Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

A Level PE > Exercise Physiology > Flashcards

Exercise Physiology Flashcards

Nutrition, Ergogenic Aids

1
Q

What percentage of carbohydrates should make up our diet?

A

55%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

What percentage of protein should make up our diet?

A

15%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What percentage of fats should make up your diet?

A

30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What is the function of carbohydrates?

A

Energy production - cell division, active transport and formation of molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

What is the function of proteins?

A

Cell growth and repair
- helps the formation of enzymes, haemoglobin and collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

What is the function of fats?

A

Low intensity energy production and help absorb fat soluble vitamins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What are the two different types of carbohydrates?

A

Simple - quick energy release
Complex - slow energy release

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What are the sources of simple carbohydrates?

A

Fruits, Biscuits and Crisps

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

What are the sources of complex carbohydrates?

A

Wholegrain bread/rice/pasta and potatoes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

Why should you chose wholegrain foods instead of white?

A

It boosts fibre intake to prevent constipation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What sources of protein?

A

9 essential amino acids required from our diet
Diary - cheese, nuts and milk
Meat - chicken/turkey
Veg - Beans and pulses

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

What are the two types of fats?

A

Saturated and Unsaturated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What are food sources which contain saturated fat?

A

Butter, cheese, cream, chocolate and fatty meats

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

What are food sources which contain unsaturated fat?

A

Avocado, nuts and Oily fish

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

Why are unsaturated fats better for you?

A

Unsaturated fats contain HDL (high density lipoprotein) whereas saturated fats contain LDL - which can build up on arterial walls narrowing the lumen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Name at least 4 different minerals?

A

Magnesium
Potassium
Sodium
Zinc
Iron
Calcium
Selenium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

What is the function of magnesium?

A

Strong bones and muscles
Boosts immune system
Maintain nerve function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Whats the function of potassium?

A

Balances bodily fluid and maintains heart health

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Whats the function of sodium?

A

Conducts nerve impulses and maintains the proper balance of water and minerals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the function Zinc?

A

Boosts immune system and metabolic function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

What is the function of iron?

A

Makes haemoglobin, a protein in red blood cells that carries oxygen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What is the function of calcium?

A

Blood clotting
Muscle contraction
Regulate heart rhythm + nerve function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Whats the function of selenium?

A

Help to make DNA and protect against cell damage and infections

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

Name 5 different vitamins?

A

Vitamin D, C, B12, A, K, E

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

Which vitamins are fat soluble?

A

Vitamin A, D, E and K

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

What is the function of Vitamin D?

A

It absorbs calcium to aid strength of bones and teeth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

What is the function of Vitamin C?

A

It helps wound healing
Boosts the immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

What is the function of Vitamin B12?

A

Red blood cell production
Processes folic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

What is the function of Vitamin A?

A

Aids vision
Boosts function of immune system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What is the function of Vitamin E?

A

Boosts immune system
Maintains healthy skin and eyes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

What is the function of Vitamin K?

A

Blood clotting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

How much fibre should we be consuming per day?

A

35g

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

What is the function of fibre?

A

Aids health of digestive system and prevents constipation
Regulates cholesterol levels in blood to prevent obesity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

What are some sources of fibre?

A

Chia seed
Fruits
Brown/Wholegrain pasta/bread/rice

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

What is the purpose of water and how much should we consume per day?

A

8 glasses per day
Prevents dehydration
Temperature regulation
Transport of glucose/blood

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Define the term energy balance?

A

The relationship between energy intake and energy expenditure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Define the term energy intake?

A

The total amount of energy from food or drink consumed, measured in joules or calories

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Define the term energy expenditure?

A

The sum of the basal metabolic rate (BMR), the thermic effect of food (TEF) and the energy expended through physical activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

Whats the equation for energy expenditure?

A

BMR + TEF + Physical activity energy expenditure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

What is Basal Metabolic Rate (BMR)?

A

The minimum amount of energy required to sustain essential physiological function at rest

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

On average how much of our total expenditure does BMR account for?

A

75%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

What is the Thermic Effect of Food (TEF)?

A

The energy required to eat, digest, absorb and use food taken in.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

What is the Physical activity energy expenditure?

A

Total calories required to perform daily tasks which can be estimated using MET values (metabolic equivalent values)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

On average how much of our total expenditure does Physical activity energy expenditure account for?

A

Around 30%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

What is a METs value?

A

The ratio of working metabolic rate to resting metabolic rate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

How does METs estimate exercise intensity?

A

It uses oxygen consumption per unit of body weight per minute (mlO2/kg/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

What is a MET measured in?

A

kcal/kg/min

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

What are the different types of ergogenic aids?

A

Pharmacological
Physiological
Nutritional

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

What are the three different pharmacological aids?

A

Anabolic Steroids
EPO (Erythropoietin)
Human Growth Hormone (HGH)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

What are anabolic steroids?

A

A group of illegal synthetic hormones which produce protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

What are the benefits of anabolic steroids?

A

Increases muscle mass and strength
Increases frequency/intensity/duration of training
Improves speed of recovery

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

What are the risks of anabolic steroids?

A

Mood swings/aggression
Liver damage
Heart Failure
Cancer
Insomnia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Who might use anabolic steroids?

A

Explosive/Power athletes
eg. weightlifter/100m sprinter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Name an athlete who took anabolic steroids during their career?

A

Lyle Alzado

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

What is EPO?

A

An illegal synthetic product that copies natural EPO hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

What are the benefits of EPO?

A

Increases red blood cell and haemoglobin count
Increases O2 transport/ aerobic capacity
Increased intensity/duration of performance before fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

What are the risks associated with EPO?

A

Increases blood viscosity
Decreases cardiac output
Increases risks of blood clot and myocardial infarction
Decrease natural EPO production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Who might use EPO?

A

Endurance athletes like marathon runners and triathletes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What is HGH?

A

Human growth hormone is an illegal synthetic version of a natural growth hormone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

What are the benefits of HGH?

A

Increases muscle mass and strength
Increased fat metabolism and decreased fat mass
Increased blood glucose levels and speed of recovery
Increase intensity and duration of training

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

What are the risks of HGH?

A

Risk of diabetes and cancer
Abnormal bone and muscle development
Enlargement of vital organs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Name an athlete who might use HGH?

A

Power and strength athletes like Dwain Chambers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Name all 3 physiological aids?

A

Blood Doping
Intermittent Hypoxic Training
Cooling Aids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

What is blood doping (its process)?

A

Removal of blood from the body 3-4 weeks prior and re-injecting it 2 hours before the event to increase overall red blood cell count

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

What are the benefits associated with blood doping?

A

Increased red blood cell and haemoglobin count
Increased oxygen transport/aerobic capacity (VO2 MAX)
Increased intensity and duration of performance before fatigue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

What are the risks associated with blood doping?

A

Increased blood viscosity
Decreased cardiac output
Increased risk of blood clots and heart failure
Risk of HIV infections due to transfusions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

Name an athlete who might use blood doping?

A

Endurance athletes
- Lance Armstrong

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

What is Intermittent Hypoxic Training (IHT) ?

A

Use a specialised mask to generate intervals of hypoxic conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

What are the benefits of Intermittent Hypoxic Training?

A

Increases EPO, haemoglobin and aerobic capacity
Increased mitochondria density and buffering capacity to delay OBLA
Increase intensity./duration before fatigue
Acclimatisation to events at altitude

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What are the risks/disadvantages of Intermittent Hypoxic Training?

A

Benefits quickly lost when training stops
Lose motivation and disrupt training patterns
HARD TO REACH NORMAL WORK RATES
Decrease immune function (infection risk)
Dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

What are cooling aids?

A

Range of products including ice vest, air conditioning, ice baths and ice packs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

What are the benefits of cooling aids pre-event?

A

Reduce core body temperature
Reduce thermal strain and cardiovascular drift
Reduce sweating, overheating and dehydration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

What are the benefits of cooling aids post-event?

A

Speed up recovery by reducing DOMs
- Flush muscles with oxygenated blood to remove lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

What are the benefits of cooling aids for injuries?

A

Reduce pain and swelling (arterioles vasoconstriction to reduce blood flow)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

What are the disadvantages/risks of using cooling aids?

A

Difficult to perceive exercise intensity
Ice burns and pain
Hide/Complicate injuries
Dangerous for those with heart conditions
Chest pain and reduced efficiency in elderly

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Name all 6 nutritional aids?

A

Hydration
Carbohydrate Loading
Creatine
Nitrates
Caffeine
Bicarbonates

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

What are the three different hydration solutions?

A

Hypotonic
Isotonic
Hypertonic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

What is a hypotonic solution?

A

It has a LOWER concentration of glucose to the bloodstream (4%)
It replaces lost fluid from sweating and small amounts of glucose
HYDRATION WITHOUT ENERGY BOOST

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

What is an isotonic solution?

A

It has the SAME concentration of glucose as the bloodstream (5% - 8%)
Absorbed at same rate as water lost
REHYDRATE AND SUPPLY ENERGY
eg. middle distance runners and games players

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

What is a hypertonic solution?

A

It has a HIGHER concentration of glucose than the bloodstream (15%)
Absorbed at a slower rate than water
MAXIMISES GLYCOGEN REPLENISHMENT
eg. Ultra distance runner

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

What is a disadvantage of hypertonic solutions?

A

Can cause dehydration so they need to be diluted with water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

What are the consequences of dehydration?

A

Decreased heart rate regulation and increased temperature
Increased blood viscosity and heart rate
Increased fatigue and cramping
Decreased cognitive function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

Describe the process of carbohydrate loading?

A

Start one week before the event;
Day 1 - glycogen depleting bouts of endurance exercise
(eg. 1+ hours swim, cycle and run)
Day 2 -3 - High protein and high fat diet
(Lean protein - chicken, turkey, fish)
(Unsaturated fats (avocado and nuts)
Day 4 - glycogen depleting bout of endurance exercise
Day 5 - 7 - High carbohydrate diet whilst training is tapered and reduced to rest
(Complex carbs - wholegrain pasta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

What happens during the day 1 of carbohydrate loading?

A

Day 1 - glycogen depleting bouts of endurance exercise
(eg. 1+ hours swim, cycle and run)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

What happens during the day 2-3 of carbohydrate loading?

A

Day 2 -3 - High protein and high fat diet
(Lean protein - chicken, turkey, fish)
(Unsaturated fats (avocado and nuts)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What happens during the day 4 of carbohydrate loading?

A

Day 4 - glycogen depleting bouts of endurance exercise
(eg. 1+ hours swim, cycle and run)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What happens during the day 5 -7 of carbohydrate loading?

A

Day 5 - 7 - High carbohydrate diet whilst training is tapered and reduced to rest
(Complex carbs - wholegrain pasta)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

What are the benefits of carbohydrate loading?

A

Increase glycogen stores by up to 50%
Delayed fatigue
Increased fuel for aerobic energy production
Increased intensity and duration of performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

What are the risks of carbohydrate loading?

A

Hypoglycaemia - low blood sugar (in depletion)
Poor recovery, irritability and lethargy (in depletion)
Increased risk of injury
Gastrointestinal problems like bloating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Who is likely to use the legal process of carbohydrate loading?

A

Endurance athletes
- Johnny Brownlee
- Eliud Kipchoge

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

What is Glycemic Index (GI)?

A

A rating scale showing how quickly a carbohydrate affects blood glucose levels

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

If completing moderate intensity endurance training ( 1 hour per day) how many carbohydrates should you consume?

A

5-7g of carbohydrates/kg body mass per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

If completing higher intensity endurance training ( 4+ hour per day) how many carbohydrates should you consume?

A

10-12g of carbohydrates/kg body mass per day

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

When completing endurance training what should you consume as your pre-event meal?

A

3 hour before - low GI carbohydrates
1-4g/kg of complex carbs like porridge

1-2 hours before - smaller high GI carbohydrates (simple carbohydrates eg. honey on bagel)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

What foods should you consume when the event is less than 1 hour?

A

Nothing

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

What foods should you consume when the event is more than 1 hour?

A

Fast digesting carbohydrates (High GI)
To preserve glycogen stores
eg. isotonic sports drink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

What is the purpose of pre-event meals?

A

Increase glycogen stores in the body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

What should you consume post endurance event ?

A

Within the first 30 minutes you should consume 1-1.5g carbs/kg of body mass/hour
Every two hours after you should repeat consuming high/moderate GI foods for up to 6 hours

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

What is the purpose of strength training?

A

Increase muscle mass and strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What should the amount and composition of meals be for strength training?

A

5-6 small meals every 2 hours
Up to 30% lean protein - to enhance and repair muscle fibres
eg. tuna, turkey, chicken
Complex carbohydrates for slow energy release
eg. porridge, beans and lentils
Limiting fat intake but provide unsaturated ‘Healthy’ fats - for hormone regulation and energy, increase omega
eg.flaxseed and avocado

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

What should the amount and composition of meals be for pre-strength training?

A

30-60 minutes before
- small meal (50% high GI carbs, 50% protein)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What should the amount and composition of meals be for post strength training?

A

Within 2 hours
- High GI carbohydrates and protein
- Replaces lost glycogen and increases muscles/strength gain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

What is creatine?

A

A legal naturally produced amino acid which is used within the ATP-PC system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What are the benefits of using creatine?

A

Increases phosphocreatine stores (PC)
Increases duration and intensity of training
Increased muscular hypertrophy
Increase in creatine stores by 50%

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

What are the risks of using creatine?

A

Weight gain by water retention
Muscle Cramps
Stomach upsets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Who might use creatine as a nutritional supplement?

A

Weight lifters
100m sprinter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

What are the benefits of caffeine consumption?

A

Improves focus/alertness as its a stimulant to the CNS
Aids fat metabolism
Decreases fatigue and elevates mood
Preserves glycogen in food improving endurance events
Improved muscular strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What are the risks of caffeine consumption?

A

Diuretic
Impacts heat tolerance
Stomach upsets
Anxiety/nervousness

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Who might consider using caffeine as a nutritional supplement?

A

Sprinter - eg. Bolt
Footballer - eg. Ronaldo/Garnacho

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What is bicarbonate?

A

An alkaline which acts as a buffer to neutralise the rise in lactic acid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

What are the benefits of bicarbonate?

A

Increases lactic acid tolerance and delays OBLA
Increase intensity and duration of performance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What are the risks of consuming bicarbonate?

A

Nausea and dizziness
Stomach upsets

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Which athletes might consider bicarbonate use as a nutritional supplement?

A

Anaerobic athletes
eg. Dina Asher-Smith, Katrina Johnson-Thompson

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Where are nitrates found?

A

Root vegetables
- Beetroot
- radishes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

What are the benefits of nitrates?

A

Vasodilation of blood vessels
- reduces blood pressure
- increases blood flow
eg. Endurance athlete - Mo Farah

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

What are the risks of nitrates?

A

Headaches and dizziness
Diarrhoea
Carcinogenic risk

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Define aerobic capacity?

A

The ability of the body to inspire, transport and utiles oxygen to perform sustained periods of aerobic activity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

What is VO2 Max?

A

The maximum volume of oxygen inspired, transported and utilised were mine during exhaustive exercise
(ml/kg/min)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

What are the 4 factors affecting aerobic capacity?

A

Training
Age
Gender
Physiological make up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

How does training affect aerobic capacity?

A

It will increase V02 max by 10-20%
In ageing performs it will maintain VO2 max

It causes long term adaptations such as increased strength of respiratory muscles, increased haemoglobin, myoglobin and mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

How does gender affect aerobic capacity?

A

Females tend to have 15-30% (10-15ml/kg/min) lower VO2 max than men of the same age group

Females have a higher % of body fat, smaller lung volumes, SV and CO during maximal work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

How does physiological make up affect aerobic capacity?

A

Strong respiratory muscles and large lung capacities inspire more air
Large/strong left ventricle increase SV and CO
High haemoglobin content
Capillarisation - increases surface are for gas exchange - higher % slow oxidative fibres rich in myoglobin and mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

How does age affect aerobic capacity?

A

From early 20s VO2 max declines approx. 1% per year
- Lost elasticity in heart, blood vessels and lung tissue walls with age reduces efficiency in use and transport. of oxygen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What are the different ways to measure aerobic capacity?

A

Direct Gas Analysis
Harvard/Queen’s College Step Test
12 minute Cooper Run
Multi-stage fitness test

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

What is direct gas analysis?

A

A subject performs continuous exercise at progressive intensities to exhaustion. Expired air is captured by a mask with a tube connected to the flow meter and gas analyser. The concentration of O2 and CO2 are measured.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

What are the advantages of Direct Gas Analysis?

A

Direct objective measurement of VO2 max
Accurate, valid and reliable measure
Test performed during different exercises (eg. run, cycle, row)
in lab or field setting

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

What are the disadvantages of Direct Gas Analysis?

A

Maximal test to exhaustion so relies on motivation of performers
Can’t be performed with elderly or those with health conditions
Access to specialist equipment is required

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is the multi-stage fitness test?

A

A continuous test consisting of 20m shuttle runs at progressive intensities to exhaustion each one timed to an audio cue and the test only finishes when the subject can’t complete the shuttle run in the allotted time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

What are the advantages of the multi-stage fitness test?

A

Large groups can perform the test at the same time
Only simple/cheap equipment is required
Published tables of VO2 max equivalents

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

What are the disadvantages of the multi-stage fitness test?

A

Prediction of VO2 Max not measurement
Maximal test to exhaustion so relies on subject motivation. The test is not sport specific
Cannot be used with elderly or those with health conditions.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

What is the 12 minute Cooper run?

A

Continuous running over 12 minutes to achieve a maximum distance performed around a 400m track

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

What are the advantages of the 12 minute Cooper run?

A

Large groups can perform the test at the same time
A subject can administer the test on their own
Simple and cheap equipment required
Published tables of Vo2 max and Normative data for simple calculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

What are the disadvantages of the 12 minute Cooper run?

A

Prediction of VO2 Max not measurement
Maximal test to exhaustion so relies on subject motivation. The test is not sport specific
Cannot be used with elderly or those with health conditions.
Not sport specific

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

What is the Harvard Step test?

A

Perform continuous stepping on and off a box 41.3cm high for a period of 3 minutes. Heart rate is taken 5 seconds after completing the test for 15 seconds. HR recovery is used to predict VO2 max

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

What are the advantages of the Harvard step test?

A

Submaximal test
Simple and cheap equipment required
HR easily monitored
Published tables of normative data
Simple VO2 max calculation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

What are the disadvantages of the Harvard step test?

A

Prediction of VO2 max not measurement
HR recovery affected by prior exercise, food and fluid intake
Test is not sport specific
Step height may disadvantage shorter subjects

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

What are the two types of aerobic training?

A

Continuous and Fartlex
HIIT (High Intensity Interval Training)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Describe continuous training?

A

Steady state at a low intensity (60 - 80% Max HR)
Long duration of 20 - 80 minutes
eg. Swimming, Cycling, Running

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

What should the intensity of continuous training be?

A

60 - 80% Max HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

What should the duration of continuous training be?

A

20 - 80 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

What are the disadvantages of Continuous training?

A

Can cause overuse injuries
Not sport specific for game players

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

What is fartlek training?

A

A variation of continuous training which mixes steady states and higher intensities with different terrain

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

What is HIIT?

A

Periods of high intensity work followed by periods of rest
Work;
80 -95% Max HR
5sec - 8 mins
Rest
40 - 50% Max HR
Equal length to work

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What should the intensity of work during HIIT training be?

A

80-95% Max HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What should the intensity of rest during HIIT training be?

A

40 - 50% Max HR

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

What should the duration of work during HIIT training be?

A

5 sec - 8 mins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

What should the duration of rest during HIIT training be?

A

Equal to length of work (5 sec - 8 mins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

What are the disadvantages of HIIT training?

A

Requires longer recovery and good aerobic base
Sedentary individuals need to seek medical advice before starting HIIT

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

What are the respiratory adaptations to aerobic training?

A

Stronger respiratory - increase maximum lung volumes
Increased SA alveoli - More internal gas exchange

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

What are the cardiovascular adaptations to aerobic training?

A

Cardiac hypertrophy - increased SV, CO, filling capacity and force of contraction
Elasticity of arterial walls - Increased vascular shunt mechanism
Increased blood plasma volume - reduced blood viscosity snd more venous return
Increased red blood cell - Greater aerobic capacity and gas exchange
Greater capillarisation of alveoli and slow oxidative fibres - increased SA for blood flow and gas exchange plus shorter diffusion distance

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

What are the muscular adaptations to aerobic training?

A

Hypertrophy of slow twitch - delay OBLA and more aerobic energy produced
Increased size and density of mitochondria - metabolism of triglycerides + aerobic energy
Increased myoglobin stores - more storage and transport of o2 to mitochondria
Increased triglyceride and glycogen store - aerobic entry and duration of performance increases
Increased FOG muscle fibres become aerobic - more fuel for aerobic energy production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

What are the metabolic adaptations to aerobic training?

A

Increased activity of aerobic enzymes - more metabolism of triglycerides and glycogen
Reduced fat mass - increased lean mass - metabolic rate causes breakdown of triglycerides
Greater insulin resistance - Improved glycogen tolerance
plus treatment/prevention of type 2 diabetes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Define strength endurance?

A

The ability to withstand a repeated muscle contractions over a period of time

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Define explosive/elastic strength?

A

The ability to produce a maximal amount of force in one or a series of rapid muscular contractions

154
Q

Define maximum strength?

A

The ability to produce the most amount of force in a single muscular contraction

155
Q

Define dynamic strength?

A

Strength characterised by a movement when a force applied against a resistance which changes the length of the muscle in an isotonic contraction

155
Q

Give an example of static strength?

A

Iron Cross in gymnastics

155
Q

Define static strength?

A

Force is applied against a resistance without and movement occuring in an isometric contraction

155
Q

Give an example of maximum strength?

A

Weight-Lifting clean and jerk

155
Q

Give an example of strength endurance?

A

2000m row

156
Q

Give an example of explosive/elastic strength?

A

Spike in volleyball

157
Q

Give an example of dynamic strength?

A

100m sprint

158
Q

What are the two factors affecting strength?

A

Fibre type
Cross-sectional area

159
Q

How does fibre type affect strength?

A

The greater the percentage if fast twitch fibres the greater the strength as they have larger motor neurons which form large motor units to produce a rapid high force contraction

160
Q

How does cross sectional area affect strength?

A

A maximum of 16-30 N of force per square centimetre of muscle cross-section

161
Q

What are the tests to evaluate strength?

A

Grip strength dynamometer
One Repetition Max
Abdominal conditioning test
Press up test
Vertical Jump Test

162
Q

Describe the hand grip dynamometer test?

A

The dynamometer is held directly above the head with a straight arm and is brought down as they squeeze the grip maximally
(Three attempts for dominant and non-dominant hand)

163
Q

What are the advantage of hand grip dynamometer?

A

Easy procedure
Simple and Objective measure
Inexpensive
Reliable

164
Q

What are the disadvantage of hand grip dynamometer?

A

Validity questioned = only test forearm strength
Not sport specific

165
Q

What type of strength does the hand grip dynamometer measure?

A

Maximum strength

166
Q

Describe the one rep max test?

A

Increase the weight of a chosen specific exercise (machine/free weight) until only one repetition can be achieved

167
Q

What type of strength does the one rep max measure?

A

Maximum strength

168
Q

What are the advantage of one rep max?

A

Easy testing procedure
Direct measurement
Most muscle groups can be tested
Weight training equipment easily accessible

169
Q

What are the disadvantage of one rep max?

A

Difficult to isolate individual muscles
Trial and error induces fatigue
Expensive equipment
Need assistance/spotter
Potential for injury

170
Q

Describe the abdominal conditioning test?

A

Subject performs continuous sit-ups at progressive intensities to exhaustion (timed to an audio cue)
When subject can’t perform two consecutive sit-ups in the aloted time or form deteriorates test finishes

171
Q

What type of strength does the abdominal conditioning test measure?

A

Strength endurance

172
Q

What are the advantages of the abdominal conditioning test?

A

Good for large groups
Simple/cheap
Abdominal muscles isolated
Valid/reliable

173
Q

What are the disadvantages of the abdominal conditioning test?

A

Correct technique difficult to monitor
Maximal test relies on motivation
Only tests endurance of abdominal muscles

174
Q

Describe the press-up test?

A

Perform continuous press-ups to exhaustion

175
Q

What are the advantages of the press-up test?

A

Good for large groups
Simple/cheap

176
Q

What are the disadvantages of the press-up test?

A

Correct technique is difficult to monitor
Maximal test relies on motivation

177
Q

What type of strength does the press-up test measure?

A

Strength endurance

178
Q

Describe the advantages vertical jump test?

A

Easy testing procedure
Recognised reliable test
Minimal equipment
Self administration possible

179
Q

Describe the disadvantages vertical jump test?

A

Measure not isolated to one muscle group
Only estimates explosive strength in legs
Indirect measure

180
Q

What type of strength does the vertical jump test measure?

A

Explosive/elastic

181
Q

What does strength training rely on?

A

Joints of the body exerting a force to overcome a resistance (overload)

182
Q

What is a super set?

A

A more advanced form of weight training involving exercising antagonistic pairs immediately after one another

183
Q

What types of equipment can be used for weight training?

A

Free weights
Fixed machines
Body weight
Resistance bands

184
Q

What is the definition of power?

A

The combination of strength and speed

185
Q

What is the basic principle of plyometric training?

A

Plyometrics works on the basis of producing an isotonic concentric muscle contraction followed immediately by an eccentric contraction of the same muscles, which increases the explosive strength of the muscle (concentric contraction)

186
Q

How does plyometrics lead to adaptations of the body?

A

The muscle becomes more effective at initiating the stretch reflex - the mechanism that protects the muscle from overstretching and injury.

187
Q

What is the stretch reflex?

A

A mechanism used to protect the muscle via a concentric contraction in response to an ‘overstretch’

188
Q

Describe plyometric training (rules)?

A

75-85% of 1 rep max (80%)
6 - 10 Reps
4 - 6 Sets
1:3 Work:Rest ratio
3-5 minute recovery between sets
Aim between 100-200 muscle contractions per session

189
Q

What intensity should you be working at when doing plyometrics?

A

75-85% of 1 rep max (80%)

190
Q

How many reps should you do when doing plyometric training?

A

6 - 10 Reps

191
Q

How many sets should you do when doing plyometric training?

A

4 - 6 Sets

192
Q

What should the work:rest ratio be for plyometric training?

A

1:3
Work:Rest

193
Q

How long a rest should you have in between plyometric sets ?

A

3-5 minutes

194
Q

How many contraction should you aim for during a plyometric session?

A

Aim between 100-200 muscle contractions per session

195
Q

What are the advantages of plyometric training?

A

Advantages
Can be done with minimal equipment
Increase speed and strength (power) for shooting, defending, counter-attacks, corners and headering

196
Q

What are the disadvantages of plyometric training?

A

Disadvantages
Not good type of training for injured performers with low fitness levels
Requires the correct technique
Minimum 48 hours recovery
High risk form of training injuries

197
Q

What type of strength does plyometrics develop?

A

Explosive/elastic strength

198
Q

What are the two types of strength training?

A

Plyometrics
Circuit/Interval

199
Q

Describe circuit training?

A

This form of training utilises bodyweight exercises for high reps, with moderate recovery periods, to improve strength endurance of muscles.

200
Q

What are the training session rules for circuit/HIIT training?

A

50% of 1 Rep Max
15 - 20 Reps
5 Sets
1:2 Work:Rest Ratio
30 - 60 second recovery between sets

201
Q

What intensity should you be working at during circuit/HIIT training?

A

50% 1 Rep Max

202
Q

How many reps should you be completing as part of circuit/HIIT training?

A

15 - 20 reps

203
Q

How many sets should you be completing as part of circuit/HIIT training?

A

5 sets

204
Q

What is the work:rest ratio you should utilise for circuit/HIIT training?

A

1:2 Work:Rest

205
Q

How long should your recovery be between sets as part of circuit/HIIT training?

A

30 - 60 seconds

206
Q

What are the advantages of circuit/HIIT training?

A

Ideal format of training for large numbers
Ideal for sport specific training, as exercises can be incorporated in the circuit
Increases strength endurance to last the full 90 minute football game

207
Q

What are the disadvantages of circuit/HIIT training?

A

May require a lot of equipment
Fatigue can lead to poor technique and injury

208
Q

What are the muscle and connective tissue adaptations of strength training?

A

Muscular hypertrophy and hyperplasia - greater force of contraction
Increased number and size of contractile protein + myofibrils
Increased strength of ligaments and tendons - improves joint stability (reduce risk of injury)
Increased bone density and mass - reduced risk of osteoporosis

209
Q

What are the neural adaptations of strength training?

A

increased recruitment of motor units + fast twitch fibres improves coordination due to simultaneous stimulation of motor units
decreased inhibition of stretch reflex

210
Q

What are the metabolic adaptations of strength training?

A

increased ATP/PC + glycogen stores energy production is greater for speed and power
increased enzyme activity - reduce onset of fatigue by improved anaerobic efficiency
Improved buffering capacity delay OBLA and increased muscle mass (greater metabolic rate)

211
Q

What are the two types of flexibility?

A

Static
Dynamic

212
Q

What is static flexibility?

A

It is the maximum extent of a muscle and connective tissue to HOLD a stretch

Range of motion about a joint without reference to speed

213
Q

What is dynamic flexibility ?

A

The range of motion about a joint with reference to speed of movement

214
Q

What are the 4 factors affecting flexibility?

A

Type of joint
Length of connective tissue
Age gender

215
Q

How does the type of joint affect flexibility?

A

Ball and socket joints have a greater range of motion than hinge joints

216
Q

How does length of connective tissue affect flexibility?

A

Greater length and elasticity of muscles, tendons and ligaments provides a greater range of motion

217
Q

How does gender affect flexibility?

A

Females tend to be more flexible than males

218
Q

How does age affect flexibility?

A

Flexibility is greatest in childhood and declines with age

219
Q

What are the two methods of evaluating flexibility?

A

Sit and Reach
Goniometrey

220
Q

Describe the situation and reach test?

A

Sit and reach box is placed against the wall and participant removes their shoes
Sit with straight legs and flat feet against the box before reaching as far forward as possible (hold for 3 seconds)

221
Q

What are the advantages of the sit and reach test?

A

Easy to administer
Cheap and accesible equipment
Standardised data for comparison

222
Q

What are the disadvantages of the sit and reach test?

A

Only measures flexibility of lower back and hamstrings
Not joint/movement specific
Participants must be warmed up
H

223
Q

Describe the goniometry test?

A

A 360 degree protractor with two extending arms can be used to measure a range of motion at an joint in any plane

224
Q

What are the advantages of a goniometry test?

A

Objective, valid and accurate measure
Any joint and any plane of movement can be measured (sport specific)

225
Q

What are the disadvantages of the goniometry test?

A

Difficult to locate the axis of rotation
To get an accurate measure training is required

226
Q

What are the two types of flexibility training?

A

Maintenance stretching
Development stretching

227
Q

What is maintenance stretching?

A

Usually performed as part of a warm up to maintain the current range of motion and prepare for the bouts of exercise to come

228
Q

What is development stretching?

A

Stretching sessions designed to improve the range of motion about a joint

229
Q

What is static stretching?

A

Involves lengthening a muscle and connective tissue just beyond the point of resistance and holding for 10-30 seconds.
The stretch reflex subsides after 5-6 seconds and connective tissues are lengthens
Each stretch is repeated 3-6 times and often built into a cool down

230
Q

What are the two types of static stretching?

A

Active
Passive

231
Q

What is active (static) stretching?

A

Performers move their own joints into a stretched position without any external force if assistance
- Contract the agonist the stretch the antagonist

232
Q

What is passive (static) stretching?

A

Performer moves the joint into its stretched position with assistance from a partner or piece of apparatus

233
Q

What are the positives of static stretching?

A

Safest/simplest method of stretching
Effervescent in increasing range if movement
Aids muscle relaxation at the end of training - in a cool down

234
Q

What are the negatives of static stretching?

A

Slow method of increasing ROM
Fails to prepare for dynamic movements
Possibly decreases subsequent speed and power work

235
Q

What is isometric stretching?

A

Performing a static stretch (active or passive) before isometrically contracting the muscle for 7-20 seconds.
Overcomes stretch reflex and creates greater stretching of fibres

236
Q

What does PNF stand for?

A

Proprioceptive Neuromuscular Facilitation

237
Q

What is the process of PNF?

A

Static - with assistance from partner, a limb is moved just past the point of resistance and held for 6-10s
Contract - the agonist muscle isometrically (against a resistance from partner) for 6-10s
Relax - The muscle relaxes and the limb can be moved further past the stretched position

238
Q

How does PNF work?

A
  • The muscle spindles detect when a muscle is stretched and initiate the stretch reflex as a safety mechanism to prevent injury by overstretching
  • This forces the performer to try to contract the muscle to prevent it stretching further
  • By performing an isometric contraction the Golgi tendon is initiated - temporarily overrides the stretch reflex allowing the muscle to stretch further
  • This is repeated over a prolonged period of time the muscle spindles adapt to delay the onset of stretch reflex
239
Q

What is the purpose of the Golgi tendon during PNF stretching?

A

Temporarily overrides the stretch reflex during an isometric contraction

240
Q

What are the positives of PNF?

A

Quicker flexibility gains than static
Aids muscle relaxation
Part of a cool down

241
Q

What are the negatives of PNF?

A

Mostly requires assistance/partner
More complex/time consuming technique
Greater discomfort and risk compared to static
Limit stretch to 20 seconds to minimise loss of power and speed

242
Q

What is dynamic stretching?

A

Taking a joint through its range of motion whilst controlling the entry and exit
Performed 8-12 times as part of a warm up

243
Q

Who is dynamic stretching most suitable for?

A

Athletes who are flexible
Pre-exercise and during warm-up

244
Q

What are the positives of dynamic stretching?

A

Less risk of injury due to control
Can be performed actively or passively
Improves subsequent speed/power
Better improves dynamic flexibility

245
Q

What are the negatives or dynamic stretching?

A

Doesn’t aid muscle relaxation after training

246
Q

What is ballistic stretching?

A

Includes explosive swinging and bouncing movements using momentum to force the joint through its extreme range of motion

247
Q

What are the positives of ballistic stretching?

A

Improves subsequent speed/power
Better suited to more dynamic activities

248
Q

What are the negatives of ballistic stretching?

A

Limited increase in muscle length
Greater risk of injury
Doesn’t allow for sufficient time for tissues to adapt to stretch

249
Q

What are the muscular and connective tissue adaptations of flexibility training?

A

Increase resting length - increases Roam and muscle spindle adapt increase length to reduce stretch reflex
Increased elasticity - increased static and dynamic potential
Improves posture and alignment

250
Q

What is periodisation?

A

The organised division of training into blocks, each with a goal and time frame

251
Q

What are the three types of cycles involved in periodisation?

A

Macro-cycle
Meso-cycle
Micro-cycle

252
Q

What is a macro-cycle?

A

A long term plan typically over one year to achieve a long term goal such as reaching a final of a competition

253
Q

What is a meso-cycle?

A

A mid term plan usually over 4-16weeks and aims to improve an aspect of fitness

254
Q

What is a micro-cycle?

A

A short term plan typically over 1-3 weeks with a target of improving an aspect of a skill (eg. Improve penalty taking technique)

255
Q

What three phases is a meso-cycle broken down into?

A

Preparatory phase
Competitive phase
Transition phase

256
Q

What is the aim of periodisation?

A

Reaching physiological peak at the correct time
Avoiding injury/burnout
Setting realistic and achievable goals

257
Q

What does the preparatory phase involve?

A
  • General conditioning (focus on aerobic training and strength/conditioning)
  • Increasing intensity and sport specific fitness by overloading
258
Q

What does the competitive phase involve?

A
  • Training load and frequency reduce and some rest days added to focus on game play and tactics
  • Tapering training load is reduced by decreasing the volume by 1/3 whilst intensity remains the same
259
Q

Define the term ‘tapering’?

A

Reducing training load by decreasing its volume by 1/3 whilst intensity remains the same

260
Q

What does the transition phase involve?

A
  • Active rest and recuperation + treatment for injuries
  • Low intensity aerobic work as pre-season starts
261
Q

What are the 4 lifestyle cardiovascular disease?

A

Atherosclerosis
Coronary heart disease
Myocardial infarction
Stroke

262
Q

What is atherosclerosis?

A

Build up of fatty deposits on arterial walls which develop into hard plaque
It narrows the lumen and reduces space for blood to flow and increases risk of blood clot
Vasoconstriction and dilation is less efficient due to harder arterial walls (hypertension)

263
Q

What is coronary heart disease?

A

Atherosclerosis of the coronary arteries which supply the heart with oxygenated blood
- reduces blood flow to the heart, a partial blockage of the coronary arteries is called angina which causes chet pain

264
Q

What is angina?

A

A partial blockage of the coronary arteries which causes severe chest pain and warning a sign of a myocardial infarction

265
Q

What is a heart attack (myocardial infarction - MI)?

A

A sudden, severe or complete blockage of the coronary arteries caused by a blood clot or piece of fatty plaque breaking off arterial wall
- It cuts off the oxygen supple to the heart which causes chest pain and leads to permanent damage to cardiac cells/death

266
Q

What are the two types of stroke?

A

Ischaemic
Haemorrhagic

267
Q

What is an Ischaemic stroke?

A

A blockage of the cerebral artery by a blood clot which cuts of blood and oxygen supply to the brain

268
Q

What’s a Haemorrhagic stroke?

A

A burst blood vessel within the brain which also reduces blood and oxygen supply
- cause permanent damage of brain cells, Disability or death

269
Q

What are risk factors for developing cardiovascular disease?

A

Poor diet - high in LDL cholesterol
Smoking
Family history
Alcohol

270
Q

How does regular exercise reduce the likelihood of cardiovascular disease?

A

Decreased LDL due to increase in HDL which prevents atherosclerosis by breaking down fat deposits
Cardiac hypertrophy - increased pumping capacity, SV, CO so artery walls vasodilate and constrict
Decreased blood viscosity- thinner blood prevents blood clots (heart attacks and strokes)
Reduced resting blood pressure - prevents blood clots and hypertension
Decreased body fat - reduce strain on heart

271
Q

What are two common lifestyle respiratory diseases?

A

Asthma
Chronic Obstructive Pulmonary Disease (COPD)

272
Q

What is asthma?

A

A restriction of the airway caused by bronchial constriction, inflammation, mucus production and dry airways

273
Q

What are the symptoms of asthma?

A

Shortness of breath, coughing, wheezing

274
Q

What are some factors which trigger asthma?

A

Exercise, pollen, dust, fumes, cold weather

275
Q

What are some ways used to alleviate the symptoms of asthma?

A

Warm ups
Inspiratoria muscle training
Inhalers

276
Q

What are some diseases which come under COPD?

A

Chronic bronchitis
Emphysema

277
Q

What is COPD?

A

Where airways become inflamed and narrow
- overtime inflammation leads to permanent changes such as thicker bronchiole walls, increased mucus production, alveoli damage and reduced lung tissue elasticity

278
Q

What are the symptoms of COPD?

A

Persistent coughing
Breathing difficulties
Regular chest infections
Reduced lung capacity

279
Q

How can exercise reduce the risk/alleviate symptoms of respiratory diseases?

A

Increased strength of respiratory muscles - decreases error + alleviate asthma symptoms
Reduced resting + sub max breathing frequency - reducing onset of fatigue
Inspiratory muscle training - increases airflow and alleviate breathlessness (I QoL)
Maintain full use of Lung tissue and elasticity decreasing risk of infections associated with COPD
Increased surface area of alveoli and pulmonary capillaries to maintain efficient gas exchange and health of respiratory membranes (reduce risk of chest infection)

280
Q

What are the different types of injuries?

A

Acute
Chronic
Hard tissue
Soft tissue

281
Q

What is an acute injury ?

A

Injuries from sudden stress/traumatic event (develop quickly) and are caused by a knock, impact, collision, trauma or fall

282
Q

What is a chronic injury?

A

Injury develops slowly and over a long period of time due to repeated/continual strain/stress, incorrect technique, sudden increase in training and overuse

283
Q

What are hard tissue injuries?

A

Refer to bone, joint and cartilage

284
Q

What are soft tissue injuries?

A

Refer to muscles, tendons and ligaments

285
Q

What is a fracture?

A

Involves a partial/complete break in the bone

286
Q

Describe both types of fractures?

A

Simple (closed) - the skin remains unbroken
Complex (open) - the bone breaks through the skin

287
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a fracture?

A

Deformity, swelling and discolouration
Pain and inability to move injured area

288
Q

What is a dislocation?

A

Occurs from a direct force (collision/object) or an indirect force (fall) pushing the joint past its extreme range of motion

289
Q

What is a subluxation?

A

An incomplete/partial dislocation often causes damage to ligaments and increases the likelihood of recurrent dislocation

290
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a dislocation?

A

Deformity and swelling
Feel a ‘pop’ , severe pain and loss of movement

291
Q

What is a contusion?

A

Aka. Bruise
An area of skin or tissue where the blood vessels have become damages

292
Q

What is a Haematoma?

A

It is internal deep tissue bleeding due to ruptured blood vessels

293
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a contusion/haemotoma?

A

Swelling and discolouration at site of injury
Pain at touch

294
Q

What is a sprain?

A

Caused by a sudden twist, impact or fall that forced the joint beyond its extreme range of motion causing ligament (bone to bone) to overstretch or tear

295
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of a sprain?

A

Swelling and bruising
Pain and inability to weight bear

296
Q

What is a strain?

A

Commonly caused by dynamic lunging movements and result in overstretching or tear in muscle or tendon (bone to muscle)

297
Q

What is a rupture?

A

A complete tear if the muscle, tendon or ligament

298
Q

What is an abrasion?

A

Superficial damage to the skin caused by scraping action against a surface
- can cause open wounds which require cleaning and stitching

299
Q

What are blisters?

A

Occur due to friction on the skin causing separation of skin layers where a pocket of fluid forms

300
Q

What are the main causes of chronic injuries.

A

Sudden increase in intensity/frequency
Poor technique
Reduced recovery
Inadequate flexibility
Inadequate warm up/cool down

301
Q

What is a stress fracture ?

A

A tiny crack in the surface of a bone caused by repetitive stress or force (overuse)

302
Q

What is MTSS/Shin splints caused by?

A

Excessive use (overuse) or tendons connecting the Tibialas anterior /posterior to the tibia

303
Q

What causes the pain of shin splints?

A

The tendons of the muscle and the posterium (surface) of the tibia become inflamed

304
Q

What injury is common for footballers and long distance runner?

A

Shin splints
Stress fractures - repetitive trauma from foot hitting hard ground

305
Q

What are some causes of shin splints (MTSS)?

A

Being overweight, wearing inadequate foot wear, poor leg biomechanics

306
Q

What is tendinosis?

A

Deterioration of a tendon in response to chronic overuse and repetitive strain

307
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of tendinosis?

A

Limited movement and stiffness
Aching/burning sensation

308
Q

What is a concussion?

A

A traumatic brain injury resulting in a disturbance of brain function

309
Q

What are the signs and symptoms of concussion?

A

Lying motionless, post- traumatic seizure, disorientation, confusion, vomiting, visual problems and light sensitivity
Headaches, dizziness, nausea and loss of consciousness

310
Q

What are some practical examples of acute soft tissue injuries?

A

Lauren Hemp - abrasion and concussion
Francis Ngannou - Concussion (by Anthony Joshua punch)
Sam Kerr - Torn ACL playing football

311
Q

What are some practical examples of actúe hard tissue injuries?

A

Le Roux Malan- Ankle fracture and dislocation (lost footing during rugby tackle)
Kim Mickle x Dislocated shoulder in javelin
Samir Ait Said - Fractured Leg in gymnastics vault

312
Q

What’s a practical example of a chronic soft tissue injury?

A

Michael Jordan - tendinitis due to overuse
Chronic hard - stress fracture and shin splints

313
Q

What are intrinsic risk factors of injury?

A

Strength imbalances
Physical make-up
Inadequate range of motion in joints
Inadequate nutrition
Poor posture and alignment
Lack of recovery time
Age, gender and poor fitness

314
Q

What are extrinsic risk factors for injury?

A

Incorrect clothing and equipment
Technique
Surfaces
Poor preparation (warm up and cool down)
Previous injury
Inappropriate duration, intensity, frequency ( rapid overload)
Overuse and inadequate training variance

315
Q

How long should a warm up last?

A

20 - 45 mins
Gradually increasing intensity

316
Q

What should warm ups include?

A

Pulse raiser
Stretching and mobility
Sport specific drills

317
Q

Why should dynamic flexibility be incorporated in a warm up?

A

It prepares athletes for sudden dynamic loads, changes or direction and rapid acceleration/deceleration
But static limits speed/power

318
Q

What is a cool down?

A

A process of active recovery performed to maintain heart rate, blood flow and metabolic activity which aids removal of waste products
Last 20 - 30 mins

319
Q

What should a cool down include?

A

Moderate intensity around 50% VO2 max
Stretching exercises to reduce muscle tension and increase muscle relaxation

320
Q

What is the purpose of an effective cool down?

A

Speed up removal or lactic acid and blood pooling
Active cool down is more efficient than passive recovery from high intensity exercise

321
Q

What is the purpose of SALTAPS?

A

To identify an injury

322
Q

What does SALTAPS stand for?

A

See
Ask
Look
Touch
Active movement
Passive movement
Strength

323
Q

What does S in SALTAPS stand for?

A

Acknowledge that an injury has occurred and ensure no further damage by stopping the game

324
Q

What does A in SALTAPS stand for?

A

Ask- questions about the location and nature of persons injury

325
Q

What does L in SALTAPS stand for?

A

Look - for signs of injury based on answers received (bruising, swelling, etc)

326
Q

What does T in SALTAPS stand for?

A

Touch - palpate the injury to assess the level of pain and regions of inflammation

327
Q

What does the second A in SALTAPS stand for?

A

Active movement - can injured player move area unaided

328
Q

What does P in SALTAPS stand for?

A

Passive movement - can it be moved through its full range of motion

329
Q

What does the last S in SALTAPS stand for?

A

Strength - assess strength with resistance from assessor/weight bear

330
Q

What is the purpose of PRICE?

A

Treat soft tissue injuries

331
Q

What does PRICE stand for?

A

Protect
Rest
Ice
Compression
Elevation

332
Q

What does the P stand for in PRICE?

A

Protect by removing player form field and providing splint, crutches/sling

333
Q

What does the R stand for in PRICE

A

Rest - area fro 2-3 days to allow initial healing process (don’t want to complicate injury)

334
Q

What does the I stand for in PRICE

A

Ice the injury for 10 minutes every hour to reduce the swelling

335
Q

What does the C stand for in PRICE

A

Compression - use bandage or stretch tape to reduce swelling at sight of injury

336
Q

What does the E stand for in PRICE

A

Elevation - raise injury above the heart to prevent any further swelling

337
Q

What are the 6R’s used for?

A

Assess a concussion

338
Q

What do the 6R’s stand for?

A

Recognise
Remove
Refer
Rest
Recover
Return

339
Q

What does RECOGNISE mean?

A

Parents, players and coaches should be aware or the signs/symptoms
The nature and severity can be determined by simple visual tests

340
Q

What does REMOVE mean?

A

If player had a suspected concussion they must be removed from field of play immediately

341
Q

What does REFER mean?

A

The injured player must be immediately referred to a qualified health professional if they have been removed from the field

342
Q

What does REST mean?

A

Players must rest from exercise until, symptom free (as advised by medical pros)

343
Q

What does RECOVER mean?

A

Player must be fully recovered and symptom free before considering return
Adults = min 1 week
U18’s = 2 weeks

344
Q

What does RETURN mean?

A

Player must be symptom free, have written authorisation and complete the ‘graduated return to play’ protocol

345
Q

What is rehabilitation?

A

the process of restoring full physical function after an injury has occured

346
Q

What are the 3 stages of rehabilitation?

A

Early
Mid
Late

347
Q

What’s the early stage of rehabilitation?

A

Gentle exercise encouraging damaged tissue to heal

348
Q

What’s the mid stage of rehabilitation?

A

Progressive loading of connective tissue and bone to develop strength

349
Q

What’s the late stage of rehabilitation?

A

Functional exercises and drills to ensure the body is ready to return to training

350
Q

What’s the first stage of a stretching rehabilitation program?

A

Acute phase (0-3 days): no stretching, PRICE and rest should be the focus to avoid damaging the tissue even more

351
Q

What’s the second stage of a stretching rehabilitation program?

A

Mid phase (up to 2 weeks): inflammation, bleeding and swelling should’ve subsided. heat therapy, gentle static and passive stretching. connective tissues will be slightly stretched to increase tension and allow tissues to lengthen.

352
Q

What’s the third stage of a stretching rehabilitation program?

A

Later phase (another 2 weeks): PNF stretches are added to the continued static and passive stretches to retrain and desensitise the stretch reflex, increase range of motion, decrease pain and strengthen connective tissues.

353
Q

What’s the fourth stage of a stretching rehabilitation program?

A

Long term: increase range of motion and strength of connective tissues to a greater degree than when the injury occurred. active and dynamic stretching should be used.

354
Q

What is massage therapy?

A

A physical therapy used for injury prevention and soft tissue injury treatment

355
Q

What’s the use of a sports massage?

A

encourage healing by moving fluid and nutrients through damaged tissue, stretch tissues which releases tension and pressure and improves elasticity, breaks down scar tissues to prevent injury and pain, reduce pain and generate heat and provides circulation and relaxation

356
Q

What is cold therapy?

A

applying ice or cold to an injury or after exercise for a therapeutic effect, such as reduced swelling

357
Q

What are the benefits of cold therapy?

A

Vasoconstricts blood vessels, decreasing blood flow, inflammation, swelling and pain.

358
Q

What is heat therapy?

A

applying heat to an area before training for a therapeutic effect, such as increased blood flow

359
Q

What is contrast therapy?

A

the use of alternate cold and heat for a therapeutic effect, such as increased blood flow

360
Q

What is the use of heat therapy?

A

For chronic injuries and late-stage acute injuries

361
Q

What are the benefits of heat therapy?

A

Vasodilation of blood vessels increasing blood flow, decreasing muscle tension, stiffness and pain

362
Q

What are the benefits of contrast therapy?

A

Large increases in blood flow and nutrient delivery to damaged tissue. Decreased swelling and pain.
Increased speeds of recovery

363
Q

What are the risks of cold therapy?

A

Contact for too long can cause tissue and nerve damage. Direct contract with ice can cause skin abrasions/ice burns

364
Q

What are the risks of heat therapy?

A

Increased swelling and pain after acute injury

365
Q

What are the risks of contrast therapy?

A

Limited benefit over and above cold therapy
Not suitable for fractures and those with Raynauds

366
Q

What is contrast therapy used for?

A

acute injuries after bleeding and inflammation have stopped and to relieve symptoms of exercise-induced muscle damage

367
Q

What are NSAIDS?

A

medication taken to reduce inflammation, temperature and pain following injury

368
Q

What is an example of NSAIDS?

A

Ibuprofen
Aspirin

369
Q

How do NSAIDS work?

A

chemicals released by damaged cells cause vasodilation and increase blood and cellular fluid, causing swelling and redness and activates pain receptors.

Reduces the inflammatory response by inhibiting the chemical release, interfering with pain signals and reducing temperature

370
Q

What are the disadvantages of NSAIDS?

A

Heartburn, nausea, headaches, diarrhoea, gastrointestinal bleeding, shock anaemia, stoke and heart attack
Mask pain and complicate injuries

371
Q

What are the benefits of NSAIDS?

A

Reduces pain, swelling and temperature and inhibits inflammation

372
Q

What is physiotherapy?

A

mobilisation and manipulation of joints and tissues, electrotherapy to repair and stimulate tissues, exercise therapy to strengthen muscles, massage to stretch and relax tissues increasing circulation, sport specific programmes, posture and alignment training.

373
Q

What are the three stages of physiotherapy?

A
  1. Pain relief, minimise swelling, ice therapy and support for injured body part
  2. tailored exercises to maintain muscle strength
  3. restore normal range of motion, muscle length, connective tissue mobility and reducing tension of the muscles around the injury.
374
Q

What is surgery?

A

A last resort method when all other rehab has been attempted or for fast recovery of athletes

375
Q

What is open surgery?

A

Incision is made to open a joint to access the injury

376
Q

What can surgery be used for?

A

Realign bones after fractures and dislocations
Stabilise using pins, wires, plates

377
Q

What is arthroscopy?

A

Keyhole surgery to aces the injury (small incisions) using a camera as it is less invasice

378
Q

How is surgery used to treat acute hard tissue injuries?

A

Knee meniscus repair, trim, repair or resurface meniscus cartilage
Shoulder labrum - repair bankart lesion/damaged cartilage in shoulder to treat repeated dislocation

A Level PE (9 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions