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PST MLS > (F) L4: Learning Evaluation > Flashcards

(F) L4: Learning Evaluation Flashcards

1
Q

Refers to a single article, unit or part of a test

A

Item

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2
Q

Refers to a short/small oral or written test

A

Quiz

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3
Q

Refers to a set of questions, problems or exercises to determine periodic knowledge, abilities and aptitude

A

Test

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4
Q

Refers to a set of questions, problems or exercises in a broader scope to determine what the students know or have learned

A

Examination

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5
Q

Refers to a record of points of the number of items that a student has answered correctly

A

Score

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6
Q

Refers to the assignment of numbers to objects or events that are determined

A

Measurement

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7
Q

Refers to the process by which information is obtained and is relative to some known objective or goal such as a test

A

Assessment

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8
Q

Refers to a process of obtaining information that will help make a judgment about a situation

A

Evaluation

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9
Q

According to the magic triangle, what lies on top?

A

Learning objectives

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10
Q

What 2 elements of the triangle are based on the learning objectives?

A

Learning evaluation and learning actvities

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11
Q

What are the 3 processes in the teaching-learning process?

A
  1. Learning objectives
  2. Learning evaluation
  3. Learning activities
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12
Q

What does formative mean?

A

During the process

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13
Q

Refers to getting the value or worth of the students’ learning

A

Evaluation

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14
Q

Decision-making is based on what 3 factors?

A
  1. Observation
  2. Analysis
  3. Judgement
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15
Q

We can measure the extent of learning by assigning what?

A

Grades

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16
Q

This type of test refers to “after the process of teaching”

A

Summative

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17
Q

Incentive to learning is aka?

A

Motivation

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18
Q

An examination is given to _______ students to study

A

Motivate

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19
Q

“Student scores will help them know which lessons to focus on” applies to feedback to the _______

A

Student

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20
Q

“Student scores will help them realize any changes they should make to help out students” applies to feedback to the _______

A

Teachers

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21
Q

If the feedback from the evaluation indicates that there is something wrong with the learning activities, the teacher can _______ the learning activities

A

Modify/change their methods of teaching

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22
Q

This test determines the students’ previous knowledge or skills

A

Pre-Test

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23
Q

This test determines the students’ readiness for a subject

A

Pre-requisite Test

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24
Q

This test diagnoses a student’s difficulties or weaknesses

A

Formative Test

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25
Q

This test certifies students’ performance

A

Post-Test

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26
Q

This test:
➢ Diagnostic
➢ Measures the progress or gains made by the student
➢ Done during the period of instruction
➢ Useful in monitoring and guiding the student

A

Formative

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27
Q

This test:
➢ Certifying
➢ Usually given at the end of a unit, period of instruction, or a program
➢ Used to determine the students’ aptitude and justify whether they should be promoted or receive the degree
➢ Used for selection of students for school admission or for providing scholarship
➢ Protects the society by preventing incompetent individuals from practicing a profession

A

Summative

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28
Q

Refers to the acceptable level of performance/standards that should be met; should be given from the start

A

Criteria

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29
Q

Refers to the following:
- it measures what is supposed to be measured
- there should be no outside factor that would interfere with the process of evaluation

A

Validity

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30
Q

2 types of validity:
- all content is measured; the subject matter or behavior that is intended to measure

A

Content Validity

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31
Q

2 types of validity:
- predicts future performance, behavior, or score
- predicts performance in another domain of situation

A

Predictive Validity

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32
Q

Refers to the following:
- the consistency with which the tool or instrument
measures a given variable
- the degree of confidence which can be placed in
the result of the test

A

Reliability

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33
Q

T or F: Reliable results are necessarily valid, but valid results are not necessarily reliable

A

False (Valid results are necessarily reliable, but reliable results are not necessarily valid)

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34
Q

Refers to the following:
- agreement on correct answer
- there shouldn’t be different answers, only one answer
- the extent to which independent and competent
examiners agree on what constitutes a correct and good answer for each of the elements of the measuring tool

A

Objectivity

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35
Q

Refers to the following:
- the simplicity of usage
- depends on the time required to construct an examination, to administer, to score, and to interpret results
- should never take precedence over the validity

A

Practicability

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36
Q

The content to be covered is found where?

A

In the blueprint, table of specification, or grid

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37
Q

Refers to the taxonomy of levels of learning

A

Level to be tested

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38
Q

T or F: The larger the sample of questions, the more reliable the test

A

True

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39
Q

For T or F type of questions, how long is the recommended time of testing?

A

1 minute and 30 seconds

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40
Q

For objective type (e.g. MCQ) questions, how long is the recommended time of testing?

A

1 minute

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41
Q

For short sentences type of questions, how long is the recommended time of testing?

A

2 minutes

42
Q

For limited essay questions, how long is the recommended time of testing?

A

10 minutes

43
Q

This is the section of a multiple-choice item that poses the problem that the students must answer

A

Question Stem

44
Q

T or F: Clearly and directly ask what you need to know or what you want the student to answer

A

True

45
Q

T or F: Keep the reading time of question to a maximum

A

False (minimum; avoid paragraphs that will consume more time to answer)

46
Q

T or F: Responses must be clear and concise

A

True (choices should not be too long either)

47
Q

T or F: Give hints/clues to the correct answer

A

False (remove any clues that can make the answer obvious)

48
Q

T or F: Use both plausible and implausible choices in MCQs

A

False (don’t include choices that are obviously wrong)

49
Q

Refers to the name of a person or a thing from which a new thing or situation is named after

A

Eponym (e.g. guillotine = from Mr. Guillotin)

50
Q

Refers to initial letters that stand for the words from a phrase

A

Acronym

51
Q

Refers to the shortened form of a word or phrase

A

Abbreviations

52
Q

T or F: Using eponyms, acronyms, and abbreviations can be exclusively known by some

A

False (must be universally known)

53
Q

T or F: In making questions, maximize negatively phrased statements

A

False; minimize them (e.g. which of the following is NOT)

54
Q

T or F: Use “all of the above” and “none of the above” regularly

A

False (sparingly)

55
Q

Which is more preferable between “all of the above” and “none of the above” ?

A

“All of the above”

56
Q

T or F: Avoid interrelated items (cascading)

A

True (avoid questions you won’t be able to answer if you couldn’t answer the previous question)

57
Q

Refers to the following:
- most widely used selection type item
- is versatile; can test a greater variety of learning or instructional objectives
- permits a wide sampling of content

A

MCQs

58
Q

T or F: Properly constructed Multiple Choice Questions can measure higher levels of cognitive skill

A

True

59
Q

MCQ parts:
- may be in a form of question or incomplete statement
- after reading this, the students must be able to have a tentative answer, even before reading the distracters

A

Stem

60
Q

Refers to the repetition of words or materials in the options

A

Redundancy

61
Q

Another term for the correct answer among the choices in a MCQ

A

Key

62
Q

Another term for the incorrect answers among the choices in a MCQ

A

Distracters

63
Q

Refers to when the correct answer is the longest choice

A

Length clue

64
Q

An example of this improper question construction factor is when the question asks about the origin of
the French guillotine and one of the choices is Dr. Guillotin

A

Verbal clue

65
Q

Refers to when there is “a/an” or “is/are” in the question

A

Grammatical clue

66
Q

What do you call the ff. set of words?

Usually, Often, Generally, All,
Always, Never

A

Specific Determiners

67
Q

T or F: Avoid lifting statements verbatim from textbooks when making MCQs

A

True

68
Q

What do you call the responses, options, or distracters in MCQs?

A

Alternatives

69
Q

What is the most popular format of alternatives in MCQs?

A

4 options (1 correct answer, 3 distracters)

70
Q

T or F: Your alternatives must be options from common errors or misconceptions

A

True

71
Q

Refers to being arranged in ascending or descending order (MCQ parts)

A

Number options

72
Q

Refers to being arranged alphabetically (MCQ parts)

A

Single word

73
Q

What are the 2 lists in a matching type?

A

Premises and Responses

74
Q

Premise or Response:
- numbered items on the left
- longer and more complex
- acts as stems

A

Premises

75
Q

Premise or Response:
- lettered items on the right
- shorter and simpler
- acts as the alternatives

A

Responses

76
Q

This type of test:
- clearly explains the basis for matching in the directions
- examinees select the lettered item that is associated with the numbered item

A

Matching Type

77
Q

T or F: All items in matching types should be heterogenous and logically arranged

A

False (homogenous)

e.g. all items on the left are diseases while all items on the right should be antibiotics

78
Q

T or F: In matching type, the number of premises should exceed the number of it
responses

A

False (reverse)

79
Q

T or F: In matching type, indicate whether a response may be used more than once

A

True

80
Q

What is the minimum and maximum amount of responses for a matching type question?

A

5-15

81
Q

T or F: All the premises and responses should be in one page in a matching type test

A

True

82
Q

This test:
- a question is given, and the examinees supply the word/s to answer it
- easy to construct and provides less opportunity to guess

A

Supply Type

83
Q

These people should be capable of judging various answers as there may be partially correct ones

A

Correctors

84
Q

In supply type questions, put the blank near what part of the sentence?

A

End

85
Q

What is the recommended maximum amount of equal length blanks per item in supply type questions?

A

2

86
Q

This test:
- is designed to test the ability to identify correctness of statements of facts or principle
- is the lowest level of assessing knowledge and comprehension (50/50 chance of guessing)
- has items that contain only 1 idea

A

True or False

87
Q

This test:
- provides data about the worth of the item
- shows the level of difficulty and the ability to discriminate between test-takers who know the
materials and those who don’t
- can be done digitally or manually

A

Item Analysis

88
Q

These can be subjected to item analysis

A

Objective test items

89
Q

Manual or Computerized Item Analysis?
- arrange the corrected papers by rank from highest (top) to the lowest (bottom)
- get the highest (top) 27% and the lowest (bottom)
27%

A

Manual

90
Q

Refers to the percentage of students who got the item correctly

A

Difficulty Index (item difficulty)

91
Q

T or F: The higher the difficulty index, the harder the item

A

False (higher = easier, lower - harder)

92
Q

What is the recommended difficulty index in item analysis?

A

0.50

93
Q

This measures the effectiveness of a test in separating high scorers from low scorers and it can be used for selecting students for scholarships or admissions

A

Discrimination index (item discrimination)

94
Q

What is the difficulty index range?

A

0 to 1

95
Q

What is the discrimination index range?

A

-1 to +1

96
Q

What does a high discrimination index score mean?

A

Student answered correctly

97
Q

What does a low discrimination index score mean?

A

Student answered incorrectly

98
Q

What does a discrimination index of 0.35 and higher mean?

A

Excellent

99
Q

What does a discrimination index of 0.25 to 0.34 mean?

A

Good

100
Q

What does a discrimination index of 0.15 to 0.24 mean?

A

Item needs revision

101
Q

What does a discrimination index of 0.15 and lower mean?

A

Discard the item

PST MLS (13 decks)

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