Exam #6: Review Flashcards

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1
Q

List the important characteristics of the Chlamydiaceae family.

A

Lack peptidoglycan
Stain weakly Gram (-)
Contain LPS with weak endotoxin activity

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2
Q

What does C. trachomatis have a tropism for?

A

Nonciliated, columnar, cuboidal, & transitional epithelial cells of the:

  • Urethra
  • Endocervix
  • Endometrium
  • Fallopian tubes
  • Anorectum
  • Respiratory tree
  • Conjunctiva
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3
Q

What is trachoma?

A

Chronic inflammatory/ granulomatous process of the eye leading to:

  • Corneal ulceration
  • Scarring
  • Pannus formation (abnormal layer of granulation tissue)
  • Blindness
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4
Q

What is adult inclusion conjunctivitis?

A

Acute conjunctivitis seen in sexually active adults that is characterized by:

  • Mucopurulent discharge
  • Dermatitis
  • Corneal infiltrates
  • Corneal vascularization (chronic disease)
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5
Q

What are the symptoms of C. trachomatis infections in men & women? What is the important difference?

A

Men=

  • Dysuria
  • Mucopurulent discharge

Women= MOST ASYMPTOMATIC carriers
- PID

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6
Q

What are the complications of C. trachomatis infection in men?

A

1) Epididymidis
2) Prostatitis
3) Reiter Syndrome

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7
Q

What is Reiter Syndrome?

A

1) Urethritis
2) Conjunctivitis
3) Polyarthritis
4) Mucocutaneous lesions

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8
Q

What are the symptoms of LGV?

A

Small, painless ulcers that swell

Painful inguinal lymph nodes that ulcerate

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9
Q

How is C. trachomatis diagnosed?

A

*After obtaining a SCRAPING of the location:

1) Giemsa stain
2) Iodine for reticulate bodies
3) Immunoflourescence of elementary bodies

and

4) NAAT, which is the gold standard

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10
Q

List six virulence factors associated with N. gonorrhoeae. What is unique about some of these virulence factors?

A

1) Pilin= attachment
2) Por protein= promotes intracellular survival
3) Opa protein= attachment
4) LOS= endotoxin (stimulates TNF-alpha & chemokine response)

*These undergo antigenic variation

5) IgA protease
6) B-Lactamase

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11
Q

What complications can be seen in N. gonorrhoeae infection in men & women? (Note disseminated gonorrhoeae)

A

Men=

  • Epididymidis
  • Prostatitis
  • Periuretheral abscess

Women=

  • Salpingitis
  • Tubovarian abscess
  • PID
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12
Q

What are the symptoms of disseminated N. gonorrhoeae?

A

Septicemia
Gonococcal arthritis
Pustular rash

*Leading cause of purulent arthritis in adults

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13
Q

How is N. gonorrhoeae diagnosed?

A

1) Direct smear= Gram negative bean-shaped diplococcus in neutrophils
2) Culture and growth from uretheral or cervical scrapings
3) NAAT

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14
Q

How is N. gonorrhoeae treated?

A

Ceftriaxone + prophylactic Chlamydia treatment i.e. azithromycin or doxycycline

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15
Q

What are the characteristics of Treponema pallidum?

A

Thin Gram (-) spirochete
Motile
Microaerophilic

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16
Q

How is sphyilis diagnosed?

A

Dark field microscopy
Direct fluorescence
Serology
(Treponemal & Non-teponemal- cardiolipin)

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17
Q

What are the symptoms of secondary syphilis?

A

Secondary syphilis= systemic syphilis

  • Flu-like syndrome
  • Prominent desquamating lesion on palms of hands & soles of the feet
  • Condylomata lata
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18
Q

What are symptoms of tertiary syphilis?

A
  • Gummas
  • Diffuse chronic inflammation
  • Can affect any tissue/ organ
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19
Q

What are the symptoms of congenital syphilis?

A
Chronic rhinitis lead to saddle nose 
Hutchinson malformation (teeth) 
Bone malformation
Blind & Dead 
Cardiovascular syphilis
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20
Q

What are the most common causes of NGU? List the characteristics of these organisms.

A
Mcoplasma genitalium ("fried-egg" morphology)- No doxy
Ureaplasma urealyticum 
  • NO cell wall
  • Not stained
  • Pleomorphic
  • Membrane contains sterols
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21
Q

How is Chancroid treated?

A

Macrolides

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22
Q

What causes Donovanosis?

A

Klebsiella granulomatis

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23
Q

What are the symptoms of Donovanosis?

A

Hard, ulcerated, and painless lesion that bleeds easily & has a tendency to cause significant genital damage

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24
Q

How is Donovanosis diagnosed?

A

Donovan bodies

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25
Q

List the characteristics of Lactobacillus. What is unique about where it can grow?

A

Gram (+) rod
Microaerophilic or anaerobic

Cannot grow in urine; thus, it DOES NOT cause UTI

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26
Q

What are the risk factors for bacterial vaginosis?

A
  • Oral sex
  • WSW
  • Sex during menses
  • New or multiple sex partners
  • Smoking
  • IUD
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27
Q

What are the four amsel criteria for bacterial vaginosis diagnosis?

A

1) Discharge (white-gray)
2) Clue cells
3) Whiff test
4) pH greater than 4.5

Remember, “I don’t have a clue why I smell fish in the vagina garden”

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28
Q

What are the complications of bacterial vaginosis?

A

1) Increased STD & HIV risk
2) Increased STD & HIV transmission risk
3) Increased development of post-surgical infections
4) Increased risk of pregnancy complications

29
Q

How is bacterial vaginosis treated?

A

Oral metronidazole

Clindamycin

30
Q

What increased the risk for vulvovaginal candidiasis?

A
  • Antibiotic administration*
  • Systemic corticosteroids
  • Oral contraceptives
  • Pregnancy
  • DM
  • HIV infection
31
Q

How is candidia albicans diagnosed?

A
  • Microscopic examination with 10% KOH
  • Growth & culture on “Nickerson medium”
  • Germ tube test
32
Q

What are the symptoms of Trichomoniasis?

A

Vaginitis
Ictching
Burning
Dysuria

“Yellow-green, frothy, foul-smelling discharge”

33
Q

What is another hallmark finding of Trichomonas vaginalis?

A

Strawberry cervix

This is due to epithelial cell descturction in the GU tract that leads to neutrophil influx & petechial hemorrhage

34
Q

What are the presenting symptoms of TSS?

A
Malaise 
Fever 
Nausea 
Vomiting 
Diarrhea 

Erythroderma

35
Q

How is TSS treated?

A

1) Remove tampon
2) Supportive therapy (shock)
3) Beta-Lactamse resistance PCN or vancomycin

36
Q

What are the symptoms of prostatitis?

A

Lower back pain
Perirectal pain
Testicular pain

37
Q

What are some of the risk factors for developing a UTI?

A
Sexual intercourse
Catheterization (CA-UTI) 
BPH 
DM
Pregnancy
38
Q

What bacteria most commonly cause community acquired UTI?

A

UPEC

S. saprophyticus

39
Q

What bacteria are hospital acquired UTIs associated with?

A

Klebsiella
Proteus mirabilis
Pseudomonas aeruginosa

40
Q

What are serologic makers of enterobacteriaceae?

A

O, H, & K antigens

O= LPS 
K= capsular 
H= flagella
41
Q

What virulence factors are associated with enterobacteriaceae?

A

Endotoxin (LPS)

Antimicrobial resistance

42
Q

What virulence factors are associated with UPEC?

A

Adhesin
Hemolysin
LPS/ Endotoxin

Type I pili (mannose)
P-pili (“sugar”)

43
Q

What virulence factor is associated with Proteus mirabilis? What is the clinical implication?

A

Urease

Urease–> alkanization of the urine that can cause precipitation of organic & inorganic compounds i.e. leading to renal stones

44
Q

How is a Proteus UTI treated?

A

TMP-SMX

45
Q

How is pseudomonas aeruginosa diagnosed?

A

Blue-green cyan pigment

46
Q

How is pseudomonas UTI treated?

A

Multiple antibiotics

47
Q

What risk factors are associated with enterococsus UTI?

A

Hospitalization

Treatment with broad spectrum antibiotics

48
Q

What infections are associated with enterococcus aside from UTI?

A

Peritonitis

Endocarditis

49
Q

How is uncomplicated cystitis treated?

A

TMP-SMX

50
Q

How is pyelonephritis treated?

A

Depends whether the causative organism if Gram positive or Gram negative.

Gram positive= Amoxicillin
Gram negative= Fluoroquinolones

51
Q

What are the requirements for treating asymptomatic asymptomatic bacteriuria? How is it treated?

A

1) Pregnant women
2) Prior urologic surgery
3) Renal transplant

  • Amoxicillin
  • Cephalexin
  • Nitrofurantoin
52
Q

What are the symptoms of acute HIV infection?

A

3-6 weeks post-infection there will be a mononucelosis-like syndrome with:

Fever 
Malaise 
Arthralgia 
Lymphadenopathy
Sore throat 
Rash
53
Q

What are common HIV associated infections & what causes them?

A

Oral Hairy Leukoplakia= EBV
Pneumonia= Pneumocytis jevori & Mycobacterium Tuberculosis
Trursh= candidia albicans
CMV retinitis= CMV
Neoplasm= kopasi’s sacrcoma, B-cell lymphoma
Diarrhea= cryptosporidium & isopsera belli

54
Q

List the classes of antiretroviral drugs.

A
  • Attachment inhibitors= chemokine receptor antagonists (gp120)
  • Fusion inhibitors= gp41
  • Reverse transcriptase inhibitors
    Nuceloside
    Non-nucleoside
  • Integrase inhibitors
  • Protease inhibitors
55
Q

What is the current standard of care for ARV therapy?

A

2x NTRIs +

1) NNRTI
2) II
3) PI

56
Q

What are the symptoms of HSV genital infection?

A

Genital lesion
Fever
Inguinal lymadenopathy
Malaise

57
Q

How does the lesion seen with HSV appear?

A

The lesion progresses from macules to papules, vesicles, pustules, & ulcers

58
Q

List the characteristics of HSV.

A

Herpesvirus family
Enveloped
dsDNA

HSV-2 is most common

59
Q

What are the three presentations of Neonatal Herpes Infection?

A

1) Localization to skin, eyes, & mouth
2) Encephalitis
3) Disseminated infection

60
Q

How is HSV diagnosed?

A

Clinical appearance
Tzanck smear
PCR
Immunohistochemistry to detect antigens

61
Q

Generally, how is HSV infection treated based on different regions that can be infected?

A
Oral= NOT 
Eye= topical antiviral 
Neonatal= IV antiviral 
Genital= oral antiviral (long term if recurrent)
62
Q

List the characteristics of HPV.

A

Papovirus family
dsDNA
non-enveloped

63
Q

What is the medical term for genital warts?

A

Condyloma acumanitum

64
Q

What are the descriptive features of genital warts?

A

Hyperkerototic
Firm
Expohilic papules

65
Q

What serotypes of HPV cause Plantar Warts?

A

1 & 4

66
Q

Which HPV serotypes have the highest association with cancer?

A

HPV 16 & 18

67
Q

How is HPV diagnosed?

A

Main tool for diagnosis is the Pap smear; cells are removed during pelvic examination & placed directly onto glass slide with fixative

  • Mild dysplasia involving lower 1/3 of epithelial= cervical intraepithelial neoplasia I (CINI)
  • Dysplasia of the entire epithelium= carcinoma in situ (CIN3)
  • Dyplasia + breach of the basal membrane= invasive squamous cell carcinoma
68
Q

How is HPV treated?

A

Low grade lesions=

  • Cauterization
  • Cryotherapy
  • CO2 laser therapy
  • Loop excision

Advanced (carcinoma in situ +)=
- Hysterectomy
+/- radiation and/or chemotherapy