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Pharmacology > Exam 4 drug names > Flashcards

Exam 4 drug names Flashcards

1
Q

what is the mnemonic for MAOIs?

A

“TRAN, SELEna IS in the RASA porPHEN”

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2
Q

what should be avoided when taking MAOIs?

A

tyramine-rich foods

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3
Q

-pramine
-triptyline

A

tricyclic antidepressants

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4
Q

what are the kind of side effects for tricyclic antidepressants?

A

anticholinergic

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5
Q

what is the mnemonic for SSRI’s?

A

“LEXA LUV ZOLO bc he’s a PRO and has PAX”

lexapro
luvox
zoloft
prozac
paxil

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6
Q

what is the mnemonic for the SNRI’s?

A

“SER CYMBA is EFFEctive”

serzone
cymbalta
effexor

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7
Q

what medication is used for post-partum depression?

A

Brexanolone

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8
Q

what is the MOA for bupropion?

A

blocks NE and DA reuptake

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9
Q

major ADR for bupropion

A

seizures

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10
Q

what is the MOA for trazodone and nefazodone?

A

inhibits serotonin reuptake

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11
Q

what are the 4 atypical antidepressants?

A

buproprion
trazodone/nefazodone
brexanolone
ketamine

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12
Q

what part of the brain plays a role in depression and antidepressant efficacy?

A

hippocampus

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13
Q

schizophrenic symptoms that appear to reflect an addition to or an excess of normal functions
for example, hallucinations, delusions, and disorganized thinking

A

positive symptoms

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14
Q

schizophrenic symptoms that are absent from normal behavior.
for example, flat affect, anhedonia, and social withdrawal

A

negative symptoms

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15
Q

schizophrenic symptoms that is altered thinking, concentration, and memory

A

cognitive symptoms

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16
Q

what is the MOA for phenothiazines (typical antipsychotics used to treat schizophrenia?

A

blocks dopamine D2R

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17
Q

-idol
-zine

A

phenothiazines (typical antipsychotics)

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18
Q

what is the oldest hypotheses of schizophrenia?

A

increase in dopamine

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19
Q

dopamine pathway that regulates emotion and pleasure, and its hyperactivity is thought to underlie positive symptoms

A

mesolimbic pathway

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20
Q

dopamine pathway that regulates cognitive function due to cortical dopamine

A

mesocortical pathway

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21
Q

dopamine pathway that controls movements and will cause symptoms of parkinson’s disease

A

nigrostriatal pathway

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22
Q

dopamine pathway that inhibits prolactin release, and D2 blockade using anti-psychotic drugs will lead to hyperprolactinemia

A

tuberoinfundibular pathway

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23
Q

neurological emergency that resembles a very severe form of parkinsonism, leading to increases in serum CK and myoglobin, and can persist for weeks following discontinuance of anti-psychotic drugs

A

neuroleptic malignant syndrome

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24
Q

what can be administered for neuroleptic malignant syndrome? (2)

A

dopamine agonist - bromocroptine
muscle relaxant - dantrolene

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25
Q

-zapine

A

atypical antipsychotics

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26
Q

what is the MOA of typical antipsychotics?

A

block dopamine 2 receptor

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27
Q

what is the MOA of atypical antipsychotics?

A

block dopamine 2 receptor AND serotonin in nigrostriatal pathway

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28
Q

-pam
-lam

A

benzodiazepines

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29
Q

MOA for BZ

A

increase Cl channel openings

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30
Q

what is the mnemonic for benzodiazepines that are anxiolytics?

A

“CLOAD”

Clonazepam
Lorazepam
Oxazepam
Alprazolam
Diazepam

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31
Q

what is the mnemonic for benzodiazepines that are hypnotic?

A

“FETT”

Flurazepam
Estazolam
Temazepam
Triazolam

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32
Q

which BZ is more lipophilic, leading to a more rapid onset of action? about 20 mins

A

diazepam

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33
Q

which BZ is less lipophilic, leading to a slower onset of action? about 3 hours

A

oxazepam

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34
Q

why are BZ better choices for patients with impaired liver function?

A

do not have active metabolites and don’t rely on liver enzymes for activation

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35
Q

the sedation effect of BZ can be revered with which medication, that acts as a BZ antagonist?

A

flumazenil

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36
Q

for which patients are BZs contraindicated for?

A

patients taking opioid analgesics

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37
Q

sedation from BZs is less likely to occur in patients with history of? (3)

A

Alcohol use
barbiturate use
smoking

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38
Q

allergic reaction from BZs is more likely to occur in which patients? (3)

A

elderly
smokers
women on oral contraceptives

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39
Q

what part of the brain plays an important role in emotional processing, particularly with regard to fear and anxiety?

A

amygdala

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40
Q

which SSRI is used to treat OCD and PD?

A

Prozac

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41
Q

which SSRI is used to treat only PD?

A

Citalopram

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42
Q

which SSRI is used to treat GAD?

A

Ecitalopram

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43
Q

which SSRI is used to treat GAD, and anxiety associated with PTSD?

A

Buspar

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44
Q

what is the MOA of monoamine uptake inhibitors and monoamine releasers?

A

indirect agonists of DA, NE, and 5-HT

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45
Q

what are monoamine uptake inhibitors known as?

A

methylphenidates (psychomotor stimulants)

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46
Q

what is the mnemonic for monoamine uptake inhibitors (methylphenidates)?

A

RITA is a DAY nurse that likes CONCERTs for a METADATE and RITA is an LA FOCA”

ritalin
daytrana
concerta
metadate
ritalin la
focalin

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47
Q

what are the monoamine releasers known as? (2)

A

amphetamines
methamphetamines

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48
Q

what are the drugs for amphetamines of monoamine releasers?

A

aderall
aderall XR
dexedrine
dexedrine XR
vyvance

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49
Q

what is the drug for methamphetamines of monoamine releasers?

A

desoxyn

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50
Q

which 2 monoamine releasers are used for ADHD and obesity?

A

vyvance
desoxyn

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51
Q

what are 2 alternative CNS stimulants for ADHD?

A

strattera
guanfacine XR

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52
Q

what is the MOA of strattera?

A

NE reuptake inhibitor

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53
Q

what should not be given with strattera?

A

MAOI - would lead to too much NE

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54
Q

what is the MOA of guanfacine XR?

A

alpha adrenergic receptor agonist

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55
Q

what medication is a used for ADHD and is a good alternative to psychomotor stimulants and tricyclic antidepressants?

A

guanfacine XR

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56
Q

prodrug for amphetamine and methamphetamine approved for short-term treatment of obesity

A

didrex (benzphetamine)

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57
Q

prodrug from phenmetrazine that releases DA, approved for short-term treatment of obesity

A

adipost (phendimetrazine)

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58
Q

drug that releases NE, approved for short-term treatment of obesity

A

adipex-p

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59
Q

what medication is adipex-p currently marked to be used in combination?

A

topiramate

MATE

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60
Q

medication that decreases hunger and activity of the brain reward system to attenuate craving - used to treat obesity

A

contrave

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61
Q

sudden loss of muscle tone, momentary paralysis triggered by a sudden emotion

A

cataplexy

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62
Q

CNS stimulants that are used for sleep disorders and have high risk of abuse (2)

A

amphetamines
methylphenidates

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63
Q

2 CNS stimulants that are atypical/weak DA transporter inhibitors, used for sleep disorders AND enhance cognition (study aid)

A

modafinil
armodafinil

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64
Q

what are the severe adverse effects of armodafinil, used as a CNS stimulant for sleep disorders?

A

angioedema
multi-organ hypersensitivity reactions

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65
Q

CNS stimulant that is a NE/DA transporter inhibitor used to treat excessive daytime sleepiness associated with narcolepsy or OSA

A

sunosi

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66
Q

non-stimulant used for narcolepsy

A

gamma hydroxybutyrate

67
Q

which medication used for sleep disorders is the notorious date rate drug?

A

gamma hydroxybutyrate

68
Q

H3 histamine receptor antagonist / inverse agonist that increases histamine in the CNS to promote wakefulness

A

Wakix

69
Q

CNS stimulant for infantile apnea that eliminates episodes > 20 secs and reduces # of episodes that are < 20 secs

A

theophylline

70
Q

why does theophylline require monitoring of plasma concentrations and adjustment of dose schedules?

A

has off-target effects, leading to toxicity, seizures, and sudden death

71
Q

CNS stimulant for infantile apnea that is administered via IV once daily
can cause feeding intolerance, irritability, and cardiovascular problems

A

caffeine

72
Q

what is the half-life of caffeine in adults?

A

3-7 hours

73
Q

what is the half-life of caffeine in infants?

A

65-100 hours

74
Q

the 6 high efficacy mu opioid receptor agonists

A

heroin
morphine
methadone
meperidine
fentanyl
remifentanil

75
Q

which high efficacy mu opioid receptor agonist has good oral bioavailability, a long half-life, and is a sub therapy for opioid use disorder?

A

methadone

76
Q

which high efficacy mu opioid receptor agonist is a synthetic opioid and has anticholinergic activity? (mydriasis, tachycardia)

A

meperidine

77
Q

which high efficacy mu opioid receptor agonist is metabolized by plasma esterases, has a short half-life, and is used for operative pain control?

A

remifentanil

78
Q

the 3 moderate efficacy mu opioid receptor agonists

A

codeine
hydrocodone
oxycodone

79
Q

which moderate efficacy mu opioid receptor agonist is plant-derived and is used in acetaminophen and ibuprofen?

A

codeine

80
Q

which moderate efficacy mu opioid receptor agonist is semi-synthetic and is used in acetaminophen and ibuprofen?

A

hydrocodone

81
Q

which moderate efficacy mu opioid receptor agonist is a slow releasing formulation that should not be crushed, cut or chewed?

A

oxycodone

82
Q

4 partial/low efficacy mu opioid receptor agonists

A

Talwin
Nubain
Bupranorphine
Buprenorphine + Naloxone

83
Q

which partial/low efficacy mu opioid receptor agonists is used for moderate-severe pain?

A

Talwin

84
Q

which partial/low efficacy mu opioid receptor agonists is only used by IV and is not scheduled?

A

Nubain

85
Q

which partial/low efficacy mu opioid receptor agonists can be used by IV or SL, and is abused via IV?

A

buprenorphine

86
Q

which partial/low efficacy mu opioid receptor agonists is used for opioid use disorder?

A

buprenorphine + naloxone

87
Q

nal-

A

mu opioid receptor antagonists

88
Q

which mu opioid receptor antagonist blocks all opioid receptors and is the drug of choice to reverse opioid overdose?

A

naloxone (narcan)

89
Q

which mu opioid receptor antagonist blocks all opioid receptors and is used to treat alcoholism (PO) and opioid use disorder (IM)

A

naltrexone

90
Q

which mu opioid receptor antagonist blocks only mu receptors and is used to reverse opioid effects

A

nalmefene

91
Q

what is the primary cause of death in adverse effects of opioid analgesics?

A

respiratory suppression

92
Q

what does the withdrawal syndrome of chronic opioid use resemble?

A

flu-like symptoms

93
Q

detoxification after opioid dependence can be followed by long-term maintenance on opioid antagonist _____

A

naltrexone

94
Q

what is used as the most common approach to treating opioid abuse, due to long half-life? (2)

A

methadone
buprenorphine

95
Q

one “i”

A

esters

96
Q

two “i’s”

A

amides

97
Q

what are esters degraded by?

A

plasma esterases

98
Q

what are amides degraded by?

A

hepatic enzymes

99
Q

what is the MOA of esters and amides as local anesthetics?

A

block Na conductance in sensory nerve fibers

100
Q

effectiveness of local anesthetics are reduced by what, that favor resting state?

A

high extracellular Ca

101
Q

effectiveness of local anesthetics are enhanced by what, that favor active/inactivated state?

A

high intracellular K+

102
Q

large doses of local anesthetics can cause convulsions. What can be given to treat convulsions?

A

diazepam

103
Q

involuntary hyper-excitability of a normal reflex

A

spasticity

104
Q

involuntary tonic increase in muscle tone

A

muscle spasm

105
Q

spasticity treatment that increases K+ conductance - used for MS and trauma

A

baclofen

106
Q

spasticity treatment that increases Cl conductance - used for MS, trauma, cerebral palsy, and supraspinal levels

A

diazepam

107
Q

spasticity treatment that is an alpha adrenergic agonist that increases K+ conductance - used for ALL spasticity

A

Zanaflex

108
Q

spasticity treatment that is a ryanodine receptor antagonist that inhibits Ca release - used for ALL spasticity

A

dantrolene

109
Q

what is important to remember about dantrolene?

A

it will affect ALL muscles in the body

110
Q

what are 3 DDI with dantrolene?

A

BP meds
oral birth control
sedatives

111
Q

what is the mnemonic for muscle relaxants that treat spasms?

A

“SOMA is FLEXin’ and reLAXIN’”

soma
flexeril
norflex
paraflex
skelaxin
robaxin

112
Q

combining flexeril with an MAOI will result in what?

A

serotonin syndrome

113
Q

paraflex should not be combined with ______; if combined, it will result in _____ _____

A

acetaminophen
liver toxicity

114
Q

skelaxin should not be combined with _____; if combined, it will result in _____ _____

A

SSRIs
serotonin syndrome

115
Q

where is H1 distributed?

A

throughout the body

116
Q

where is H2 distributed?

A

cardio
gastric acid

117
Q

where is H3 distributed?

A

CNS

118
Q

where is H4 distributed?

A

blood cell production

119
Q

-amine

A

1st generation H1 antihistamines

120
Q

H1 receptor antagonists / inverse agonists that are first generation antihistamines use for allergic rhinitis (4)
+ half life

A

diphenhydramine - 9 hrs
doxylamine - 11 hrs
clemastine - 20 hrs
chlorpheniramine - 30 hrs

121
Q

what is the underlying cause of narcolepsy?

A

deficiencies in orexin

122
Q

what do we want less of to treat insomnia?

A

orexin

123
Q

-exant

A

orexin receptor antagonists - treat insomnia

124
Q

H1 receptor antagonists that are 2nd generation antihistamines that cause less sedation and anticholinergic effects (4)
+ half life

A

claritin - 8 hrs
allegra - 15 hrs
zyrtec - 24 hrs
clarinex - 27 hrs

125
Q

intranasal mast cell stabilizer used for allergic rhinitis

A

cromolyn sodium

126
Q

inhaler mast cell stabilizer used for asthma

A

nedocromil

127
Q

eye drops mast cell stabilizer used for allergic conjunctivitis

A

cromolyn sodium
nedocromil

128
Q

what is the first-line therapy for anaphylaxis?

A

epinephrine via IM

129
Q

what are 3 second-line treatments for anaphylaxis?

A

antihistamines
corticosteroids
dopamine/NE

130
Q

4 first-line treatments for n/v during pregnancy

A

doxylamine + vit B
doxylamine
diphenhydramine
metoclopramide

131
Q

what is the last resort treatment for n/v in pregnancy?

A

ondansetron

132
Q

what is the mnemonic for n/v in pregnancy?

A

“the D, D, D is the M, O”

133
Q

-tidine

A

H2 inhibitors used to treat peptic ulcers

134
Q

-prazole

A

proton pump inhibitors used to treat peptic ulcers

135
Q

inhibitors used to treat mild, intermittent symptoms of peptic ulcers

A

H2 inhibitors

136
Q

inhibitors used to treat moderate-severe, frequent symptoms of peptic ulcers

A

proton pump inhibitors

137
Q

what is the ADR of H2 inhibitors?

A

headache

138
Q

what is the ADR specific to cimetidine?

A

gynecomastia if used for over 1 month

139
Q

ADR of proton pump inhibitors

A

headache
dizziness
abdominal signs

140
Q

which serotonin receptor is specific for n/v?

A

5-HT3

141
Q

5-HT 1B sit where?

A

vasculature

142
Q

5-HT 1D sit where?

A

neurons

143
Q

how long do migraines typically last?

A

2-72 hrs

144
Q

how long do cluster headaches usually last?

A

15 mins - 3 hrs

145
Q

what is effective in treating mild symptoms of migraines only, not cluster headaches? (2)

A

NSAIDs
Opioids

146
Q

what reduces symptoms in 70% of patients, only for cluster headaches?

A

oxygen

147
Q

what route is preferred for triptans?

A

SQ injection

148
Q

what 2 routes is preferred for ergotamines?

A

injection
intranasal

149
Q

what is an ADR of triptans?

A

recurrent migraine if used more than 10 days per month

150
Q

triptans and ergotamines are CI in: (3)

A

cardiovascular disease
pregnancy
younger than 18 yrs

151
Q

what drugs are CI with triptans and ergotamines?

A

SSRIs
SNRIs
MAOIs

152
Q

what CYP 3A4 inhibitors should be avoided with triptans and ergotamines? (2)

A

grape fruit juice
ketoconazole

153
Q

3 prophylactic treatments for migraines

A

depakote
topamax
propranolol

154
Q

antiepileptic used for migraines with actions at Na channels and GABA

A

depakote

155
Q

anticonvulsant used for migraines with actions at Na, Ca channels and GABA A

A

topamax

156
Q

2 prophylactic treatments for cluster headaches

A

Verapamil
topamax

157
Q

what should be avoided when taking topamax? (2)

A

alcohol
tobacco

158
Q

-mab

A

CGRP monoclonal antibodies used to treat migraines (NEW TREATMENT)

159
Q

how should CGRP monoclonal antibodies be administered?

A

injection d/t slow onset of action

160
Q

-gepant

A

CGRP antagonists used to treat migraines (NEW TREATMENT)

161
Q

how should CGRP antagonists be administered?

when are symptoms reduced?

A

orally - reduces symptoms within 2 hours

162
Q

what is CI when taking CGRP Antagonists?

A

CYP 3A4 inhibitors

163
Q

what is the most common adverse effect of ondansetron?

A

headache

164
Q

what receptor does ondansetron act on?

A

5-HT3 (antagonist)

Pharmacology (13 decks)

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