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Year One Comprehensive Material > DPT 622: Human Imaging in PT Practice I > Flashcards

DPT 622: Human Imaging in PT Practice I Flashcards

1
Q

Please match the following cervical spine x-ray views with the most likely visible anatomy.

Oblique: _______

APOM: _______

APLC: _______

Lateral: _______

  • Lateral mass of C1
  • Atlantodental interval
  • Intervertebral foramina
  • Tracheal shadow
A

Oblique: Intervertebral foramina

APOM: Lateral mass of C1

APLC: Tracheal shadow

Lateral: Atlantodental interval

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2
Q

True or False

Spina bifida occulta of the atlas is suggested by an incompletely ossified anteriorarch visible on plain film.

A

False

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3
Q

The upper limit of the atlantodental interval (AID) is ___ mm in adults.

a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
e. 5

A

C

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4
Q

Label structures 1-8

A
  1. Anterior arch of atlas
  2. Dens
  3. Body of axis
  4. Posterior arch of atlas
  5. Pedicle
  6. Lamina
  7. Spinous process
  8. Articular Facets
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5
Q

True or False

After performing you ABCs scan of the following film, the provided view does not demonstrate any evidence of pathology.

A

False

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6
Q

True or False

After performing you ABCs scan of the following film, the provided view does not demonstrate any evidence of pathology.

A

False

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7
Q

Label A-H

A

A. wing of ilium

B. acetabulum and hip joint

C. greater trochanter

D. femoral neck

E. lesser trochanter

F. Ischium

G. superior ramus-pubis bone

H. inferior ramus of the pubis bone

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8
Q

True or False

A torn ACL of the knee may be associated with a “popping” sensation.

A

True

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9
Q

What is the correct name of the landmark depicted in the provided image?

a. Shenton’s line
b. Center edge angle
c. Iliopubic line
d. Ischiopubic line

A

A

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10
Q

Repetitive applications of compressive, rotational, or tensile forces to normal bone may lead to which of the following?

a. Unstable fracture
b. Stress fracture
c. Insufficiency fracture
d. Impacted fracture

A

B

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11
Q

True or False

The following image appears normally with no evidence of pathology.

A

False

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12
Q

True or False

The following image appears normal with no evidence of pathology.

A

False

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13
Q

The signs and symptoms of ulnar entrapment include:

a. Lack of sensitivity to cold temperature
b. Pain relief with repetitive use of hand
c. Numbness in 1st and 2nd digits of hand
d. Loss of strength in intrinsic muscles of hand
e. All of the above

A

D

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14
Q

Which of the following is not a contraindication to MRI?

a. Cardiac pacemakers
b. Harrington rods (titanium)
c. Brain aneurysm clips
d. Shrapnel
e. All of the above

A

B

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15
Q
A

GH Dislocation

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16
Q

Which of the following examinations most likely delivers the highest radiation dos?

a. CT
b. MRI
c. Radionucleide Imaging
d. X-ray

A

A

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17
Q

Which of the following does not exhibit high signal intensity on T1-weighted MRI images?

a. Bone
b. Proteinaceous material
c. Subactue hemorrhage
d. Muscle

A

D

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18
Q

The letter “V” in the diagnostic mnemonic “vindicate” delineates

a. Venous
b. Vaccine
c. Vascular
d. Viral
e. None of the above

A

C

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19
Q

In the radionucleotide imaging of bone, a “hot spot” refers to the following:

a. Osteoclastic activity
b. Bone destruction
c. Necrosis
d. Osteoblastic activity
e. Ischemia

A

D

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20
Q

Which of the following imaging modalities employs the “Hounsfield” unit?

a. Radionuclide scintigraphy
b. Bone scan
c. CT
d. X-ray
e. None of the above

A

C

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21
Q

With attention to sensitivity, radiation exposure, and cost, which of the following procedures would be the best choice to initially image the gallbladder for suspected gallstones?

a. X-ray
b. CT
c. Ultrasound
d. Fluoroscopy
e. MRI

A

C

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22
Q

Label 1, 2, 3, 4, and 8

A

Axially border of scapula: 8

Greater tubercle: 3

Lesser tubercle: 4

Acromion: 2

Clavicle: 1

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23
Q

What is a critical feature of MRI technology?

a. Body density
b. Compton’s effect
c. X-radiation
d. Hydrogen protons
e. Gamma radiation

24
Q

Which examination would be least likely to display a disc lesion?

a. CT
b. MRI
c. Myelography
d. Plain film radiography

25
Q

Which of the following diagnostic imaging procedures would be the most appropriate for the evaluation of a space-occupying lesion within the spinal canal?

a. MRI
b. Ultrasound
c. X-ray
d. Scintigraphy

26
Q
A

AC seperation

27
Q

Which imaging procedure would provide the most anatomical detail of the osseous anatomy of the lumbar spine?

a. Plain film radiography
b. Radionuclide bone scan
c. MRI
d. CT

28
Q

When comparing CT to controversial radiography, CT imaging is associated with _______ radiation does and _______ cost relative to conventional radiography.

a. Lower, lower
b. Higher, lower
c. Lower, higher
d. Higher, higher

29
Q

True or False

MRI uses ionizing radiation to produce an imagine

30
Q

With the exception of monitoring scoliosis, the minimum number of exposures required for diagnostic interpretation is ___ exposures taken at ______ to one another.

a. Four, 90⁰
b. Two, 180⁰
c. Two, 90⁰
d. Three, 90⁰

31
Q

What is the correct order of the following imaging densities arranged from most radiopaque to least radiopaque?

a. Metal > bone > fat > air
b. Metal > fat > air > muscle
c. Air > fat > fluid > bone
d. Bone > fat > air > muscle

32
Q

Which of the following imaging techniques is an example of emission imaging?

a. Conventional radiography
b. Scintigraphy
c. MRI
d. CT

33
Q

Please match the following statistical terms with the correct description

________: given the individual has the condition, the probability that the test will be positive

________: given the individual does not have the condition, the probability that the test will be negative

A

Sensitivity

Specificity

34
Q

Advanced imaging studies such as bone scans, MRI, and CT should be reserved for patients with LBP who are:

a. Presenting with abnormal screening findings
b. Unresponsive to care
c. Surgical candidates
d. Experiencing neurological signs and symptoms
e. All of the above

35
Q

True or False

Suspected fractures not seen on an initial x-ray should not be x-rayed again in 10 to 14 days nor evaluated with further imaging studies.

36
Q

True or False

Patient movement during MRI acquisition does not significantly impact the image quality

37
Q
A

Hill-Sachs Lesion

38
Q

The most useful modality for evaluating arthropathy, because it is relatively inexpensive and rapidly obtained, is the following:

a. Scintigraphy
b. Plain film radiography
c. Computed tomography
d. Magnetic resonance imaging

39
Q

The most common radiographic abnormality encountered in the cervical spine due to rheumatoid arthritis is the following:

a. Neuroforaminal encroachment
b. Atlantoaxial subluxation or instability
c. Hypolordotic curve
d. Tenosynovitis

40
Q

Arc I of the three arcuate lines outlined in the wrist delineates the proximal ________ surfaces of the scaphoid, lunate, and triquetrum

a. Concave
b. Convex

41
Q

Intervertebral disc herniation is more common among the following:

a. 25 to 45 year olds
b. 45 to 65 year olds
c. Nonsmokers
d. Women

42
Q

Spondylolisthesis is characterized by the following:

a. An anterior displacement of a vertebrae in relation to the segment immediately below
b. An anterior displacement of a vertebrae in relation to the segment immediately above
c. A posterior displacement of a vertebrae in relation to the segment immediately above
d. A posterior displacement of a vertebrae in relation to the segment immediately below

43
Q

What is the radiographic projection of the neural arch that resembles a “Scottie dog”?

a. Lateral cervical
b. Lateral lumbar
c. Oblique lumbar
d. Oblique cervical

44
Q

Normally a line drawn along the distal surfaces of the fourth and fifth metacarpals should extend along the distal articular surface of the _____ metacarpal.

a. Fourth
b. Fifth
c. Third
d. Second
e. First

45
Q

The best method of assessing a spondylolisthesis on the lateral lumbar projection x-ray is the following:

a. Disruption of the posterior body (PLL/George’s) lines
c. A collared “scottie dog”
c. An inverted bowline of Brailsford
d. An inverted Napoleon hat sign

46
Q

Which fracture is associated with an axial compression force applied to the cervical spine?

a. Hangman’s fracture
b. Jefferson’s Fracture
c. Transverse process fracture
d. Teardrop fracture

47
Q

A normal carrying angle of the forearm is _____

a. 5⁰
b. 25⁰
c. 60⁰
d. 15⁰
e. 40⁰

48
Q

What causes a Hangman’s fracture?

a. Rotational hyperflexion mechanism
b. Lateral flexion mechanism
c. Axial compression mechanism
d. Hyperextension mechanism

49
Q

True or False

If the ulna is longer than the radius, the term negative ulnar variance is applied

50
Q

The most mechanically stable odontoid fracture is _______ and is described as a(n) _______

a. Type II, avulsion of the tip of the odontoid process
b. Type I, transverse fracture at the base of the odontoid process
c. Type I, avulsion of the tip of the odontoid process
d. Type II, transverse fracture at the base of the odontoid process

51
Q

True or False

Normally there is a slight radial deviation of the proximal phalanges in respect to the metacarpals.

52
Q
A

Jefferson Fracture

53
Q
A

Hangman Fracture

54
Q
A

Odontoid Fracture

55
Q

Normal angulation of the ulnar slant is ____

a. 35-45
b. 5-10
c. 60-70
d. 15-25

56
Q

A congenital block vertebra often displays all of the following features except the following

a. Wasp waist
b. Columnar-shaped vertebral bodies
c. Fusion of the posterior arches
d. A rudimentary intervertebral disc

57
Q

With a PA view of the hand, normally the long axis of the ______ metacarpal is in line with the long axis of the radius

a. Third
b. Fifth
c. Fourth
d. Second
e. First

Year One Comprehensive Material (16 decks)

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