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Year One Comprehensive Material > Exam Questions > Flashcards

Exam Questions Flashcards

1
Q

Which joint mobilizations are used for stretching or increasing ROM?

A

Grades III and IV

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2
Q

Which of the following describes a grade III mobilization?

A

Large amplitude movement at the end of the ROM

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3
Q

If your patient has limited thumb abduction what type of glide would you perform to help increase thumb abduction?

A

Fix the trapezium and glide the first metacarpal dorsally

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4
Q

The plumb line falls on all of the following landmarks EXCEPT for which one?

A

Line falls posterior to the lateral malleolus

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5
Q

Which of the following is not true of physical therapy?

A

Only PT can do PT

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6
Q

Which of the following is true regarding motion at the wrist flexion?

A

The Midcarpals account for approximately 60% of flexion movement

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7
Q

When applying US to the pes anserinas where should you place the sound head?

A

Distal to the medial tibial condyle

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8
Q

Which of the following is an accurate explanation regarding the cubital fossa?

A

The radial nerve is located between the brachioradialis and the brachialis

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9
Q

What is the open-packed position of the proximal ulnar-radial joint?

A

70 degrees elbow flexion and 35 degrees supination

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10
Q

What position causes the most stress at the Patellofemoral joint?

A

Open chain exercises from 25-90⁰

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11
Q

If a patient is lacking the last 5 degrees of knee extension, what glide would you perform?

A

Anterior glide of tibia on femur

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12
Q

How would you test T1 Ventral horn?

A

MMT of the dorsal interossei (resisted finger abduction)

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13
Q

What is the most common cause of meniscus injury?

A

Axial load in a semi-flexed knee

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14
Q

For a patient who has a NWB LE, which gait pattern is the most efficient?

A

3 point swing-through

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15
Q

Cancer kid – what do you do when he asks you if he has cancer?

A

Schedule a meeting with the Dr. and Parents

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16
Q

A study by Flynn, et al was published in 2002 with the following CPR for LBP &spinal manipulation which of these does not belong?

A

Duration of Symptoms < 16 days

(NOTE this value DOES belong - but the answer on the test is the wrong number we just couldnt remember the exact number!)

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17
Q

During the initial phase of ACL rehab, a patient should avoid which of the following activities?

A

Repetitive squats in the 60°- 90° range

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18
Q

Patient had an anterior shoulder dislocation, which muscle groups need to be strengthened the most?

A

Adductors and IRs

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19
Q

Which of the following is the most unsterile part of “sterile” equipment?

A

Bottom half of gown

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20
Q

If a patient presents with Trendelenburg gait, what is the best exercise to have them perform?

A

Bridge with resisted abduction

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21
Q

Patient comes into your clinic with left shoulder pain following a day of golfing. Upon examination you find there is no increase in his symptoms. What could the patient’s pain be due to?

A

Cardiac ischemia

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22
Q

During a supine bicep curl (starting from full arm extension) state the muscle actions that occur throughout the the full ROM (0-150)

A

Concentric contraction of the elbow flexors from 0-90 and eccentric contraction of elbow extensors from 90-150

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23
Q

An older lady has weak UE and a history of falls which AD device would you choose for her?

A

Front wheeled rolling walker (that folds)

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24
Q

Which of the following is the best way to increase ROM?

A

Sustained sleeper stretch with 1# weight

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25
Q

When the shoulder is in full extension and IR and the elbow is fully extended. What term best describes the biceps?

A

Passive Insufficiency

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26
Q

Following tendon injury/repair what is the correct treatment method?

A

Apply strain to allow it to orient new fibers in the area of distress

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27
Q

In the patient with burns on his dorsal hands and forearm and the opposite broken ankle what AD would you choose?

A

Axillary crutches

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28
Q

Identify what needs to be changes in the picture with the crutches

A

Raise handles, decrease over height

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29
Q

Describe the relationship of the patient and PT during evaluation

A

Pt sitting, PT sitting

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30
Q

What muscle is most affected by surgery of greater trochanter?

A

Gluteus medius

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31
Q

Where can you palpate the posterior tibial artery?

A

Superior to the flexor retinaculum posterior to the medial malleolus

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32
Q

What are the primary elevators?

A

Upper traps and Levator scapula

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33
Q

According to the disablement model as described in the Guide to Physical Therapy Practice, a “disability” is described as:

A

Inability to engage in age-specific, gender related, or sex specific roles

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34
Q

What are the upward rotators?

A

Upper traps and serratus anterior

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35
Q

What is articular cartilage made up of?

A

Chondrocytes

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36
Q

What makes up a motor unit?

A

Motor neuron and myofibril that it innervates

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37
Q

Your patient cannot fully dorsiflex his ankle while the knee was extended. When ankle dorsiflexion is tested with the knee flexed, the ROM remains the same. Which structure is implicated?

A

Soleus shortening

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38
Q

Which of the following is the least concern when deciding on which AD to use?

A

Patient height and weight

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39
Q

Your patient is lying supine and you are strengthening the iliopsoas. What is the main reason you would want to place the patients opposite hip and knee in flexion?

A

To stabilize the pelvis in a neutrally rotated position to lessen the possibility of an anterior pelvic tilt

40
Q

Which of the following is a contraindicated end feel?

A

Empty end feel

41
Q

Which of the following is not a property of a ligament?

A

Stores elastic energy

42
Q

Injury to the deltoid region/atrophy of the deltoid implicates damage to which nerve?

A

Axillary

43
Q

What is the correct protocol following tendon repair surgery?

A

High reps, low load

44
Q

What muscles do you strengthen if a patient demonstrates with a winged scapula?

A

Rhomboids and serratus anterior

45
Q

What should you use in presenting to a group of construction workers?

A

Powerpoint, handouts, demo

46
Q

Which of the following are true regarding neurodynamic mobility?

A

Positive test is the reproduction of patients symptoms and a decrease in symptoms with movement of a distal body part

47
Q

In order to perform full shoulder abduction what motion must occur?

A

ER at GH joint

48
Q

Which of the following is not an indication for manual therapy?

A

Pain that is unaltered from sitting to standing

49
Q

A patient asks you about the benefits of a CPM machine. All of the following are reported benefits of a CPM, except:

A

Prevention of muscle atrophy

50
Q

In order to decrease weight on joints you should instruct your patient to go deeper, what principle is this?

A

Buoyancy

51
Q

What does p ≤ 0.01 mean?

A

The odds of not rejecting a null hypothesis is 1 in 100

52
Q

A-B-A-B testing for pain

A

B < A

53
Q

You want to do some sort of research that requires analysis of the frequency within 2 groups

A

Chi Square

54
Q

You want to do some sort of research that distinguishes between 3 different types of ROM and also compare the race and gender between test subjects…

A

three way analysis? We had two-way ANOVA originally

55
Q

What % of the sample would fall less than 1 standard deviation below in a normal distribution?

A

16%

56
Q

If a test is STANDARDIZED - what does that mean?

A

Someone has already taken the test so there is a set standard in place

57
Q

You are finishing therapy with a patient who is in a public room, a neighboring patient to yours asks you to change the position of their bed into a more vertical position –the patient had just had back surgery in which this position was contraindicated – the patient had to have ER surgery… and is now filing a lawsuit against you for changing the position of the bed – which side is the hospital likely to take or which party is most at fault?

A

The hospital will not support the PT’s actions as they worked outside of their scope/went against hospital policy

58
Q

A patient asks you what to expect following his ankle surgery. Which of the following is the correct way to handle the situation?

A

Describe the typical results of patients following surgery, and the expected therapy process

59
Q

Which of the following occurs within the first week after fertilization?

A

Fertilization occurs in the ampulla of the uterine tube

60
Q

Which of the following occurs during weeks 3-8 after fertilization/fetal growth?

A

Somite differentiation

61
Q

What is the image a picture of?

A

RA

62
Q

According to the Canadian c-spine rules, which of the following mandates imaging?

A

Paresthesia of the extremities (distal to the knee)

63
Q

If a child needs US over the lateral epicondyle, what is required prior to treatment?

A

Radiography to see if the epiphyseal plates have closed

64
Q

Which of the following are properties of lasers?

A

Monochromatic, coherent and directional

65
Q

Manual techniques that involve cupping, slapping, smacking can be described as what?

A

Tapotment

66
Q

Before performing US on an old man following TKR what is the most important question to ask him?

A

Did they use cement

67
Q

What is the appropriate pressure range when treating someone with compression bandages for scarring purposes?

A

20-30 mmHg

68
Q

How would you set up traction for a 6’ 200 lb man that has back pain? (unsure if it was joint dsfunction of disc herniation)

A

50 lbs

If it is joint dysfunction the answer is 1:1 (15:15)If it is disc herniation it is 3:1 (60:20)

69
Q

Which of the following should you instruct your patient to do if you wish to decrease the weight on their joints during pool therapy?

A

Go deeper

70
Q

Which of the following does not occur in a patient with diabetes mellitus

A

Decreased gluconeogensis

71
Q

When ADH is present it creates greater permeability on which structures?

A

Late distal tubule and collecting duct

72
Q

Which of the following is not a bodily function that decreases temperature?

A

Sympathetic tone to skin

73
Q

MS question…

A

Oligodendrocytes are damaged in the CNS

74
Q

Which of these would not be a sign or symptom of Brown Sequard syndrome/hemisection of the spinal cord?

A

Complete loss of _____ below the level of the lesion

75
Q

If there is a block in the middle cerebral artery which of the following WOULD be a symptom?

A

Homonymous hemianopsia due to something with the lateral geniculate

76
Q

Which of the signs would NOT indicate an UMN lesion

A

Decreased reflexes

77
Q

An abnormal EMG and normal NVS equals dysfunction in what?

A

Muscle dysfunction

78
Q

Pronator Syndrome question

A

The one that doesn’t say distal latency first…

79
Q

How should you position your patient for a sensory NCS of the ulnar nerve?

A

Supine with arm abducted 45 degrees

80
Q

Which of the following parameters is appropriate for sensory testing?

A

The only option that doesn’t say something about muscle twitch

81
Q

How would you increase the intensity under an electrode?

A

Decrease the electrode size

82
Q

Why does an antidromic NCS produce higher amplitude than an orhtodromic NCS?

A

The nerve is more superficial at the recording site

83
Q

You believe a patient would benefit for a NCS, however they had a pacemaker implanted 5 years ago, what is the correct procedure in this situation?

A

Don’t perform NCS and contact the physician

84
Q

Performing Iontophoresis with acetic acid – which electrode would you put the medication on and what setting would you use?

A

Monophasic under the cathode

85
Q

For the question in which you are given parameters and they include ramp time which of the following is it used to treat?

A

Strengthening/re-ed

86
Q

During a therapy session, a patient completed 3 sets of 10 of each of the following exercises: eccentric heel raises, squats, and ankle dorsiflexion/plantarflexion resistance (w/ red theraband). With the exception of eccentric heel raises, the patient completed all exercises with no difficulties, good form, and no verbal cues. However, the heel raises the patient was only able to complete 2 of the 10 repetitions… how would you alter the treatment for the next therapy session?

A

Increase either the repetitions or resistance for each of the exercises and add eccentric dorsiflexion/plantarflexion with the red theraband

87
Q

If an anterior approach was used for THA – what exercises would be contraindicated and/or most stressed to the patient?

A

prone hip flexor stretching

88
Q

Exercising man you took his vitals. Respiratory rate = 14; Pulse rate = 88; BP = 152/90. Which of the following is true?

A

Pulse rate and BP are above normal limits

89
Q

When writing notes, which of the following is not allowed?

A

Using correction fluid

90
Q

What type of transfer should you use for a weak older lady

A

Stand pivot

91
Q

When instructing a patient on how to best use a cane what should you tell them?

A

Always use on the uninvolved side

92
Q

A patient came to you following shoulder surgery, they asked you during the evaluation when they could take the sling off. What do you tell them?

A

Refer to doctor to see if they gave any instructions

93
Q

You should not perform any exercise if the patient’s hematocrit is below __%
You can perform light exercise if it is between __-__%
You can perform resistive exercise if it is greater than __%

A

25

26-30

30

94
Q

You should not perform any exercise if the patient’s hemoglobin is below __ g/dL
You can perform light exercise if it is between __-__ g/dL
You can perform resistive exercise if it is greater than __ g/dL

A

8

8-10

10

95
Q

You should not perform any exercise if the patient’s platelet count is below __ uL
You can perform light exercise if it is between __-__ uL
You can perform resistive exercise if it is greater than __ uL

A

20,000

20,000 - 50,000

50,000

96
Q

You should not perform any exercise if the patient’s WBC count is below __ mm3
You can perform light and resistive exercise if it is greater than __ mm3

A

5000 (with a fever)

5000

97
Q

You should not perform any exercise if the patient’s INR is above __
You can perform light exercise if it is between __-__
You can perform resistive exercise if it is less than __

A

5

4-5

4

Year One Comprehensive Material (16 decks)

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