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Family Flashcards

1
Q

What are the cancers for which screening does not exist?

A

Endometrial, ovarian, skin, lymphoma

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2
Q

What is a normal PSA?

A

Less than 4

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3
Q

What test can be used to assess the stability of the calcaneofibular ligament?

A

inversion stress test

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4
Q

What factors are taken into consideration in grading an ankle sprain?

A

loss of function, ecchymoses, severity of pain, severity of swelling

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5
Q

What should be used for compression of ankle injuries/

A

semirigid support

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6
Q

What is in the differential for lateral ankle tenderness?

A

lateral ankle sprain (A), peroneal tendon tear (due to inversion injury) (D), fibular fracture (E), talar dome fracture (often related to ankle sprain) (G), and subtalar dislocation (H).(often high energy)

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7
Q

Distinguish basal cell carcinomas from squamous cell carcinomas

A

basal cell carcinomas - plaque like, waxy/transulcent. rarely itchy. usually slow growing and rarely malignat
squamous cell - fleshy, irregular borders, bleed easily, more frequently malignant

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8
Q

What are examples of end organ damage in diabetes?

A

neuropathy, nephropathy, coronary heart disease, cerebrovascular disease,

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9
Q

What is the mortality rate of HHNK?

A

often 15-20%

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10
Q

Describe HHNK vs. DKA

A

few ketones, glucose often >600, no metabolic acidosis

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11
Q

What proportion of the population is affected by diabetes?

A

8.3%

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12
Q

What should you look for on fundoscopic exam to evaluate for diabetic retinopathy?

A

Retinal hemorrhages - are dark blots with indistinct borders that indicate partial obstruction and infarction.
Cotton wool spots are white spots with fuzzy borders and they indicate areas of previous infarction. They accompany hemorrhages.

Microaneurysms

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13
Q

What proportion of diabetic neuropathy is asymptomatic?

A

up to 50%

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14
Q

What tests should be performed to screen for diabetes?

A

fasting lipid profile, spot albumin-creatinine ratio, B12 levels (metformin lowers B12), TSH, lipid profile

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15
Q

What can be done to improve cardiovascular outcomes in diabetic patients?

A

quit smoking, lower BP, add statin, lifestyle modification (diet, exercise), consider aspirin in patients with existing CV risk (hasn’t been shown to improve mortality except in patients with increased CV risk

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16
Q

What are the classifications of blood pressure?

A

<120 - normotensive
120-139 - prehypertensive
if less than 60, anything greater than 140 is hypertension
If greater than 50, anything greater than 150 is hypertension

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17
Q

What is the cause of most hypertension?

A

98-99% is essential hypertension with no known identifiable cause

rest are secondary hypertension

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18
Q

How should BP be measured?

A

should be seated for 5 minutes, arm at heart level, length of bladder at least 80% width of arm circum, width at least 40% arm circumference

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19
Q

What are the BP med recommendations for different populations of patients (consider age and race). What meds are not recommended?

A

General non-black population <140/90
Calcium channel blocker or thiazide diuretic

-beta blockers, t blockers, non-selective diuretics not recommended

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20
Q

What are potential side effects of thiazide diuretics to consider?

A

can cause electrolyte abnormalities (e.g. hyponatremia), should be avoided in patients with hx of gout because can precipitate flares, can cause incontinence in older patients, can cause hypotension (so start at low dose like 6.25mg)

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21
Q

What lifestyle change modifies BP the most?

A

weight reduction

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22
Q

What are some of the best prognostic indicators of death (1 and 2)

A

age is 1, LVH (in patients both with and without hypertension)

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23
Q

What tests are suggested for patients diagnosed with hypertension?

A

EKG (look for LVH), UA, hematocrit (look for anemia), serum K, serum Cr, (not serum Na/serum Cl) , lipid panel, serum Ca (look for hyperparatyhroidism that might indicate renal damage from kidney stones)

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24
Q

When should you prescribe aspirin in patients with hypertension?

A

wait till BP is within normal range to avoid risk of hemorrhagic stroke

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25
Q

Does an increased dose of thiazide diuretics affect CV morbidity or mortality

A

nope

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26
Q

What are other considerations when adding additional medications for African American populations?

A

BB, ACE inhibitors, and ARBs still reduce morbidity and mortality from hypertension in African Americans (renal protection, cardio-protection) separately from the BP levels. African Americans, however, are 2 - 4 times more likely to develop angioedema from ACE Inhibitors than other groups.

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27
Q

What is the definition of resistent hypertension?

A

Resistant hypertension is defined as the failure to achieve goal blood pressure in patients who are adhering to full doses of an appropriate three-drug regimen that includes a diuretic (D

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28
Q

What mneumonic can be used to evaluate the causes of back pain?

A

CT MIND and V

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29
Q

C of CT MIND and V

A

congenital -

scoliosis, kyphosis, spondylolysis

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30
Q

T of CT MIND and V

A

trauma -
lumbar strain
compression fracture

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31
Q

M of CT MIND and V

A 
metabolic - 
osteoporosis
hyperparathyroidism
Paget's disease
osteomalacia
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32
Q

I of CT MII ND and V

A 
infectious - 
Infectious pyelonephritis
osteomyelitis
discitis
herpes zoster
spinal or epidural abscess
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33
Q

Inflammatory causes of back pain

A

inflammatory -
Inflammatory ankylosing spondylitis
sacroiliitis, rheumatoid arthritis

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34
Q

Neoplastic causes of back pain

A

multiple myeloma
metastatic disease
lymphoma/leukemia
osteosarcoma

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35
Q

D of CT MIND and V

A 
degenerative: 
disc herniation
osteoarthritis
facet arthropathy
spinal stenosis
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36
Q

V of CT MIND and V

A

vascular:
aortic aneurysm
diabetic neuropathy

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37
Q

second V of CT MIND and V

A 
visceral: 
prostatitis
PID
ovarian cyst
endometriosis
kidney stones
cholecystitis
pancreatitis
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38
Q

Describe back pain due to malignancy

A

localized to the affected bones, it is a dull, throbbing pain that progresses slowly, and it increases with recumbency or cough.

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39
Q

Describing ankylosing spondylitis

A

Often seen in patients 15-40 years old, associated with morning stiffness and achiness over the sacroiliac joint and lumbar spine.

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40
Q

Describe the back pain associated with spondylithisthesis

A

Anterior displacement of a vertebra or the vertebral column in relation to the vertebrae below.
Can occur at any age.
Causes aching back and posterior thigh discomfort that increases with activity or bending.

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41
Q

What physical exam findings are associated with L5 and S1 disc herniations

A

Difficulty with heel walk is associated with L5 disc herniation
Difficulty with toe walk is associated with S1 disc herniation

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42
Q

What physical exam findings are associated with central spinal stenosis?

A

squatting/sitting will reduce the pain, radiating pain and numbness to lower extremities (pseudoclaudication)

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43
Q

What findings are associated with L3 nerve impingement?

A

Decreased patellar tendon reflex, pain in the lateral thigh and medial femoral condyle, trouble with extension of the quadriceps, squat down and rise.

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44
Q

What findings are associated with L4 nerve impingement?

A

Trouble with dorsiflexing ankles and walking on heels

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45
Q

What findings are associated with L5 nerve impingement?

A

Decreased medial hamstring reflex; pain in the lateral leg and dorsum of the foot; trouble with dorsiflexion of the great toe and walking on heels.

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46
Q

What findings are associated with S1 nerve impingement?

A

Decreased Achilles tendon reflex; pain in the posterior calf; sole of the foot and lateral ankle; trouble with standing on toes and walking on toes (plantarflex ankle).

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47
Q

What does the crossed leg raise test indicate?

A

suggests disc herniation

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48
Q

What does the FABER test indicate?

A

Flex ion, abduction, external rotation,The Faber test looks for pathology of the hip joint or sacrum (sacroiliac pain from sacroiliitis).

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49
Q

What are the symptoms associated with disk herniation?

A

increased pain with coughing and sneezing pain radiating down the leg and sometimes the foot
paresthesias
muscle weakness, such as foot drop (D)

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50
Q

What are the symptoms that might suggest herniated nucleosus pulposus?

A

Major muscle weakness (strength 3 of 5 or less)

2. Foot drop

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51
Q

What are the indications for MRI for back pain?

A

Neurological deficit
Radiculopathy
Progressive major motor weakness
Cauda equina compression (sudden bowel/bladder disturbance)
Suspected systemic disorder (metastatic or infectious disease)
Failed six weeks of conservative care

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52
Q

What treatments are recommended for patients with disc herniation?

A

muscle relaxant/aspirin and NSAIDs, moist heat, good posture PT,

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53
Q

What is the prognosis for acute back pain?

A

90% resolving within one month and only 5% remain disabled longer than three months. Patients who are older (>45) (D) and patients who have psychosocial stress take longer to recover. Recurrence rate for back pain is high at 35 to 75% (D)

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54
Q

What are the options for persistent pain from back disc herniation?

A

surgery referrel, cortisone injection, continue conservative treatment

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55
Q

According to the new guidelines, what individuals are eligible for statin therapy?

A

Pts with cardiovascular risk, LDL>200, diabetes patients (moderate unless ASCVD risk greater than 7.5%), and people with risk >7.5% ages 40-75

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56
Q

What are the new guidelines for blood pressure?

A

If under 60, maintain BP 140/90

If over 60, maintain BP 150/90

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57
Q

What are some alternate causes of hypertension that should be considered?

A

sleep apnea, drug induced, chronic kidney disease, primary aldosteronism, renovascular disease, pheo, cushings, coarctation of aorta, thyroid/parathyroid disease

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58
Q

What statins are considered high intensity?

A

atorvostatin, rasuvostatin

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59
Q

How is diabetes diagnosed?

A

fasting blood glucose above 126, HgA1C above 6.5, random blood glucose over 200, 2 hour post prandial above 200 - if at least 2 of these criteria are met, diabetes

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60
Q

Why have thiazolidenediones been phased out?

A

increases risk of heart failure, MI, and bladder cancer

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61
Q

What are the findings on X ray of osteoarthritis?

A

weight bearing, subchondral sclerosis, peaking of tibial spines, osteophytes, joint narrowing,

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62
Q

Describe the function of the rotator cuff muscles

A

supraspinatus - abduction
infraspinatus and teres minor - external rotation
subscapularis - internal rotation

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63
Q

Where does most referred shoulder pain originate from?

A

neck

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64
Q

What is the scarf test?

A

tests for AC joint pathology - drape arm adducted across chest

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65
Q

Describe the impingement test and what impingement is

A

passive forward motion while in internal rotation
impingement syndrome is a process of degeneration leading to RTC tears involving edema, fibrosis, and finally rotator cuff tears

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66
Q

What is spondylolysis?

A

stress fracture of pars interarticularis - most common cause of back pain in adolescents

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67
Q

What is the side effect profile of tricyclic antidepressants?

A

anti-cholinergic side effects (dry mouth, constipation, urinary retention)

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68
Q

What screening is recommended for patients aged 73 years old?

A

colorectal cancer (50-75), depression, HBP, biennial mammography (50-74)

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69
Q

What vaccinations are recommended for a patient 73 years old.

A

Td boost every 10 years, pneumococcal if over 65, flu every year, zoster if over 60

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70
Q

What causes of shoulder pain would merit urgent diagnosis and management?

A

septic glenohumeral arthritis, septic subacromial bursits

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71
Q

How do you distinguish patients that have active and passive ROM vs. patients with just active ROM issues?

A

patients with active and passive ROM have joint disease vs. patients with active ROM issues have muscle disease

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72
Q

What are the major stabilizers of the shoulder?

A

labrum, rotator muscle group, glenohumeral ligaments

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73
Q

What tests can be used to consider Impingement syndrome with bursitis

A

Apley’s Scratch test causes pain and/or limited range of motion with these conditions.
Neer and Hawkins-Kennedy tests used to rule out these conditions

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74
Q

What tests are used to consider labral tears?

A

Clunk and O’Brien’s tests

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75
Q

What are the management options for rotator cuff tendinopathy?

A

. Physical therapy: Re-establish a more normal range of motion.
2. Followed by progressive strengthening of the rotator cuff and scapular stabilizers.

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76
Q

What conditions require sling immobilization?

A

shoulder dislocation, fracture

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77
Q

What spirometry results are diagnostic of COPD?

A

FEV1/FVC less than 70%

FEV1 are 80, 50, and 30% of predicted.”

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78
Q

What are common features of COPD?

A

worsening winter cough, dyspnea on exertion, lack of orthopnea or PND

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79
Q

What is the key distinguishing factor between COPD and asthma?

A

COPD is not reversible via bronchodilator therapy and asthma is. Mast cells, T helper cells, and eosinophils play more of a role in what appears to be an allergic bronchoconstrictive response in asthma, and
Macrophages, T killer cells, and neutrophils play a role in an inflammatory and destructive process in COPD

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80
Q

How does quitting smoking affect the progression of COPD?

A

The subsequent rate of decline in FEV1 among sustained quitters was half the rate among continuing smokers; most improvement occurs n first year. still helpful to quit even if you restart

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81
Q

When should diabetics have fundoscopic exams?

A

Type 1 - 5 years after diagnosis

type 2 - when diagnosed

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82
Q

What vaccination are recommended fo diabetics?

A

Pneumococcal, annual flu

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83
Q

What studies should be conducted inpatients with HTN?

A

EKG, UA, cr, K, lipid, urinary albumin, serum Ca,

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84
Q

What is the utility of self breast exams?

A

BSE has no beneficial effect and actually increases the number of biopsies performed (C).

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85
Q

What are the risk factors for cervical cancer?

A

Early onset of intercourse , A greater number of lifetime sexual partners, Cigarette smoking, immunocompromised

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86
Q

What are some of the pathologic causes of nipple discharge?

A 
Prolactinoma
Breast cancer
-Intraductal papilloma 
-Mammary duct ectasia
-Paget's disease of the breast
-Ductal carcinoma in situ
Hormone imbalance
Injury or trauma to breast
Breast abscess
Use of medications use (e.g., antidepressants, antipsychotics, some antihypertensives and opiates)
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87
Q

What is the sensitivity of mammograms?

A

sensitivity of mammography is between 60% and 90%

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88
Q

When is breast MRI recommended?

A

women with more than a 20% lifetime risk of breast cancer (for example, individuals with genetic predisposition to breast cancer by either gene testing or family pedigree, or individuals with a history of mantle radiation for Hodgkin’s disease).

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89
Q

What are some of the factors that increase risk of breast cancer?

A

Family history of breast cancer in a first-degree relative (i.e., mother or sister) (A)
Prolonged exposure to estrogen (B), including menarche before age 12 or menopause after age 45
Genetic predisposition (C) (BRCA 1 or 2 mutation)
Advanced age (D) (The incidence of breast cancer is significantly greater in postmenopausal women, and age is often the only known risk factor.)
Female sex
Increased breast density
obesity
increased alcohol consumption

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90
Q

What are some of the symptoms of menopause?

A

hot flashes, vaginal dryness, mood swings

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91
Q

What are the calcium recommendations for perimenopausal and post menopausal women?

A

premenopausal women need approximately 1000 mg of calcium daily while postmenopausal women need 1500 mg of calcium daily

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92
Q

What are the risk factors associated with osteoporosis?

A

early menopause, Lack of physical activity, Family history of osteoporotic fracture
Personal history of previous fracture as an adult (E)
Dementia, and Cigarette smoking, white race

93
Q

According to the Bethesda system, what is considered an adequate sample for pap smear?

A

5,000 squamous cells and have sufficient endocervical cells.

94
Q

What does the guardasil vaccine protect against? When should it be given?

A 
6,11 (cause genital warts)
16 and 18 (cause most cervical cancers)
6,11 (cause genital warts)
16 and 18 (cause most cervical cancers)
for ages 9-26, take slightly before sexual debut
95
Q

What are the risk factors for CVD?

A 
SMOKING (major)
sedentary lifestyle (A)
stress (C)
premature family history (E)
excess alcohol use (H)
Leg pain with activity 
Chest pain with activity
96
Q

What are the Cs of addiction?

A
  1. Compulsion to use
  2. lack of Control
  3. Continued use despite adverse consequences
97
Q

What are the 5 As for counseling behavior change?

A

Ask or Address the behavior needing change.
Assess for interest in behavior change.
Advise on methods to change behavior.
Assist with motivation to change behavior.
Arrange for follow-up.

98
Q

How effective are oral medications in helping people quit smoking?

A

Oral medications are somewhat effective at helping people stop smoking, with quit rates at 12 months 1.5 - 3 times the placebo quit rate

99
Q

If you do drink alcohol, how much and what kind should you drink?

A

up to 1 drink per day for women, up to 2 drinks per day for men.
no consensus on the kind

100
Q

What are some methods for obtaining a more accurage diet hx?

A

24-hour Dietary Recalls

  • Daily Dietary Intake Records (or Food Diaries)
  • Food Frequency Questionnaire
  • Usual Diet History
  • Observed Intakes
  • Weighed Intakes
101
Q

What is the formula for BMI?

A

Formula: weight (kg) / [height (m)]2

102
Q

What are the cutoffs for BMI classifications?

A

Underweight below 18.5
Normal 18.5 - 24.9
Overweight 25.0 - 29.9
Obese 30.0 and above

103
Q

What screenings have earned A and B recommendations by the USPTF?

A 
Colorectal cancer
Obesity
Diabetes mellitus
Lipid disorders
Tobacco use
Hypertension (B)
Alcohol misuse (E)
Hepatitis C (F)
104
Q

What are the EKG findings that might indicate CAD?

A 
Horizontal ST segment depression or downsloping ST segment (A) Suggests cardiac ischemia 
Convex ST segment elevation (D) Suggests acute myocardial injury 
Q waves (B) that are greater than 25% of succeeding R wave and greater than 0.04 seconds Indicate infarction
105
Q

What aspects of diet may help reduce CAD?

A

eating fish twice a week. Eating more fatty fish like mackerel, lake trout, sardines, albacore tuna, and salmon, which are high in omega-3 fatty acids, can lower heart disease risk.

Eating the oils contained in tofu or other forms of soybeans, canola, walnuts, and flaxseeds may also help lower heart disease risk.

106
Q

How do you calculate the estimated due date?

A

first day of the last normal menstrual period, then:

add 1 year
subtract 3 months

add 1 week

107
Q

How long is abortion legal?

A

up to 22 weeks of gestation

108
Q

What blood tests should be ordered for a patient who is just found to be pregnant?

A

CBC, Hepatitis B surface antigen, rubella, Blood type (E) to detect rhesus antibody presence, RPR tests for syphilis , HIV status

109
Q

When is RhoGam indicated?

A

always! prevents fetal death, hydrops

110
Q

What is Ectropion?

A

When the central part of the cervix appears red from the mucous-producing endocervical epithelium protruding through the cervical os, onto the face of the cervix. It has no clinical significance and is common in women who are taking oral contraceptive pills.

111
Q

What does bleeding during the first trimester mean? How does it affect risk of miscarriage?

A

One in four pregnant patients experience vaginal bleeding during the first trimester.
When women have significant bleeding in the first trimester, there is a 25-50% chance of miscarriage.

112
Q

What tests should be done during first trimester bleeding?

A

CBC, Wet mount preparation for gonorrhea, chlamydia, and trichomonas, Progesterone (E): Laboratory testing for progesterone is most useful in extreme situations. If the result is >25, it is highly associated with a sustainable intrauterine pregnancy. If the result is <5, it is highly associated with an evolving miscarriage or ectopic pregnancy

113
Q

How does beta HCG levels change during pregnancy?

A

in a normal pregnancy, the beta-hCG approximately doubles every 48 hours for the first 6-7 weeks of gestation.

114
Q

What are the most common causes of vaginal bleeding during first trimester?

A

spontaneous abortion (A), ectopic pregnancy (B), and idiopathic bleeding in a viable pregnancy

115
Q

What is used by ultrasound to estimate due date in first, second and third trimester?

A 
first trimester - crown-rump length
second trimester- biparietal diameter
2.head circumference
3.abdominal circumference
4.femur length
116
Q

What are the different ways of subdividing spontaneous abortions?

A

A) Threatened abortion - bleeding before 20 weeks gestation.
Threatened abortion is simply a pregnancy complicated by bleeding before 20 weeks gestation, and is - in some ways - a “catch-all” descriptive diagnosis. Savannah has had a threatened abortion during most of this case.

(B) Inevitable abortion - dilated cervical os.

(C) Incomplete abortion - some but not all of the intrauterine contents (or products of conception) have been expelled.

(D) Missed abortion - fetal demise without cervical dilitation and/or uterine activity (often found incidentally on ultrasound without a presentation of bleeding).

(E) Septic abortion - with intrauterine infection (abdominal tenderness and fever usually present).

(F) Complete abortion - the products of conception have been completely expelled from the uterus

117
Q

What are the options for treatment with an inevitable abortion?

A

Expectant management (A) means watchful waiting

Surgical (C) options include dilitation and curettage
Medical management - vaginal administration of 800 mcg of misoprostol (Cytotec

118
Q

What is the cause of most miscarriages and how common are they?

A

About half of all miscarriages that occur in the first trimester are caused by chromosomal abnormalities. You are not alone in this, it is very common: about one-third of all pregnancies end in miscarriage

119
Q

What are some causes of palpitations?

A

Cardiovascular: Arrhythmia, cardiomyopathy, hypovolemia
Psychiatric: Anxiety, panic attacks
Medications: Caffeine, stimulants, theophylline, and albuterol use
Substances: Tobacco, caffeine, alcohol intoxication or withdrawal, cocaine
Endocrinologic: Hyperthyroidism, pheochromocytoma, hypoglycemia
Hematologic: Anemia
Infectious: Febrile illness

120
Q

What are the causes of enlarged thyroid?

A

Lack of iodine, Hypothyroidism, Hyperthyroidism, Nodules, Thyroid cancer, Pregnancy, Thyroiditis

121
Q

What is the most common cause of hyperthyroidism?

A

Toxic diffuse goiter (Graves’ disease) (B) accounts for the majority (60-80%) of hyperthyroidism

122
Q

What is the leading cause of death in the country? break down those deaths - what pathophysiologically causes them? ?

A

smoking - 160,848 (41%) of deaths were attributed to cancer, 128,497 (32.7%) to cardiovascular diseases, and 103,338 (26.3%) to respiratory diseases.

123
Q

How much does uncontrolled hypertension affect life expectancy?

A

uncontrolled hypertension decreases life expectancy by 20 years

124
Q

How much does diabetes affect mortality?

A

doubles mortality

125
Q

How much does obesity affect mortality?

A

BMI of 30-35 reduces life expectancy by two to four years while severe obesity BMI > 40 reduces life expectancy by 20 years for men and 5 years for women

126
Q

In a patient with acute left lower leg swelling and pain, what are the most likely diagnoses?

A

venous insufficiency (gradual, should see hyperpigmentation), lymphadema (chronic, grdually moves up leg), DVT, PAD (but he’s got pulses), cellulitis

127
Q

What test can be done to consider DVT vs cellulitis?

A

venous duplex scan

128
Q

What tool can be used to evaluate if a patient is at risk for DVT (and should get a D-dimer)

A

Well’s criteria

129
Q

What is the Wagner grading system for wounds?

A

Grade 1: Diabetic ulcer (superficial)
• Grade 2: Ulcer extension (involving ligament, tendon, joint capsule or fascia)
• Grade 3: Deep ulcer with abscess or osteomyelitis
• Grade 4: Gangrene forefoot (partial)
• Grade 5: Extensive gangrene of foot

130
Q

What are the conditions required to be able to treat DVTs on an outpatient basis?

A 
Hemodynamically stable (A) 
With good kidney function (B) 
At low risk for bleeding (D)

Stable and supportive (F)
Capable of providing the patient with daily access to INR monitoring (G)

131
Q

What are the advantages of LMWH over unfractionated heparin?

A

Longer biologic half-life so it can be administered subcutaneously once or twice daily (A)
Laboratory monitoring is not required (B)
Thrombocytopenia is less likely although periodic monitoring of platelets may be needed (C)
Dosing is fixed (D)

Hence, LMWH may be used in the outpatient setting (F

132
Q

How long should a patient with idiopathic thromboembolic disease be anticoagulated?

A

he has a first episode of idiopathic thromboembolic disease, so he should be anticoagulated for at least six months (

133
Q

How long should a patient who as a DVT as a result of trauma/surgery be anticoagulated?

A

three months (B) for patients who have a first time event as a result of trauma or surgery

134
Q

How long should patients with thrombophlebitis be anticoagulated?

A

Six to twelve weeks (A) in patients who have symptomatic isolated calf thrombophelbitis

135
Q

What patients should be screened for inheritied thrombophilia?

A

thrombosis occurring prior to age 50 without an immediately identified risk factor, family history of venous thromboembolis, recurrent DVTs,

136
Q

What are the health risks associated with obesity?

A

hypertension, dyslipidemia, type 2 diabetes, coronary heart disease, stroke, gallbladder disease, osteoarthritis,, sleep apnea, respiratory problems, endometrial cancer, breast cancer , colon cancer

137
Q

What is the half life of warfarin (how long does it take for levels to stabilize)

A

40 hours, that means it will take five to seven days for the steady state to be stable.

138
Q

IF a patient comes in with an INR of 11, how do you treat?

A

Warfarin should be held, and an oral dose of Vitamin K

139
Q

How long should LMW heparin be continued while transitioning to warfarin?

A

at least 5 days and until INR > 2 for at least 24 hours

140
Q

Distinguish GERD pain from PUD from gastritis

A

GERD - substernal, worse with food
PUD - epigastric, gnawing feeling, improves with food
gastritis- epigastric pain that improves immediately following a meal. - associated with alcohol and NSAIDs

141
Q

How much GERD is nonerosive?

A

About 60% of cases of GERD can be classified as non-erosive reflux disease (NERD)

142
Q

How much does GERD affect QOL?

A

In many patients, reported health-related quality of life is lower than age-matched patients who have untreated angina pectoris, diabetes mellitus or chronic heart failure

143
Q

How long do the symptoms associated with gastric and duodenal ulcers last?

A

Both gastric and duodenal ulcers may be associated with nausea and vomiting occurring anytime shortly after eating to several hours later

144
Q

What are possible complications of GERD?

A

Esophagitis, Peptic strictures, Barrett’s esophagus

145
Q

What are possible complictions of PUD?

A

Hemorrhage or perforation, Ulcer scar healing - gastric outlet obstruction

146
Q

What should you look for on physical exam for a patient with dyspepsia

A

Hemodynamic status, Signs of anemia, malignancy signs (Weight loss, palpable mass, presence of signal lymph nodes (Virchow’s nodes) and acanthosis nigricans ) , Signs of gall bladder disease, Signs of hypo or hyperthyroidism

147
Q

How does H pylori spread?

A

H. pylori is spread through human saliva and feces and via food and water sources

148
Q

How is H pylori epidemiology changing?

A

Ninety percent of patients worldwide with duodenal ulcers are infected with H. pylori - The incidence of H. pylori is declining worldwide.

149
Q

What tests can be done to check for active H. pylori?

A

fecal antigen, urease

150
Q

If a patient does not respond to H . pylori treatment, what should be done next?

A

endoscopy

151
Q

What findings on physical exam indicate consolidation?

A

whispered petriloquey, increased tactile fremitus, egophany (hear A when patient says E)

152
Q

When does bronchiolitis typically occur?

A

Caused by viruses such as respiratory syncytial virus (RSV).

Seen in young children with the incidence peaking at 6 months of age

153
Q

What are possible complications of flu?

A
  • otitis media
  • streptococcal PNA
  • lower respiratory tract infections including bronchitis and pneumonia, neurological
154
Q

What are the risk factors for dysmenorrhea?

A

smoking, depression

155
Q

What is an abnormal pelvic exam?

A

large uterus (more than a fist) and immobile

156
Q

What is premenstrual syndrome?

A

bloating, fatigue, behavioral symptoms

157
Q

What are the risk factors for osteoporosis?

A

Low estrogen, lack of physical activity, fam Hx of osteoporosis, dementia, cigarrete smoking

158
Q

Dark discolored fluid with fat globules on aspiration

A

osteochondral fracture

159
Q

Dark discolored fluid with fat globules on aspiration

A

osteochondral fracture

160
Q

How should you counsel women with diabetes who are pregnant?

A

optimize control, stay off ACE inhibitors

161
Q

How should you counsel women who are pregnant with a hx of depression?

A

avoid benzos

162
Q

When might a HIDA scan be indicated?

A

typical symptoms of biliary colic but no visible stones on the gallbladder ultrasound (look for biliary dysfunction)

163
Q

When might an ERCP be justified?

A

there was jaundice and/or gallstone pancreatitis suggestive of a common duct stone

164
Q

What are possible treatment options for risky and hazardous drinking behavior?

A

Brief intervention by the family physician (A) consisting of a 10-15 minute session with advice and goal-setting. Usually this is followed by return visit or phone call. This is the most likely option to choose for a patient in a rural area.
Referral for MET (B) consisting of 4 sessions over 12 weeks utilizing techniques of motivational interviewing. This intervention requires more of a commitment from the patient to attend sessions. This modality may not be available in a rural area
Referral for CBT (C), a structured form of psychotherapy that works to improve the patient’s awareness of his behavior and to develop new, more adaptive behaviors. Also requires patient commitment and may not be readily accessible in a rural area.

165
Q

Describe the quality and type of pain that occurs in migraines

A

Moderate to severe, Often occur with nausea and vomiting, Pulsating and can be unilateral, Worsened with physical activity, Last from 4-72 hours

166
Q

How many episodes of migraines are necessary for diagnosis?

A

5

167
Q

How many episodes of tension headaches are necessary for diagnosis?

A

10

168
Q

Describe pain of cluster headaches

A

severe, associated with rhinorrhea, Last 15-180 minutes

169
Q

What are the 3 serious secondary causes of headaches?

A

Meningitis, intracerebral hemorrhage, brain tumor

170
Q

What are common causes of secondary headaches?

A

analgesic abuse, depression

171
Q

What are the guidelines for MRI imaging patients with headaches?

A

The patient has migraine with atypical headache patterns or neurologic signs
The patient is at higher risk of a significant abnormality
The results of the study would alter the management of the headache

172
Q

What medications can act as triggers for migraine headaches?

A

estrogen, aspartame, tobacco, caffeine, alcohol

173
Q

What are the contraindications to triptans?

A

cerebrovascular, or peripheral vascular disease, severe hypertension, pregnancy

174
Q

What are the contraindications to ergot alkaloids?

A

heart disease or angina, hypertension, peripheral vascular disease, pregnancy, renal insufficiency, breastfeeding

175
Q

What tricks can be used to prevent opiate abuse?

A

Set clear goals, Use non-pharmacologic treatments, first select specifically targeted non-opiate therapies , Use long-acting agents, Use a pain medication agreement

176
Q

What are the criteria for controlled headache symptoms?

A

Fewer than two headaches per week or eight per month and they are relieved with lifestyle modification and acute treatment medicine

177
Q

What are key PE findings for the scrotal exam?

A

cremasteric reflex - sensitivie (non specific) for testicular torsion
Blue dot sign - pathognomonic for appendiceal torsion
Prehn sign - physical lifting of the testicles relieves the pain caused by epididymitis

178
Q

What are the viability rates in testicular torsion based on time?

A

6 hours 90%
more than 12 hours 50%
more than 24 hours 10%

179
Q

What are common causes of insomnia in the elderly?

A

Sleep apnea, restless leg syndrome, cardiorespiratory disorders, GERD, hyperthryoidism

180
Q

What therapies have been shown to be effective for primary insomnia?

A

Cognitive Behavioral Therapy for Insomnia, zolpidem (E) [Ambien)

181
Q

What medical conditions in old age are frequently associated with depression?

A

hypothyroidism, Parkinsons disease, dementia

182
Q

What can increase a patient’s liklihood of completed suicide?

A

male, increasing age, previously attempting suicide

183
Q

If hospitalization not warranted, what steps should be taken?

A

no-harm contract - go to doctor if feel like you want to harm yourself

184
Q

What are the side effects of zoloft?

A

gastrointestinal side effects

185
Q

How does diagnosis of depression in ethnic minorities compare to that of white individuals?

A

Hispanics have their depression identified less frequently than non-Hispanic white
Hispanic patients will more frequently present to a doctor for somatic complaints

186
Q

How do you assess patients in the timed up and go test?

A

< 20 Mostly independent
20-29 Variable mobility
> 30 Impaired mobility

187
Q

What test can be performed to assess for upper extremity weakness?

A

pronator drift

188
Q

What test is used by ambulance paramedics to rapidly assess stroke risk in patients?

A

Face Arm Speech (FAST) test

189
Q

What is Hypokalemic periodic paralysis?

A

rare syndrome characterized by episodes of general or focal weakness.
Episodes usually begin in childhood or adolescence.

190
Q

How can hemiplegic migraine be distinguished from stroke?

A

cessation of symptoms by mid-adult

191
Q

What are the major mechanisms of stroke?

A

Embolic, Thrombotic (native clot in the artery), Cardiogenic (caused by decreased cardiac output) Hemorrhagic

192
Q

What are the treatment options for atrial fibrillation with rapid ventricular response?

A

Rate control: Controlling the heart rate with intravenous diltiazem, beta-blockers, or verapamil

Rhythm control: Cardioversion either via electric shock to the heart with the patient under sedation or via medications given orally or intravenously (has a risk of stroke)

193
Q

What are functions impacted by a right parietal infarct?

A

left hemiplegia, difficulties with their spatial and perceptual abilities, left spatial neglect, denial of stroke disability

194
Q

What therapies can be used in treating thrombotic stroke?

A

Aspirin alone, aspirin with dipyridamole, and clopidogrel

195
Q

What are common complications of stroke?

A

aspiration pneumonia, malnutrition/dehydration, and pressure sores.

196
Q

What secondary prevention measures can be taken to prevent future stroke?

A

Hyperlipidemia, Hypertension, Smoking, Diet, Physical activity, Stroke education

197
Q

What proportion of stroke victims are affected by post stroke depresssion?

A

One third of stroke survivors experience post-stroke depression

198
Q

How do you distinguish between fatigue and sleepiness?

A

fatigue - A feeling of exhaustion or tiredness that is pervasive, not relieved by rest, and often worsened by exertion.
sleepiness - A feeling of tiredness that gives a patient the tendency to fall asleep, and is often relieved by either rest or exertion.

199
Q

For which cancers does the USPTF have A or B ratings?

A

Breast cancer, Colorectal cancer, cervical cancer

200
Q

Has glycemic control been tied to improved outcomes with CAD mortality?

A

NO!

201
Q

What measures have been shown to be effective in slowing the progression of CAD?

A

BP control, aspirin, cholesterol control, weight control (non rapid), beta blockers

202
Q

What are the findings on chest X ray that might indicate CHF?

A

Cardiomegaly, Central vascular congestion and hilar fullness, Pleural effusions, Cephalization of pulmonary vasculature, Kerley B lines (indicate interstitial fluid in lung tisuse)

203
Q

What is the most comon cause of diastolic heart failure?

A

uncontrolled hypertension

204
Q

What drugs have been shown to play a role in management of Grade C systolic heart failure?

A

ACE inhibitors, ARBs, Digoxin, Loop diuretics , Certain Beta-blockers such as metoprolol succinate, Eplerenone

205
Q

What tests are appropriate for a patient with intermediate risk of CAD?

A

Exercise treadmill testing (ETT), Stress echocardiography

Nuclear stress testing

206
Q

What has been shown to be helpufl in the management of oesteoarthritis?

A

exercise, SAM-e, injections, tramadol (maybe), hyaluronic acid (maybe), glucosamine (maybe)

207
Q

Why is tramadol useful?

A

stimulates release of serotonin and inhibits reuptake of norepi, alleviates pain, less abuse potential than opiods

208
Q

What beta HCG level is a pregnancy detected by transvaginal ultrasound? How about transabdominal?

A

1500 - transvaginal

5000 transabdominal

209
Q

What number of drinks is considered a positive screen according to the Association for Addiction Medicine?

A

14 drinks/week as a man

more than 7 drinks per week as a woman

210
Q

What physical exam skills can be used to rule out appendicits?

A

psoas sign, obturator sign

211
Q

Squamous cell cancers of what size are at increased risk of metastasis?

A

2cm

212
Q

If endometrium is greater than __ on US, you need follow up

A

5mm

213
Q

What are the concerns of hormone replacement therapy?

A

increases risk of breast cancer, endometrial cancer, coronary artery disease, stroke

214
Q

What are the different types of estrogen therapy available?

A

systemic - use with progesterone to protect against endometrial cancer

Topical - good for urinary symptoms and atrophic vaginitis

215
Q

What are the different types of estrogen therapy available?

A

systemic - use with progesterone to protect against endometrial cancer

Topical - good for urinary symptoms and atrophic vaginitis

216
Q

What medications can be used as headache prophylaxis?

A

beta blockers, topiramate (neurostabilizers) amitryptyline (tricyclics)

217
Q

When is it appropriate to evaluate eradication of H. Pylori?

A

H. pylori ulcers, H. pylori cancer, dyspepsia despite test and treat

218
Q

Describe the RISE approach for prevention

A

Risk factors
Immunizations
Screening
Education

219
Q

How do you calculate Targeted Heart RAte?

A

(220-age)x 0.7

220
Q

What is the liklihood of a pt. who has a TIA developing stroke?

A

8-12% chance within 1 week

221
Q

What are the predictive factors for COPD?

A

smoking more than 40 pack years, self reported, max laryngeal height >4, age over 45

222
Q

Is X ray suggested for COPDers?

A

can help eval for other causes of dyspnea, like cancer

223
Q

What is the definition of dysmenorrhea?

A

painful menses

224
Q

What therapuetic life style choices can lower LDL?

A 
TLC diet
Saturated fat <200 mg/day
Consider increased viscous (soluble) fiber (add 5-10 g/day) and plant stanol/sterols (add 2 g/day) to enhance LDL lowering
Weight management
Increased physical activity
225
Q

What can raise HDL levels?

A

Exercise (A), weight loss (B), and smoking cessation (D), moderate alcohol

226
Q

How does one calculate BMR?

A

Basal metabolic rate (BMR) can be approximated by multiplying body weight in pounds by 10

227
Q

How many calories make a lb?

A

3500

228
Q

How many calors/day does a baby need?

A

Adequate growth for a term infant requires approximately 100 to 120 cal/kg/day

229
Q

How quickly do babies grow?

A

double birth weight by 4-5 mo, triple by 12

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