Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

FCOM2 > Exam Questions > Flashcards

Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Illumination of amber AUTO SLAT FAIL light that can be reset, during recall indicates:

A

Failure of a single stall management yaw damper (SMYD) computer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

The hydraulic brake pressure indicator displays accumulator nitrogen pre-charge pressure of 1000 psi and:

A

Brake pressure from hydraulic system B if it is greater than 1000 psi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

On which CDU page is the ground speed displayed?

A

POS REF page 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

One of the purposes of the FMC FIX INFO page is to:

A

Create a new waypoint at the intersection of the active route with a radial or distance from a known fix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Once activated, the APU DC operated fuel pump operates automatically until:

A

An AC fuel pump pressurises the manifold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Electrical power to start the APU comes from:

A

The No 1 transfer bus if available if AC power is not available, battery power is used

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:

A

The temperature mix valves to drive full cold

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

Cruising at FL370. The motorised Overboard Exhaust valve will open in flight if:

A

Either pack switches are in HIGH and recirculation fan is OFF

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

If ON DC on left IRS mode selector unit comes ON steady it means:

A

The related IRS is operating on DC power from the switched hot battery bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

ZONE TEMP amber light illumination for CONT CAB with master caution indicates:

A

? A duct temperature overheat

? Failure of both flight deck primary and standby temperature controller

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

The APU starter cycle may take up to:

A

120 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

In addition to hydraulic system A and B, the rudder can also be powered by the standby hydraulic system through the

A

Standby Rudder PCU

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

If the thrust lever(s) are advanced after touchdown:

A

After 3 seconds in the advanced position the AUTO BRAKE DISARM light will illuminate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

The red landing gear indication lights are illuminated under which of the following conditions?

A

? Landing gear is in disagreement with LANDING GEAR lever position
X Landing gear is not down and locked (with either or both thrust levers retarded to idle, and below 800 feet AGL)

Both

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

The landing gear configuration warning horn will activate anytime a gear is not down and locked:

A

With flaps set to 15, one thrust lever at idle and the other at low power setting (below 34 degrees)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

L NAV will automatically disengage:

A

Reaching a route discontinuity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

Cargo compartment smoke detection is powered from:

A

DC bus 1 and DC bus 2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

An amber IAS DISAGREE alert in the bottom of the speed tape indicates:

A

The Captains and First Officers airspeeds disagree by more than 5 KTS for more than 5 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The FMC alerting message RESET MCP ALT means:

A

Aircraft within 5 NM of the FMC calculated Top of Descent (TOD) point without selecting lower altitude on the MCP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

What is the source of electrical power for the engine fuel shutoff valves?

A

The Battery Bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

How are the Engine Bleed Air valves powered?

A

They are DC activated and pneumatically operated

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

Following an unpressurised takeoff, when is the first engine Bleed Switch positioned to ON?

A

At not less than 400 feet, and prior to 2000 feet above field elevation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

On the Audio Control Panel (ACP) the Cabin Call lights comes ON. It will illuminate until:

A

Remains illuminated for 40 seconds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The AC Standby Bus is powered by:

A

The AC Transfer Bus No 1 under normal conditions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The Autoslat system:

A

Drives the slats to FULL EXTEND when TE Flaps 1 through 5 are selected and the aircraft approached a stall

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

The Predictive Windshear alerts are available:

A

Automatically below 1200 feet RA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Illumination of the PSEU fault light on the aft overhead panel will indicate:

A

An overwing exit flight lock fails to disengage on the ground

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

The ND Wind direction/speed and wind arrow is:

A

Displayed if wind speed is greater than 6 knots

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

The right IRS is electrically powered from:

A

Normally AC Transfer Bus 2 and in an emergency from switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

The left IRS is electrically powered from:

A

Normally AC Standby bus b in emergency from switched hot battery bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The supplemental and temporary data bases has storage capacity for:

A

40 navaids and 6 airports

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Do not attempt to make a turn away from an obstacle within:

A

nose 7.4, wing 5.4

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

In MANUAL pressurisation mode the outflow valve is driven by?

A

A motor supplied from DC standby bus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

DFDR records for how long, when does it work

A

25h, operates whenever it has power and either engine is operating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

After lift-off, the A/T remains in THR HLD until:

A

800’

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

The APU can supply both transfer busses:

A

on the ground or in the air

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

The right IRS is electrically powered from:

A

normally AC Transfer Bus 2 - in emergency from switched hot battery bus for a maximum of 5 minutes

38
Q

What happens to the digital readout of the radio alt when descending below minimums?

A

The dial and pointer of the radio altimeter flash amber for 3 seconds

39
Q

Following an unpressurised takeoff, when is the first engine Bleed Switch positioned to ON

A

At not less than 400 feet, and prior to 2000 feet above field elevation

40
Q

When does the RAD ALT display a digital readout?

A

Between 2500ft AGL and 1000ft AGL

41
Q

While making a no engine bleed air take off and an engine failure occurs, when should the bleed air switches be positioned to ON?

A

Reaching 1500 feet AGL or until obstacle clearance height is reached

42
Q

When is the exhaust valve open:
A: On the ground
B: In the air

A

Open with low differential pressures.
Normally closed, and sent to the FWD cargohold in flight
Open if either pack is in high, and the right recirc fan is off

43
Q

Spar and engine shutoff valves are controlled by which power-sources?

A

Spar from the hot battery bus.

Engine from the battery bus

44
Q

In flight L and R recirculation fans will, when:

a. one pack is high
b. two packs are high

A

a. left turns off

b. both turn off

45
Q

On the ground, recirculation fans will when:

a. one pack is high
b. both packs are high

A

a. both will operate

b. left will turn off

46
Q

What is the minimum pavement width for a 180 degree turn?

A

24,1m

47
Q

Wingtip height above the ground is

A

6.4m

48
Q

Do not try to turn away from an obstacle within

a. x meters of wing tip
b. x meters of nose

A

a. 5.4m

b. 7.4m

49
Q

Elevator feel system is provided by the elevator feel computer. This computer receives inputs of:

A

Airspeed and stabiliser position

50
Q

After a normal take-off, what pitch command can you expect from the F/D?

A

V2 + 15

51
Q

As you push the TO/GA switch for an automatic go around, what is the correct FMA announciation? (Thrust : Roll : Pitch)

A

GA : : TO/GA

52
Q

During battery start, when does the EEC start to operate?

A

15%

53
Q

Does the door need to be open, when operating the airstairs from:

a. inside
b. outside

A

a. yes

b. no

54
Q

The wing-span of the 737-800 is:

A

35.79m

55
Q

Which is the correct mode on the FMA? Condition: After takeoff, A/P engaged, before flaps up. (Thrust: Roll: Pitch)

A

N1 : LNAV : MCP SPD

56
Q

You get TCAS alerts within how many seconds from closest approach for

a. TA
b. RA

A

a. 40 seconds

b. 25 seconds

57
Q

Two independent radio altimeters provide radio altitude to the respective FCC’s. With one radio altimeter inoperative:

A

the autopilot will disconnect two seconds after LOC and GS capture

58
Q

After flare is armed, with a loss off an RA, what will happen

A

The AP will hand you back the airplane during the flare

59
Q

In flight, the Predictive Windshear Warning:

A

will activate for windshear up to 1.5nm ahead of the aircraft

60
Q

In what mode will the TCAS automatically show if a TA/RA occurs and the TFC switches are selected OFF?

A

MAP, CTR MAP, VOR, APP

61
Q

Switching the CAB/UTIL switch OFF removes all 115v AC from the galley busses and:

A

left and right recirculation fans

62
Q

If all TEMPERATURE ZONE SELECTORS (knobs, not switch) are positioned to OFF with both packs operating:

A

the left pack maintains 24 degrees, the right 18 degrees

63
Q

during single pack operation, with trim air on, how is zone temp controlled?

A

same is with dual pack operation

64
Q

During one pack operation with trim air off, how is the system operated

A

Attempts to produce air for average of all 3 zones

65
Q

If CONT CAB temp controller fails (both) what temperature will be provided to the flight deck

A

The packs will go in independent operation, and the flight deck will get air temperature selected from left pack

66
Q

Which of these is indicated by the hydraulic Brake Pressure Indicator?

A

Maximum pressure 3500psi in white

67
Q

The hydraulic brake pressure indicator displays accumulator nitrogen pre-charge pressure of 1000 psi and:

A

Brake pressure from hydraulic system B if it is greater than 1000 psi

68
Q

Prior to returning to the oil tank engine oil passes through:

A

the scavenge filter and main engine oil cooler

69
Q

The FMC Alerting Message INSUFFICIENT FUEL means

A

ou will have less than 900kg (2000lbs) of fuel at the destination

70
Q

During descent, the pressurization descent mode is activated when:

A

Aircraft descends 0.25 psi below the selected FLT ALT

71
Q

The EMERGENCY EXIT LIGHTS Switch in the ARMED position:

A

Illuminates all interior and exterior emergency lights if there is a loss of electrical power on DC bus No 1, or AC power has been turned off

72
Q

A DUCT OVERHEAT light only will cause:

A

The temperature mix valves to drive full cold

73
Q

When using halon fire extinguishing in the flight deck:

A

Both crew must don oxygen masks and set EMER

74
Q

Minimum in-flight tank fuel temperature is:

A

3 degrees above the fuel freezing point or -43 degrees, whichever is higher

75
Q

Manual IRS entries of present position or magnetic heading are normally accomplished on the

A

POS INIT page or the ISDU

76
Q

Engine Fuel Flow is measured:

A

after passing through the engine fuel shutoff valve

77
Q

In AUTO, the FASTEN BELTS and RETURN TO SEAT signs:

A

illuminate when flap or gear are extended

78
Q

TCAS TA Only mode is enabled automatically:

A

elow 1000ft RA when TA/RA mode is selected

79
Q

Where are the bleed

trip sensors installed?

A

Sensors are positioned
on both sides of the
engine bleed air valve.

80
Q

At or below 28,000 feet the
pressurization controller
maintains a pressure
differential of:

A

7.45

81
Q

At or above 37,000 feet the
pressurization controller
maintains a pressure
differential of:

A

8.35

82
Q

Between 28,000 feet and 37,000 feet the
pressurization controller
maintains a pressure
differential of:

A

7.8

83
Q

When do the ram air
inlet doors move to the
full open position?

A

On the ground or
during slow flight with
flap not fully retracted

84
Q 
With pack switches set
to AUTO, if one pack
fails, when does the
remaining pack provide
high air flow:
A

only when the aircraft

is in flight, flaps up

85
Q

Which actions will extinguish the ENG FAIL alert over the EGT indication

A
  1. Engine recovers
  2. engine start lever is moved to CUTOFF
  3. engine fire warning switch is pulled
86
Q

The fuel quantity
displayed on the FMC
PROGRESS page is:

A

total fuel onboard, as
obtained from the fuel
quantity indication
system

87
Q

A Fuel CONFIG alert is

extinguishes if:

A

Centre tank quantity

les than 363kg

88
Q

Amber Fuel IMBAL alert
will remain displayed
until the imbalance is
reduced to:

A

91kg

89
Q

What airspeed must be
considered with a wheel
well fire situation?

A

Extend limit speed of

270k/.82M maximum

90
Q 
When the RHS pilot
omits to set the minima
on the baro, but the
LHS pilot sets the
minima correctly:-
A 
there will be a GPWS
'minimums' callout since
the callouts are based
on the captains
minimums selector
91
Q

When can you expect
the EGPWS ‘five
hundred’ call?

A

When descending
through 500ft RA
outside 2 dots of the
LLZ

FCOM2 (20 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions