may exceed the LDA as long as all of the following conditions are satisfied:

A

‐ The RWYCC is 5 or 6 ‐ The LD with autobrake is less than the LDA ‐ The FLD with maximum manual braking is less than the LDA.

44
Q

In the case of strong or gusty crosswind above 20 kt, VAPP should be at least VLS +5 kt; the 5 kt increment above VLS may be increased up to

A

15 kt at the flight crew’s discretion.

45
Q

Estimated surface friction should not be reported as it is not possible to establish a correlation between the values provided by the ground equipment and the aircraft performance. However, some countries continue to report measured friction. The flight crew should

A

disregard this information, when available.

46
Q

Depths reported for layered contaminants apply to the top layer only. The flight crew may ignore loose snow of less than

A

3 mm (1/8 in) on top of compacted snow. Any depth of water, snow or slush on top of ice will cause a very slippery condition

47
Q

When SOPs request a crosscheck of landing performance data, both the PF and the PM must verify all the following values:

A

-RWY Ident This ensures that the runway used for the computation in the EFB and/or inserted in the FMS is the same ‐ RWY Length This ensures that the flight crew took into account any NOTAM that affects the runway length ‐ Airport Weather Information (Wind, QNH, Temperature, Runway condition) ‐ Landing Weight ‐ FLAPS ‐ FLD ‐ VAPP.

48
Q

The FMGS calculates the Top Of Descent point (TOD) backwards from a position

A

1 000 ft on the final approach with speed at VAPP.

49
Q

The idle segment assumes a given managed speed flown with idle thrust plus a small amount of thrust. This gives some flexibility to keep the aircraft on the descent path if

A

engine anti-ice is used or if winds vary

50
Q

The managed descent profile from high altitude is approximately

A

2.5 °.

51
Q

as the actual conditions may differ from those planned, the DES mode operates within a speed range which can go up to

A

VMO-5 kt as upper limit and MANAGED SPD-20 kt as lower limit (limited by VLS)

52
Q

If the crew wishes to increase the rate of descent, OP DES mode can be used, selecting a higher speed. Speedbrake is very effective in increasing descent rate but should be used with caution at high altitude due to

A

the associated increase in VLS.

53
Q

If the pilot wishes to shallow the descent path, V/S can be used. A/THR reverts to SPEED mode. In this configuration, the use of speedbrakes is not recommended to reduce speed, since

A

this would lead to thrust increase and the speed would be maintained.

54
Q

Whenever holding is anticipated, it is preferable to maintain cruise level and reduce speed to green dot, with ATC clearance, to minimize the holding requirement. As a rule of thumb, a M 0.05 decrease during 1 h equates to

A

4 min hold.

55
Q

The default hold speed is the lowest of the following:

A

‐ Maximum Endurance speed ‐ ICAO limit holding speed ‐ Speed constraint (if any).

56
Q

When in the holding pattern, LAST EXIT UTC/FUEL information is displayed on the MCDU HOLD page. These predictions are based upon the fuel policy requirements specified on the MCDU FUEL PRED page with no extra fuel, assuming the aircraft will divert. The crew should be aware that this information is computed with defined assumptions e.g.:

A

‐ Aircraft weight being equal to landing weight at primary destination ‐ Flight at FL 220 if distance to ALTN is less than 200 NM, otherwise FL 310 performed at maximum range speed. ‐ Constant wind (as entered in alternate field of the DES WIND page). ‐ Constant delta ISA (equal to delta ISA at primary destination) ‐ Airway distance for a company route, otherwise direct distance.

57
Q

DIR TO RADIAL IN must not be used beyond the

A

Final Descent Point, in order to ensure that the vertical profile in final is unchanged.

58
Q

DECELERATED APPROACH: This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft

A

reaches 1 000 ft in the landing configuration at VAPP.

59
Q

EARLY STABILIZED APPROACH: This technique refers to an approach where the aircraft.

A

reaches the FDP in the landing configuration at VAPP

60
Q

To achieve a constant deceleration and to minimize thrust variation, the crew should extend the next configuration when reaching the current configuration maneuvering speed +10 kt (IAS must be lower than VFE next), e.g. when the speed reaches green dot +10 kt, the crew should select CONF 1. Using this technique, the mean deceleration rate will be approximately

A

10 kt/NM in level flight. This deceleration rate will be twice i.e. 20 kt/NM, with the use of the speedbrakes.

61
Q

In certain circumstances, e.g. tail wind or high weight, the deceleration rate may be insufficient. In this case, the landing gear may be lowered, preferably below

A

220 kt (to avoid gear doors overstress), and before selection of Flap 2

62
Q

Speedbrakes can also be used to increase the deceleration rate but the crew should be aware of:

A

‐ The increase in VLS with the use of speedbrakes ‐ The limited effect at low speeds ‐ The speed brake auto-retraction when selecting CONF FULL (A319, A320) or CONF 3 (A321 only) There is no speed brake auto-retraction on A318.

63
Q

During the final approach with the AP engaged, the aircraft will be stabilized. Therefore, when disconnecting the AP for a manual landing, the pilot should avoid

A

the temptation to make large inputs on the sidestick

64
Q

GLIDE SLOPE INTERCEPTION FROM ABOVE

When cleared to intercept the glide slope, the flight crew should:

A
  • Press the APPR pb on FCU and confirm G/S is armed and LOC engaged, monitor the vertical interception ‐ Select the FCU altitude above aircraft altitude to avoid unwanted ALT* engagement ‐ Select V/S 1 500 ft/min initially. V/S in excess of 2 000 ft/min will result in the speed increasing towards VFE.
65
Q

The Decision Height (DH) is the

A

wheel height above the runway elevation by which a go around must be initiated unless appropriate visual reference has been established and the aircraft position and the approach path have been assessed as satisfactory to continue the automatic approach and landing safely. The DH is based on RA

66
Q

CAT 3 SINGLE is announced when the airborne systems are fail passive which means that a single failure will lead to the AP disconnection without any significant out of trim condition or deviation of the flight path or attitude. Manual flight is then required. This minimum DH is

A

50 ft.

67
Q

CAT 3 DUAL is announced when the airborne systems are fail-operational. In case of a single failure, the AP will continue to guide the aircraft on the flight path and the automatic landing system will operate as a fail-passive system. In the event of a failure below the AH,

A

the approach, flare and landing can be completed by the remaining part of the automatic system. In that case, no capability degradation is indicated. Such a redundancy allows CAT III operations with or without DH.

68
Q

Below 200 ft, the AUTOLAND red light illuminates if:

A

• Both APs trip off • Excessive beam deviation is sensed • Localizer or glide slope transmitter or receiver fails • A RA discrepancy of at least 15 ft is sensed. Flare comes at or below 40 ft ‐ THR IDLE comes at or below 30 ft ‐ RETARD auto call out comes at 10 ft for autoland as an order (Instead of 20 ft for manual landing as a reminder).

69
Q

For CAT II approaches, autoland is recommended. If manual landing is preferred, the PF will take-over at

A

80 ft at the latest. This ensures a smooth transition for the manual landing.

70
Q

The Final Descent Point is the waypoint from which starts the FMS segment with coded FPA. From this Final Descent Point, lateral and vertical profiles must be checked by crosschecking the following elements on approach chart, MCDU and ND:

A
  • Identification of FPA segment, ‐ Final Descent Point / VIP position, ‐ Constraint altitude, ‐ Map.
71
Q

RNAV APP: At the MAP or Minimum Use Height of the AP:

A

Switching OFF FDs and use of Bird after the MAP is at pilot discretion. Below minima, the visual references must be the primary references until landing. ‐ From minima down to the MAP the FD provides an additional guidance. The FD must be switched off if the guidance is not relevant or not followed. ‐ After the MAP, disregard the FD as it reverts to HDG V/S.

72
Q

Wheel brakes contribute the most to aircraft deceleration on the ground. Many factors may affect efficient braking such as

A

load on the wheels, tire pressure, runway pavement characteristics and runway contamination and braking technique.

73
Q

Full pedal braking with anti-skid provides a deceleration rate of

A

10 kt/sec.

74
Q

Go around near the ground: Only when the aircraft is safely established in the go-around, the flight crew

A

retracts flaps one step and the landing gear.

75
Q

The GA phase activates on the FMS:

A

• The missed approach becomes the active F-PLN • At the end of the missed approach procedure, the FMS strings the previous flown approach in the active F-PLN.

76
Q

to further reduce potential odors in the cabin, the APU Bleed may be set to ON after

A

engine shutdown, according to Airline policy. In such a case, operators should keep in mind that the number of pack starting cycles is increased, and the APU bleed is not immediately available in the case of an engine tailpipe fire.

77
Q

The relationship between the pilot input on the sidestick, and the aircraft response, is called the

A

control law

78
Q

It is the responsibility of the PF to: ‐ FLY, ‐ NAVIGATE ‐ COMMUNICATE after the initiation of: •

A

The ECAM actions, or • A QRH procedure.

79
Q

In flight, the PF and PM must crosscheck before any action on the following controls:

A

‐ ENG MASTER lever ‐ IR MODE selector ‐ All guarded controls ‐ Cockpit C/Bs.

80
Q

“STATUS”. “STOP ECAM”. Consider any:

A

normal C/L, system reset, or any additional procedure

81
Q

When convenient, recall the STATUS page, in order to assess the situation:

A

• Check any fuel penalty factor, and check the remaining fuel at destination or diversion airport • Check any landing distance penalty, and compute the landing distance at destination or diversion airport • Consider all the operational, maintenance and commercial aspects.

82
Q

RNAV (RNP) APPROACH “BANK” when the bank angle goes above

A

30 °.