DPT 620: Clinical Human Anatomy

Question 1

Loss of patellar reflex and loss of cutaneous sensation on the anteromedial side of the leg indicate damage to this spinal nerve:

a. L2
b. L4
c. L5
d. S2
e. S4

Answer 1

B

Question 2

Which statement concerning the great saphenous vein is false?

a. When it is removed and inserted as a coronary bypass, it is reversed, so that the cusps do not obstruct blood flow.
b. It is located about ten cm. (a handbreadth) posterior to the medial border of the patella.
c. It passes anterior to the medial malleolus.
d. It perforates the femoral sheath
e. It is accompanied by the sural nerve in the leg.

Answer 2

E

Question 3

The deep fascia of the thigh:

a. is thickened on its medial side to form the iliotibial tract
b. has an oval opening which transmits the small saphenous vein
c. is attached to the whole length of the inguinal ligament
d. is designated the cribriform fascia
e. lies superficial to the superficial inguinal lymph nodes

Answer 3

C

Question 4

Structures passing through the adductor hiatus include:

a. saphenous nerve
b. profunda femoral artery
c. both
d. neither

Answer 4

D

Question 5

Skin on the most dorsal part of the foot is supplied by the:

a. sural nerve
b. first sacral nerve
c. both
d. neither

Answer 5

D

Question 6

The muscle which can both flex the hip and extend the knee is:

a. sartorius
b. rectus femoris
c. semimembranosus
d. biceps femoris
e. vastus lateralis

Answer 6

B

Question 7

The actions of the gracilis muscle include _______ of the thigh at the hip and _______ of the leg at the knee.

a. lateral rotation, lateral rotation
b. medial rotation, extension
c. abduction, flexion
d. flexion, extension
e. adduction, flexion

Answer 7

E

Question 8

Which muscle is able to produce flexion at the knee joint more efficiently if the hip joint is in flexion at the same time?

a. semimembranosus
b. rectus femoris
c. hamstring part of adductor magnus
d. sartorius
e. short head of biceps femoris

Answer 8

A

Question 9

Difficulty extending the knee can result from damage to the ________.

a. femoral nerve
b. inferior gluteal nerve
c. common peroneal nerve
d. superior gluteal nerve
e. tibial nerve

Answer 9

A

Question 10

Muscles in the posterior thigh compartment are paralyzed because the sciatic nerve has been severed. Nevertheless the patient can still produce some flexion of the leg at the knee due to action of the:

a. sartorius m.
b. semitendinosus m.
c. both A and B
d. short head of biceps femoris
e. gastrocnemius

Answer 10

A

Question 11

The muscle that is not a medial rotator of the leg is the:

a. semimembranosus
b. semitendinosus
c. biceps femoris
d. gracilis
e. popliteus

Answer 11

C

Question 12

After an obturator nerve injury, some adduction of the thigh is still possible because of double innervation to the:
a. gracilis m.

b. adductor magnus m.
c. sartorius m.
d. adductor longus m.
e. adductor brevis m.

Answer 12

B

Question 13

After passing through the obturator canal, divisions of the obturator nerve (an anterior branch and a posterior branch) pass on either side of the:

a. pectineus m.
b. adductor brevis m.
c. gracilis m.
d. adductor magnus m.
e. adductor longus m.

Answer 13

B

Question 14

Injury to the tibial nerve in the popliteal fossa might result in:

a. loss of eversion
b. (diminished sensation) on dorsal surface of foot
c. inability to stand on one’s toes
d. drop foot
e. loss of sensation between the great and second toe

Answer 14

C

Question 15

The fibular artery:

a. supplies the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg
b. passes anterior to the interosseous membrane
c. usually becomes the dorsalis pedis
d. courses through the deep posterior compartment of the leg
e. none of the above

Answer 15

D

Question 16

A tight plaster cast that exerted pressure on the head and neck of the fibula might result in loss of:

a. eversion of the foot
b. foot drop
c. both
d. neither

Answer 16

A

Question 17

When the muscles of the anterior compartment of the leg swell from some kind of overuse:

a. the deep fibular nerve may be injured
b. there is loss of sensation in the web space between the great and second toes
c. both
d. neither

Answer 17

C

Question 18

The medial and lateral plantar neurovascular structures enter the foot deep to the:

a. inferior peroneal retinaculum
b. abductor digiti minimi m.
c. abductor hallucis m.
d. quadratus plantae m.
e. sustentaculum tali

Answer 18

C

Question 19

The medial plantar nerve innervates:

a. abductor hallucis m.
b. abductor digiti minimi m.
c. adductor hallucis m.
d. 2-4 lumbrical muscles

Answer 19

A

Question 20

The deep plantar arch:

a. is formed primarily from the lateral plantar artery
b. passes between the first and second muscular layers of the foot
c. both
d. neither

Answer 20

A

Question 21

The arcuate artery

a. is a branch of the medial plantar artery
b. courses deep to extensor digitorum brevis
c. both
d. neither

Answer 21

B

Question 22

The lateral plantar nerve:

a. courses between quadratus plantae and flexor digitorum brevis muscles
b. supplies quadratus plantae m.
c. both
d. neither

Answer 22

C

Question 23

The two bellies of flexor hallucis brevis muscle:

a. have insertions that contain sesmoid bones
b. attach to the base of the distal phalanx of the great toe
c. pass on either side of the tendon of extensor hallucis longus
d. are innervated by the lateral plantar nerve
e. all of the above

Answer 23

A

Question 24

The tendon of peroneus longus:

a. attaches to the navicular bone
b. courses between quadratus plantae and flexor digitorum brevis muscles
c. both
d. neither

Answer 24

D

Question 25

Which statement is false concerning the hip joint? a. it is a ball and socket joint b. the entire acetabulum articulates with the femoral head c. the acetabulum is deepened by the acetabular labrum d. the ligamentum teres is attached to the fovea on the femoral head e. the iliofemoral ligament attaches to the intertrochanteric line

Answer 25

B

Question 26

Which statement concerning the hip joint is false? a. The transverse acetabular ligament bridges the acetabular notch b. The proximal attachment of the iliofemoral ligament is to the ASIS c. The acetabulum is formed by the ilium, ischium, and pubis d. The iliofemoral ligament prevents hyperextension of the hip joint e. Fractures of the femoral neck, rather than the femoral shaft, usually sever arteries supplying the femoral head

Answer 26

B

Question 27

The fibular collateral ligament is: a. tested by the application of valgus stress, rather than varus stress, to the leg. b. located superficial to the tendon of popliteus c. attached to the lateral meniscus d. located superficial to the biceps femoris tendon e. located deep to the iliotibial tract

Answer 27

B

Question 28

The _______ ligament of the knee joint attaches to the _______. a. lateral collateral ____shaft of fibula, deep to pes anserinus b. patellar_____anterior intercondylar area of the tibia c. posterior cruciate______posterior surface of tibia, just above soleal line d. tibial collateral_______periphery of medial meniscus e. anterior cruciate______anterior intercondylar area, just anterior to the anterior horn of the medial meniscus

Answer 28

D

Question 29

True statements concerning the anterior cruciate ligament include: a. its attachment to the tibial plateau (top of tibia) is anterior to the attachment of the anterior horn of the medial meniscus b. it prevents posterior displacement of the femur on the tibia c. both d. neither

Answer 29

B

Question 30

Important stabilizing structures on the lateral side of the knee joint are: a. tibial collateral ligament; biceps tendon; and iliotibial tract b. fibular collateral ligament; biceps tendon;and iliotibial tract c. fibular collateral ligament; cruciate ligament; and pes anserinus d. tibial collateral ligament; popliteus tendon;and patellar ligament e. fibular collateral ligament; coronary ligament;and transverse ligament

Answer 30

B

Question 31

The major cutaneous innervation of the anteromedial side of the leg is provided by which nerve? a. Obturator b. Sural c. superficial peroneal d. saphenous e. medial sural

Answer 31

D

Question 32

Which muscle attaches to the lesser trochanter of the femur? a. Iliopsoas b. Pectineus c. quadratus femoris d. gluteus medius e. obturator externus

Answer 32

A

Question 33

The principle action of the gracilis muscle is _______ of the thigh at the hip. a. lateral rotation b. medial rotation c. abduction d. flexion e. adduction

Answer 33

E

Question 34

In the subsartorial canal this muscle separated the femoral artery from the deep (profunda) femoral artery: a. Pectineus b. adductor magnus c. adductor brevis d. adductor longus e. psoas major

Answer 34

D

Question 35

The neck of a femoral hernia lies lateral to the: a. pubic tubercle b. femoral vein c. femoral artery d. femoral nerve e. femoral sheath

Answer 35

A

Question 36

The great saphenous vein: a. passes anterior to the medial malleolus b. passes a handbreadth posterior to the medial border of the patella c. both d. neither

Answer 36

C

Question 37

This structure forms the boundary between the greater and lesser sciatic foramina: a. ischial tuberosity b. posterior superior iliac spine c. sacrotuberous ligament d. sacrospinous ligament e. piriformis muscle

Answer 37

D

Question 38

This is the only gluteal muscle to originate from the posterior surface of the sacrum: a. quadratus femoris b. gluteus maximus c. gluteus medius d. piriformis e. biceps femoris

Answer 38

B

Question 39

Nerve injury of sacral spinal nerve 1 will result in pain located along the: a. anterior surface of the thigh b. anteromedial surface of the leg c. medial side of the foot d. lateral side of the foot e. none of the above

Answer 39

D

Question 40

If the sciatic nerve were damaged by an intramuscular injection in the buttocks, the patient would have diminished cutaneous sensation on the: a. dorsum of the foot b. anteromedial side of the leg c. both d. neither

Answer 40

A

Question 41

All the following pass through the greater sciatic foramen EXCEPT: a. piriformis muscle b. pudendal nerve c. sciatic nerve d. inferior gluteal vessels and nerve e. obturator internus tendon

Answer 41

E

Question 42

The superior gluteal nerve: a. contains fibers from the second and third lumbar nerves b. leaves the pelvis just inferior to the piriformis muscle c. must be intact to resist pelvic tilt during gait d. innervates the piriformis muscle e. innervates the gemellus superior muscle

Answer 42

C

Question 43

All of the following muscles are lateral rotators of the thigh at the hip EXCEPT the: a. gluteus maximus b. gluteus minimus c. obturator internus d. obturator externus e. piriformis

Answer 43

B

Question 44

All of the following muscles are medial rotators of the leg EXCEPT: a. semimembranosus b. semitendinosus c. biceps femoris d. gracilis e. popliteus

Answer 44

C

Question 45

Which statement about the semimembranosus muscle is FALSE? a. it extends at the hip joint b. it attaches to the medial condyle of the tibia c. it flexes at the knee joint d. it forms the arcuate ligament e. it is innervated by the tibial portion of the sciatic nerve

Answer 45

D

Question 46

Gracilis, sartorius, semimembranosus a. form the pes anserinus b. extend the knee c. act across both hip and knee joints d. all have the same innervation e. help laterally rotate the femur

Answer 46

C

Question 47

What nerve has been damaged in a patient who can no longer extend his knee? a. sciatic b. common peroneal c. femoral d. obturator e. tibial

Answer 47

C

Question 48

What nerve has been damaged in a patient whose pelvis tilts too far toward the right when walking? a. right superior gluteal nerve b. left superior gluteal nerve c. right inferior gluteal nerve d. left inferior gluteal nerve e. right femoral nerve

Answer 48

B

Question 49

Excessive anterior movement of the tibia when pulling forward on the leg with the knee flexed would indicate damage to this ligament of the knee: a. medial collateral b. lateral collateral c. anterior cruciate d. posterior cruciate

Answer 49

C

Question 50

The saphenous nerve a. is a motor branch of the femoral nerve b. accompanies the short saphenous vein in the leg c. is the only branch of the femoral nerve that extends considerably below the knee d. emerges through the saphenous hiatus e. is a sensory branch of the obturator nerve

Answer 50

C

Question 51

What nerve is damaged in a patient whose foot is everted and dorsiflexed and who cannot flex his/her toes? a. Tibial b. superficial peroneal c. deep peroneal d. common peroneal e. medial peroneal

Answer 51

?

Question 52

The femoral sheath a. is found in the femoral triangle b. has a medially located compartment called the femoral canal c. contains the femoral artery, vein and nerve d. all of the above are correct e. only a and b above are correct

Answer 52

E

Question 53

Fascia lata a. is the investing fascia of the thigh b. is fused with the inguinal ligament from the anterior superior iliac spine to the pubic tubercle c. is thickened laterally forming the iliotibial tract d. all of the above are correct e. only b and c are correct

Answer 53

D

Question 54

The lateral compartment of the leg a. usually contains no major artery b. contains only two muscles c. both a and b are correct d. contains the peroneus tertius muscle e. includes muscles innervated by the deep fibular nerve

Answer 54

C

Question 55

The biceps femoris muscle a. lies lateral to the popliteal fossa b. lies medial to the popliteal fossa c. forms the floor of the popliteal fossa d. gives rise to the oblique popliteal fossa e. does not attach to the leg bone

Answer 55

A

Question 56

Where would you feel for the pulse of the dorsalis pedis artery? a. directly posterior to the tendon of flexor digitorum longus b. directly lateral to the tendon of tibialis anterior c. directly lateral to the tendon of extensor hallucis longus d. directly posterior to the tendon of peroneus longus e. directly lateral to the tendon of extensor digitorum longus

Answer 56

C

Question 57

Which nerve has been damaged in a patient whose pelvis tilts down to the left when he stands on his right foot? a. right inferior gluteal nerve b. right superior gluteal nerve c. left inferior gluteal nerve d. left superior gluteal nerve e. left obturator nerve

Answer 57

B

Question 58

The gluteus maximus muscle: a. has an origin from the ischium b. inserts only onto the femur c. is a flexor of the thigh at the hip d. is innervated by the superior gluteal nerve e. none of the above

Answer 58

E

Question 59

The inferior gluteal nerve: a. contains fibers from the second and third lumbar nerves b. leaves the pelvis just inferior to the piriformis muscle c. must be intact to resist pelvic tilt during gait d. innervates the tensor faschiae latae muscle e. innervates the gemellus inferior muscle

Answer 59

B

Question 60

The nerve supply to the muscles of the lateral fascial compartment of the leg is directly by this nerve: a. deep peroneal b. superficial peroneal c. anterior tibial d. posterior tibial e. common peroneal

Answer 60

B

Question 61

The spinal cord segment that supplies the cutaneous innervation to the lateral side of the foot is: a. L3 b. L4 c. L5 d. S1 e. S2

Answer 61

D

Question 62

The most important arterial supply to the head of the femur is via: a. the artery of the ligamentum teres b. retinacular vessels c. vessels traveling along the spermatic cord d. internal pudendal artery

Answer 62

B

Question 63

If the foot is inverted due to paralysis of some muscles, one of the muscles that is paralyzed is the: a. tibialis posterior b. tibialis anterior c. peroneus longus d. extensor hallucis longus e. extensor digitorum longus

Answer 63

C

Question 64

The blood supply to the anterior compartment muscles of the leg is normally: a. the anterior tibial artery, a branch of the popliteal artery b. the peroneal artery, a branch of the posterior tibial artery c. the deep femoral artery d. A and B above e. A and C above

Answer 64

A

Question 65

The deep peroneal nerve supplies motor fibers to: a. peroneus longus b. peroneus brevis c. peroneus tertius (a portion of extensor digitorum longus) d. flexor hallicis longus e. all of the above

Answer 65

C

Question 66

The anterior tibial artery: a. is normally a branch of the popliteal artery b. runs with the deep peroneal nerve on the anterior surface of the interosseus membrane of the leg c. usually terminates as the dorsalis pedis artery d. all of the above e. only A and B above

Answer 66

D

Question 67

The following structures are in the femoral sheath, which is an extension of abdominal and pelvic fascias: a. femoral artery b. femoral vein c. deep femoral lymphatics d. fatty connective tissue e. all of the above

Answer 67

E

Question 68

The branch(es) of the femoral nerve that extend into the leg proper (ie lower leg) is (are): a. the motor nerve to the vastus lateralis b. the common peroneal nerve c. the obturator nerve d. the saphenous nerve, carrying only sensory fibers e. all of the above

Answer 68

D

Question 69

The anterior part of the talus articulates with the: a. cuboid b. first, second and third cuneiform bones c. fourth and fifth cuneiform bones d. calcaneus e. navicular

Answer 69

E

Question 70

A barefoot child steps on a broken bottle and severs an artery on the medial side of the plantar surface of the big toe; the best place to apply pressure to stop bleeding would be: a. on the dorsum of the foot, between the tendons of tibialis anterior and extensor hallucis longus b. on the dorsum of the foot, between the tendons of extensor digitorum longus and peroneus tertius c. between medial malleolus and calcaneus d. between lateral malleolus and calcaneus e. on the plantar surface of the foot, between the first and second metatarsal bones

Answer 70

C

Question 71

Severing the common peroneal nerve results in inability to: a. evert the foot b. extend (dorsiflex) the foot c. both d. neither

Answer 71

C

Question 72

When the foot is suddenly and violently inverted, the tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal may be avulsed (pulled off) by the tendon of this muscle: a. peroneus brevis b. peroneus tertius c. tibialis anterior d. tibialis posterior

Answer 72

A

Question 73

The pulse of the posterior tibial artery is best felt: a. against the popliteal surface of the tibia b. lateral to the neck of the fibula c. anterior to the lateral malleolus d. posterior to the lateral malleolus e. posterior to the medial malleolus

Answer 73

E

Question 74

Muscles inserting on the medial aspect of the proximal end of the tibia include: a. Gracilis b. hamstring part of adductor magnus c. both d. neither

Answer 74

A

Question 75

The patellar tendon reflex involves which spinal nerves? a. L1 and L2 b. L3 and L4 c. L4 and L5 d. L5 and S1 e. S2 and S3

Answer 75

B

Question 76

Which statements concerning the quadriceps femoris is FALSE? a. The tone of quadriceps femoris is very important to the stability of the knee joint. b. The final insertion of most of its fibers is to the tibial tuberosity via the patellar ligament. c. The lowest fibers of vastus medialis prevent medial displacement of the patella. d. Much of the vastus lateralis and vastus medialis originate from the linea aspera

Answer 76

C

Question 77

Each of the following matchings of thigh muscles with points of origin is correct EXCEPT: a. sartorius—anterior superior iliac spine b. long head of biceps femoris—ischial tuberosity c. straight head of rectus femoris—anterior inferior iliac spine d. pectineus—superior ramus of pubis e. semitendinosus—linea aspera of femur

Answer 77

E

Question 78

Each of the following statements concerning the tibial nerve is true EXCEPT: a. It is a branch of the sciatic nerve. b. It is motor to all muscles in the superficial and deep compartments of the leg. c. It passes down the leg between gastrocnemius and soleus d. It passes posterior to the medial mallolus e. Its terminal branches are the medial and lateral plantar nerves.

Answer 78

C

Question 79

The muscle that contracts to unlock the extended knee joint is the: a. popliteus b. plantaris c. medial head of the gastrocnemius d. lateral head of gastrocnemius e. soleus

Answer 79

A

Question 80

A sharp blow to the neck of the fibula is most apt to result in damage to which structure? a. sciatic nerve b. common peroneal nerve c. tibial nerve d. popliteal nerve e. none of the above

Answer 80

B

Question 81

Paralysis of which nerve would result in “foot drop”? a. femoral b. tibial c. superficial peroneal d. deep peroneal e. obturator

Answer 81

D

Question 82

Your patient is unable to stand on his toes. The damaged nerve is the: a. femoral b. tibial c. superficial peroneal d. deep peroneal e. sural

Answer 82

B

Question 83

This artery passes posterior to the medial malleolus: a. posterior tibial b. anterior tibial c. peroneal d. dorsalis pedis e. arcuate artery

Answer 83

A

Question 84

Tibialis anterior and tibialis posterior BOTH: a. invert the foot b. insert on the tuberosity of the navicular bone c. both d. neither

Answer 84

A

Question 85

The flexor retinaculum of the foot attaches to which two bony structures? a. distal ends of tibia and fibula b. calcaneus and medial malleolus c. lateral malleolus and calcaneus d. medial malleolus and talus e. talus and navicular

Answer 85

B

Question 86

In a very young child, the head of the femur usually receives most of its blood supply from a branch of the: a. obturator artery b. external iliac artery c. femoral artery d. deep femoral artery e. pudendal artery

Answer 86

B

Question 87

The iliofemoral ligament: a. attaches to the anterior superior iliac spine b. resists flexion at the hip c. both d. neither

Answer 87

D

Question 88

A torn anterior cruciate ligament would permit: a. valgus displacement of the leg at the knee b. varus displacement of the leg at the knee c. anterior displacement of the leg at the knee d. posterior displacement of the leg at the knee e. all of the above

Answer 88

C

Question 89

The “spring” ligament attaches to what two bones? a. fibula and calcaneus b. tibia and calcaneus c. tibia and talus d. talus and navicular e. calcaneous and navicular

Answer 89

E

Question 90

The ligament usually injured in a hyper-inversion of the foot (sprained ankle) is the: a. Anterior tibiotalar b. Posterior tibiotalar c. Medial collateral d. Lateral collateral

Answer 90

D

Question 91

The anterior tibial artery: a. is the source of the peroneal artery b. continues as dorsalis pedis artery c. usually travels with the superficial peroneal nerve d. all of the above e. none of the above

Answer 91

B

Question 92

The gastrocnemius muscle can produce: a. plantar flexion of the foot b. flexion of the leg at the knee c. both d. neither

Answer 92

C

Question 93

The soleus muscle: a. is innervated by the tibial nerve b. is a plantar flexor of the foot c. both d. neither

Answer 93

C

Question 94

Which muscle inserts onto the tuberosity of the fifth metatarsal bone? a. Abductor digiti minimi b. Peroneus brevis c. Peroneus longus d. Tibialis anterior e. Tibialis posterior

Answer 94

B

Question 95

The muscles of the lateral compartment of the leg are: a. dorsiflexors of the foot b. evertors of the foot c. both d. neither

Answer 95

B

Question 96

Which muscle is essential to lift the heel off the ground in walking? a. peroneus longus b. tibialis anterior c. flexor hallucis longus d. flexor hallucis brevis e. gastrocnemius

Answer 96

E

Question 97

The fibular collateral ligament is: a. tested by the application of valgus stress, rather than varus stress, to the knee joint b. located superficial to the tendon of the popliteus c. attached to the lateral meniscus d. located superficial to the biceps femoris tendon

Answer 97

B

Question 98

Which statement concerning ligaments of the hip joint is FALSE? a. the iliofemoral ligament prevents hyperextension b. the ligament of the head of the femur is attached to the transverse acetabular ligament c. the iliofemoral ligament is in the shape of an inverted Y d. the ishiofemoral ligament attaches to the intertochanteric crest e. the transverse acetabular ligament bridges the acetabular notch

Answer 98

D

Question 99

The deltoid ligament : a. is attached to the talus, navicular and calcaneus b. is torn less commonly than the lateral ligament of the ankle c. both d. neither

Answer 99

C

Question 100

The medial meniscus: a. is torn less commonly than the lateral meniscus b. is much broader behind than in front c. is nearly circular (O- shaped) d. is separated from the joint capsule by the popliteus tendon e. is attached to some of the inserting fibers of pes anserinus

Answer 100

B

Question 101

The suprapatellar bursa: a. communicates directly with the knee joint cavity b. is located superficial to the quadriceps femoris muscle c. both d. neither

Answer 101

A

Question 102

Which one of the following structures attaches to the most anterior part of the tibial plateau? a. anterior cruciate ligament b. posterior cruciate ligamet c. anterior horn of the medial meniscus d. anterior horn of the lateral semilunar cartilage e. ligament of Wrisberg

Answer 102

C

Question 103

Which nerve is endangered during a canulation of the great saphenous vein? a. lateral sural b. medial sural c. saphenous d. superficial peroneal e. medial femoral cutaneous

Answer 103

C

Question 104

The sural nerve is located most closely to the: a. inferior border of the gluteus maximus b. lateral malleolus c. great saphenous vein d. neck of the fibula e. medial side of the patella

Answer 104

B

Question 105

The best diagnostic test for the anterior compartment syndrome of the leg is to check for loss of cutaneous sensation on the: a. Medial part of the plantar surface of the foot b. lateral part of the plantar surface of the foot c. dorsum of the foot, between the first and second toes d. dorsolateral side of the foot and little (5th) toe e. anterolateral side of the leg

Answer 105

C

Question 106

The gait cycle is defined as: a. The point of initial contact of one lower extremity to the point of initial contact of the contralateral lower extremity. b. The point of initial contact of one lower extremity to the point of initial contact of the same lower extremity. c. The distance from the point of initial contact of one lower extremity to the point of initial contact of the contralateral lower extremity. d. The time intervals between both periods of double support.

Answer 106

B

Question 107

The stance phase/period comprises approximately what percent of the gait cycle: a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 60%

Answer 107

D

Question 108

The swing phase/period comprises approximately what percent of the gait cycle: a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 60%

Answer 108

B

Question 109

How many periods of double support exist during the gait cycle? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4

Answer 109

B

Question 110

The double support period occurs when: a. Both feet are in mid-stance b. One lower extremity is at the beginning of its stance phase and the other is near the end of its stance phase c. One lower extremity is in mid-stance and the other is near the end of its stance phase

Answer 110

B

Question 111

The traditional stance phase of gait is subdivided into three periods. They are: a. Double support, mid-stance, and propulsion b. Contact, double support, and propulsion c. Contact, double support, and mid-stance d. Contact, mid-stance, and propulsion

Answer 111

D

Question 112

The primary function of gait is : a. Upright stability on uneven terrain b. Locomotion of the entire body c. Smooth transition of body momentum d. Minimizing muscle activation between phases of gait

Answer 112

B

Question 113

The greatest amount of shock absorption occurs during: a. contact b. mid-stance c. propulsion d. double support

Answer 113

A

Question 114

Propulsion of the body is achieved by: a. “pushing off” by the gastrocsoleus muscle group during propulsion b. forward fall of the body c. forward swing of the contralateral limb d. forward fall and forward swing of the contralateral limb

Answer 114

D

Question 115

Which of the following serve as “rockers,” or pivot points, to preserve the body’s forward momentum? a. The heel and ankle b. The ankle and forefoot c. The forefoot and heel d. The heel, ankle, and the forefoot

Answer 115

D

Question 116

The determinants of gait are: a. Six patterns of motions or adjustments made by the body to minimize the displacement of the center of gravity b. Five patterns of motions or adjustments made by the body to minimize the displacement of the center of gravity c. Four patterns of motions or adjustments made by the body to minimize the displacement of the center of gravity d. Three patterns of motions or adjustments made by the body to minimize the displacement of the center of gravity

Answer 116

A

Question 117

The three primary functional tasks of gait defined in the Ranchos approach are: a. Stance stability, smooth swing, and propulsion b. Weight acceptance, single limb support, and limb advancement c. Shock absorption, stride length, and cadence d. Shock absorption, cadence, and velocity

Answer 117

B

Question 118

The contact period ends with: a. Initial contact of the contralateral side b. Toe off of the contralateral side c. Foot-flat of the ipsilateral side d. Heel-off of the ipsilateral side

Answer 118

B

Question 119

During the initial contact of the heel with the ground, what percentage of bodyweight contacts the ground in the first 0.02 seconds? a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 60%

Answer 119

D

Question 120

The primary function of the quadriceps during contact is : a. Concentric to absorb shock and facilitate knee extension b. Eccentric to absorb shock and control knee flexion c. Eccentric control of transverse plane tibial rotation d. Concentric to allow full knee extension

Answer 120

B

Question 121

During contact, the pattern of ankle motion is : a. Rapid dorsiflexion followed by gradual plantarflexion b. Steady plantarflexion throughout the contact phase c. Rapid plantarflexion followed by steady dorsiflexion d. Steady dorsiflexion throughout the contact phase

Answer 121

C

Question 122

The primary shock absorption mechanism in the foot during contact is: a. Eccentric control of plantarflexion by the soleus b. Eccentric control of dorsiflexion by the soleus c. Eccentric control of supination by the peroneus longus and brevis d. Eccentric control of pronation by the tibialis posterior and anterior

Answer 122

D

Question 123

The primary muscle function at the hip during contact is: a. Eccentric control of hip flexion by the iliopsoas b. Eccentric control of hip extension by the iliopsoas c. Concentric facilitation of hip extension by the gluteus maximus and hamstrings d. Concentric facilitation of hip extension by the rectus femoris

Answer 123

C

Question 124

The function of the anterior compartment muscles during contact is best described as: a. Concentric control of ankle dorsiflexion b. Concentric control of ankle plantarflexion c. Eccentric control of ankle plantarflexion d. Eccentric control of supination

Answer 124

C

Question 125

The best description of the activation pattern of the hip abductors during mid-stance is: a. The gluteus medius is most active early and the tensor fascia lata is most active late in mid-stance b. The gluteus medius and the tensor fascia lata are both most active late in mid-stance c. The gluteus medius and the tensor fascia lata are equally active throughout mid-stance d. Neither the gluteus medius nor the tensor fascia lata exhibit significant activity during mid-stance

Answer 125

A

Question 126

Which of the following is true about muscle function at the knee during midstance? a. By the second half of mid-stance, much of the muscular control is from the gastrocsoleus complex b. The quadriceps are very active during mid-stance to provide stability to the knee due to the gravity line being anterior to the knee throughout much of mid-stance c. The hamstrings play a vital role in limiting knee extension during mid-stance d. The popliteus reaches its peak activity during mid-stance

Answer 126

A

Question 127

Motion at the foot and ankle during mid-stance is best described as: a. Steady plantarflexion and pronation b. Steady dorsiflexion and pronation c. Steady plantarflexion and supination d. Steady dorsiflexion and supination

Answer 127

D

Question 128

Which of the following is true? a. The soleus has minimal function during mid-stance b. The soleus is primarily responsible for decelerating dorsiflexion during mid-stance c. The posterior tibialis functions to facilitate pronation during mid-stance d. The anterior compartment muscles play a primary role in facilitating dorsiflexion during mid-stance

Answer 128

B

Question 129

Maximal lateral shift of the pelvis during stance occurs: a. At the beginning of mid-stance b. At the end of mid-stance c. At the middle of mid-stance d. Just after mid-stance

Answer 129

C

Question 130

Sagittal plane motion at the hip during propulsion is best described as: a. Moving from neutral to 30° of flexion b. Moving from neutral to 10° of extension c. Moving from 10° of extension to neutral d. Moving from 10° of extension to 20° of flexion

Answer 130

C

Question 131

The demand on the tensor fascia lata to control pelvic drop on the contralateral side is reduced during propulsion by: a. The contralateral gluteus medius b. The ipsilateral gluteus maximus c. Shifting of the pelvis away from the midline d. Shifting of the pelvis closer to the midline

Answer 131

D

Question 132

The initiation of knee flexion that occurs during propulsion is a direct resultof: a. Concentric hamstring activity b. Eccentric hamstring activity c. Movement of the body vector anterior to the metarsalphalangeal joint, resulting in forward rotation of the tibia d. None of the above

Answer 132

C

Question 133

The major progression force used in walking is generated by: a. Movement of the center of pressure anterior to the forefoot rocker, causing a free forward fall of the body b. Hip extension “thrust” resulting from the gluteus maximus c. Forward swing of the limb from iliopsoas activity d. None of the above

Answer 133

A

Question 134

At the end of mid-stance, the foot reaches its position of: a. Maximum dorsiflexion b. Maximum plantarflexion c. Maximum supination d. Maximum pronation

Answer 134

A

Question 135

Hip flexion that occurs late in propulsion is a result of: a. Light activity of the hip flexors (iliopsoas and rectus femoris) b. The rapid ankle plantarflexion that is occurring c. The rapid knee flexion that is occurring d. All of the above

Answer 135

D

Question 136

The knee achieves approximately how many degrees of flexion by the end of propulsion a. 20° b. 30° c. 40° d. 50°

Answer 136

C

Question 137

The primary function of knee flexion during propulsion is: a. To initiate hip flexion b. To prepare the way for toe clearance during swing c. To assist in forward pelvic rotation d. None of the above

Answer 137

B

Question 138

During propulsion, the ankle undergoes rapid: a. Dorsiflexion b. Plantarflexion c. Pronation d. None of the above

Answer 138

B

Question 139

Much of the plantarflexion that occurs in propulsion is: a. Forceful contraction of the gastrocsoleus complex b. Ballistic activity form the previously generated momentum c. Hip flexor muscle activity d. Hip extensor muscle activity

Answer 139

B

Question 140

The initiation of hip flexion during initial swing is a result of: a. Activity of the hip flexors b. Momentum generated during propulsion c. Forceful contraction of the plantarflexors d. a and b

Answer 140

D

Question 141

Prevention of pelvic drop during swing is a result of: a. Ipsilateral quadratus lumborum activity b. Contralateral gluteus medius activity c. Ipsilateral paraspinal muscle activity d. All of the above

Answer 141

D

Question 142

Knee flexion reaches its maximum of 60° during: a. initial swing b. mid-swing c. terminal swing d. none of the above

Answer 142

A

Question 143

Sufficient knee flexion during swing is critical because: a. It facilitates normal hip flexion b. It results in greater speed during gait c. It reduces the need for dorsiflexion to obtain toe clearance d. It prevents excessive ankle plantarflexion from occurring

Answer 143

C

Question 144

The ankle dorsiflexors reach their peak activity during: a. Initial swing b. Mid-swing c. Terminal swing d. Mid-stance

Answer 144

A

Question 145

Knee extension during swing begins during: a. Initial swing b. Mid-swing c. Terminal swing d. Knee extension does not occur during swing

Answer 145

B

Question 146

The role of the hamstrings during mid-swing is: a. To control the rate of hip flexion b. To control the rate of knee extension c. To facilitate greater knee flexion d. The hamstrings have no significant role during mid-swing

Answer 146

B

Question 147

The anterior compartment muscles are: a. The only muscles active at the ankle during swing b. Work in conjunction with the plantarflexors to hold the foot in a neutral position for swing c. a and b d. None of the above

Answer 147

A

Question 148

Which of the following is true about the pelvis during terminal swing? a. The swing side is at its highest and the pelvis is in neutral rotation in the transverse plane b. The stance side is at its highest and the pelvis reaches its maximum anterior rotation c. The pelvis is level and reaches its maximum posterior rotation d. The stance side is at its lowest and the pelvis reaches its maximum anterior rotation

Answer 148

B

Question 149

During the initial contact of the heel with the ground, what percentage of bodyweight contacts the ground in the first 0.02 seconds? a. 30% b. 40% c. 50% d. 60%

Answer 149

D

Question 150

The primary function of the quadriceps during initial contact and loading response is: a. Concentric to absorb shock and facilitate knee extension b. Eccentric to absorb shock and control knee flexion c. Eccentric control of transverse plane tibial rotation d. Concentric to allow full knee extension

Answer 150

B

Question 151

During initial contact and loading response, the pattern of ankle motion is: a. Rapid dorsiflexion followed by gradual plantarflexion b. Steady plantarflexion throughout both phases c. Rapid plantarflexion followed by steady dorsiflexion d. Steady dorsiflexion throughout both phases

Answer 151

C

Question 152

The primary shock absorption mechanism in the foot during initial contact is: a. Eccentric control of plantarflexion by the soleus b. Eccentric control of dorsiflexion by the soleus c. Eccentric control of supination by the peroneus longus and brevis d. Eccentric control of pronation by the tibialis posterior and anterior

Answer 152

D

Question 153

The primary muscle function at the hip during initial contact and loading response is : a. Eccentric control of hip flexion by the iliopsoas b. Eccentric control of hip extension by the iliopsoas c. Concentric facilitation of hip extension by the gluteus maximus and hamstrings d. Concentric facilitation of hip extension by the rectus femoris

Answer 153

D

Question 154

During terminal stance at the hip, the body vector is: a. Posterior to the hip facilitating hip flexion b. Posterior to the hip facilitating hip extension c. Anterior to the hip facilitating hip extension d. Anterior to the hip facilitation hip flexion

Answer 154

C

Question 155

The initiation of knee flexion that occurs during terminal stance is a direct a. Concentric hamstring activity b. Eccentric hamstring activity c. Movement of the body vector anterior to the metatarsalphalangeal joint, resulting in forward rotation of the tibia d. None of the above

Answer 155

A

Question 156

During terminal stance, the foot reaches its position of: a. Maximum dorsiflexion b. Maximum plantarflexion c. Maximum supination d. None of the above

Answer 156

B

Question 157

Hip flexion during pre-swing occurs as a result of: a. Light activity of the hip flexors (iliopsoas and rectus femoris) b. The rapid ankle plantarflexion that is occurring c. The rapid knee flexion that is occurring d. All of the above

Answer 157

D

Question 158

The knee achieves approximately how many degrees of flexion by the end of pre-swing? a. 20° b. 30° c. 40° d. 50°

Answer 158

C

Question 159

The primary function of knee flexion during pre-swing is: a. To initiate hip flexion b. To prepare the way for toe clearance during swing c. To assist in forward pelvic rotation d. None of the above

Answer 159

B

Question 160

During pre-swing, the ankle undergoes rapid: a. Dorsiflexion b. Plantarflexion c. Pronation d. None of the above

Answer 160

B

Question 161

Much of the plantarflexion that occurs late in pre-swing is a direct result of: a. Forceful contraction of the gastrocsoleus complex b. Ballistic activity from the previously generated momentum c. Hip flexor muscle activity d. Hip extensor muscle activity

Answer 161

A

Question 162

What vein drains the face, scalp, and neck?

Answer 162

external jugular vein

Question 163

Why does residual volume increase with age?

Answer 163

decrease in alveoli elasticity

Question 164

Circumduction is associated with weak what?

Answer 164

hip flexors

Question 165

Weak gluteus maximus is compensated by what?

Answer 165

trunk extension

Question 166

Foot slap is associated with what 2 things?

Answer 166

- flat foot | - weak dorsiflexors

Question 167

What are the strongest ligaments of the shoulder?

Answer 167

- coracoclavicular | - acromioclavicular

Question 168

If a patient's shoulder is adducted and internally rotated, which nerve roots are involved?

Answer 168

C5 and C6

Question 169

Where does the long head of the biceps brachii originate?

Answer 169

on the supraglenoid tubercle

Question 170

Weakness in the ankle dorsiflexors shows involvement of which nerve root?

Answer 170

L4

Question 171

When does maximal pronation of the foot occur during gait?

Answer 171

during midstance