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Pre-reg > Extra Bits Of Info > Flashcards

Extra Bits Of Info Flashcards

1
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation a.c stand for

A

Before food

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2
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation bd stand for

A

Twice daily

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3
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation od stand for

A

Once daily

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4
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation om stand for

A

Every morning

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5
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation on stand for

A

Every night

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6
Q

What does the latin abbreviation pc stand for

A

After food

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7
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation PRN stand for

A

When required

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8
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation qds stand for

A

Four times a day

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9
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation qqs stand for

A

Every 4 hours

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10
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation stat stand for

A

Immediately

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11
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation tds stand for

A

Three times a day

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12
Q

What does the Latin abbreviation tid stand for

A

Three times daily

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13
Q

Immunisation due at 8 weeks and how they are given

A

6 in 1- injection
Meningococcal B (menb) injection
Rotavirus- oral application

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14
Q

Immunisation due at 12 weeks

A

6 in 1
Rotavirus
Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine

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15
Q

Immunisation due at 16 weeks

A 
6 in 1- injection 
Meningococcal B (menb) injection
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16
Q

Immunisation due at one years old

A

HiB/menC
Pneumococcal conjugate vaccine
Meningococcal B (menb)
Measle, mumps and rubella (mmr)

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17
Q

What immunisation is given to primary school kids from reception to year 6

A

Live attenuated influenza vaccine

Nasal spray in each nostril

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18
Q

Immunisation given at 3 years and 4 months

A

6 in 1

MMR

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19
Q

Immunisation given at 12-13

A

HPV

Two injections atleast 6 months aprt

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20
Q

Immunisation given at 14 years old

A

6 in 1

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21
Q

Vaccine given at 65

A

Inactivated influenza vaccine (annually thereafter)

Pneumococcal polysaccharide vaccine (PPV)

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22
Q

Immunisation given at 70 years old

A

Shingles vaccine

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23
Q

What does the 6 in 1 consist of

A 
Diphtheria
Tetanus
Pertussis (whooping cough)
Polio
HiB
HepB
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24
Q

What vaccines used are live

A 
BCG
Rotavirus 
Live attenuated influenza vaccine 
Oral typhoid vaccine 
Yellow fever 
Varicella 
Zoster 
MMR
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25
Q

How long should you generally wait between live vaccines

A

4 weeks

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26
Q

What hydrocortisone strengths are classed as mild

A

< 25%

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27
Q

What potency is clobetasone (eumovate)

A

Moderate

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28
Q

What potency is momentasone

A

Potent

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29
Q

What potency is hydrocortisone butyrate

A

Potent

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30
Q

What potency is betamethasone 0.025% (benovate-RD)

A

Moderate

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31
Q

What potency is betamethasone 0.1% (betnovate)

A

Potent

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32
Q

What potency is clobetasol (dermovate)

A

Very potent

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33
Q

How is rapid acting insulin taken

A

Immediately before or after food

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34
Q

How is intermediate acting insulin taken

A

Twice daily in conjugations with soluble insulin

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35
Q

How is long acting insulin taken

A

Once daily at the same time each day to cover 24 hour period

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36
Q

How is short acting soluble insulin taken

A

15-30 minutes before food and meal must be consumed within half an hour

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37
Q

Examples of short acting soluble insulin

A

Human soluble

Beef/ pork

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38
Q

What analogue is lispro (humalog)

A

Rapid acting

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39
Q

What analogue is isophane

A

Intermediate

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40
Q

What analogue is aspart (novorapid)

A

Rapid

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41
Q

What analogue is glargine (lantus)

A

Long acting

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42
Q

What analogue is degludec (tresiba)

A

Long acting

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43
Q

What analogue is protamine zinc

A

Long acting

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44
Q

What analogue is glulisine (apridra)

A

Rapid

45
Q

What type of insulin is used in a medical emergencies and surgery

A

Short acting soluble

Alternative: rapid acting

46
Q

Which diabetic analogues should not be given IV due to risk of thrombosis

A

Isophane

Protamine zinc

47
Q

When COC is started from what day of the cycle should protection be used and for how long

A

Day 6 or later

For 7 days

48
Q

When POP is started after what day of the cycle should protection be used and for how long

A

5

For 2 day

49
Q

What do you do if you’ve missed or delayed contraceptive patch application at the beginning of the cycle or more than 48 hours mid cycle

A

Apply new patch ASAP and start a new day 1 cycle

Condom for 7 days

50
Q

Which antimarial prophylaxis are a P supply

A

Proguanil
Chloroquine
Chloroquine with proguanil

51
Q

Which antimalarial prophylaxis is a Pom

A

Malarone
Doxycycline
Mefloquine

52
Q

Which antimalarial prophylaxis can be taken 1-2 days before travel

A

Malarone

Doxycycline

53
Q

Which antimalarial prophylaxis is taken 1 week before travel

A

Proguanil
Chloroquine
Chloroquine and proguanil

54
Q

Which antimalarial prophylaxis is taken 2-3 week before travel

A

Mefloquine

55
Q

All antimalarial prophylaxis are taken for 4 weeks after returning except which one

A

Malarone - 1 week

56
Q

Important side effect of doxycycline

A

Photosensitivity

Oesophageal irritation

57
Q

Important side effect of mefloquine

A

Neuropsychiatric reactions

58
Q

Which malarial prophylaxis can you give in renal impairment

A

Doxycycline

Mefloquine

59
Q

Which malarial prophylaxis can you give in epilepsy

A

Malarone
Doxycycline
Proguanil

60
Q

Which antimalarial prophylaxis are taken weekly

A

Mefloquine

Chloroquine

61
Q

Which malarial prophylaxis is given in pregnancy

A

Chloroquine and proguanil

62
Q

What are the stages in behaviour change

A 
Pre-contemplation stage 
Contemplations stage 
Preparation stage 
Action stage 
Maintenance stage 
Relapse
63
Q

What does the pre contemplation stage consist of

A

No intention of changing behaviour

64
Q

What does the contemplation stage consist of

A

Aware of the problem and it’s existence but with no commitment to action

65
Q

What does the preparation stage consist of

A

Intent on taking action to address the problem

66
Q

What does the action stage consist of

A

Active modification of behaviour

67
Q

What does the maintenance stage consist of

A

Sustained change. New behaviour replaces old

68
Q

What does the relapse stage consist of

A

Falling back to old patterns of behaviour

69
Q

What are the stages to the evidence based pyramid

A

Bottom to top
Information and expert opinion

Case control studies or case series/ report studies

Cohort studies

The randomised control trial

Critically appraised individual articles

Critically appraised topics

The systemic review / meta analysis

70
Q

What drugs cause hypernatraemia

A 
Oral contraceptives 
Corticosteroid 
Sodium bicarbonate 
Lithium 
Sodium content in IV fluids
71
Q

Which drugs cause hyponatraemia

A

Antidepressants
Looo and thiazide diuretics
Carbamazepine
Desmopressin

72
Q

How do you treat hyperphosphataemia

A

Calcium containing preparations

Phosphate binding agents

73
Q

Drugs that cause hyperkalaemia

A 
Heparins 
ACEi/arbs
Digoxin 
BB
Epleronone 
Amiloride
NSAIDs
Spironolactone
74
Q

Drugs that cause hypokalaemia

A 
Diuretics 
Insulin 
B2agonist 
Theophylline 
Corticosteroids
75
Q

Which vitamin is teratogenic

A

Vitamin A- retinol

Liver oil and those things

76
Q

Lack of which vitamin cause scurvy

A

Vitamin C

Ascorbic acid

77
Q

Lack of which vitamin causes rickets

A

Vitamin d - calciferol

78
Q

What does vitamin C aid the absorption of

A

Iron

79
Q

Which vitamin prevents peripheral neuropathy

A

Vitamin b6

80
Q

Which vitamin deficiency is common in vegans

A

Vitamin b12

81
Q

Symptoms of hypernatraemia

A 
Convulsion 
Hypovolaemia
Thirst 
Dehydration 
Oliguria
Postural hypotension 
Tachycardia
82
Q

Symptoms of hyponatraemia

A 
Drowsiness
Confusion 
Convulsions 
Nausea 
Vomiting 
Headaches 
Cramps
83
Q

Symptoms of hyperkalaemia

A

Ventricular fibrillation

Cardiac arrest

84
Q

Symptoms of hypokalaemia

A

Muscle hypotonia

Arrhythmias

85
Q

What increased theophylline concentration

A 
Heart failure 
Hepatic failure 
Viral infections 
Elderly 
Enzyme inhibitors
86
Q

What decreases theophylline concentration

A

Smokers
Alcohol
Enzyme inducer

87
Q

Signs of theophylline toxicity

A

Fast and sick

Tachycardia 
Arrhythmias 
Convulsion 
Hypokalaemia 
Vomiting 
GI effects
88
Q

Signs of liver toxicity

A 
Jaundice 
Abdominal pain 
Nausea and vomiting 
Malaise 
Weight loss 
Pruritis 
Dark urine 
Pale or clay coloured stools 
Drowsiness or confusion
89
Q

Hepatotoxic drugs

A 
Antipsychotics 
Amiodarone 
Carbamazepine 
Go amoxiclav 
Fluconazole 
Flucoxacillin 
Isoniazid 
Ketoconazole 
Labetalol
Methotrexate 
Paracetamol 
Pioglitazone 
Rifampicin 
Statin 
Tetracycline 
Valproate
90
Q

Signs of acute kidney injury

A 
Reduced urine output 
Fluid retention 
Dehydration 
Nausea and vomiting 
Fatigue 
High bp
Confusion
Slight backache
91
Q

Examples of nephrotoxic drugs

A 
ACEi 
Aminoglycosides 
Aminosalicylates
Cephalosporin 
Lithium 
Methotrexate 
NSAIDs 
Quinolones 
Tetracycline 
Vancomycin 
Diuretics 
Metformin
92
Q

Side effect figures

A 
Very common >1 in 10
Common >1 in 100
Uncommon >1 in 1000
Rare > 1 in 10000
Very rare <1 in 10000
93
Q

Drugs that colour bodily secretion red

A

Dante on
Doxorubicin
Levodopa

94
Q

Drugs that colour bodily secretion red/ orange

A

Rifampicin

95
Q

Drugs that colour bodily secretion orange

A

Sulfalazine

96
Q

Drugs that colour bodily secretion yellow brown

A

Senna

Nitrofurantoin

97
Q

Drugs that colour bodily secretion pink or orange

A

Pheninidione

98
Q

Drugs that colour bodily secretion blue

A

Triamterene

99
Q

Drugs that colour bodily secretion black tarry

A

Iron

Bismuth

100
Q

Drugs that colour bodily secretion brown

A

Prostaglandin analogues

101
Q

What’s the antidote for benzo toxicity

A

Flumazenil

102
Q

What’s the antidote for digoxin toxicity

A

Digoxin specific antibody

103
Q

Antidote for heparin toxicity

A

Protamine

104
Q

Antidote for opioid toxicity

A

Naloxone

105
Q

Antidote for paracetamol toxicity

A

Acetylcysteine

106
Q

Antidote for bb overdose

A

Atropine

107
Q

Onset of action for the 4 laxative classes

A

Bulk- 48-72hours
Osmotic 30-60 min
Stimulant 6-12 hour
Softer 24-72 hours

108
Q

Reversal fo dabigatran

A

Idarcizumab

Pre-reg (27 decks)

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