Exam 4 Flashcards

1
Q

Antigen

A

A toxin or other foreign substance that induces an immune response in the body especially the production of antibodies

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2
Q

Autoimmune disease

A

A disease in which the body produces antibodies that attack its own tissues leading to the deterioration and in some cases to the distraction of such tissue

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3
Q

Innate immunity

A

A type of immunity that is non-specific and response to all foreign material

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4
Q

Adaptive immunity

A

A specific type of immunity that responds to one antigen memory

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5
Q

Two types of immunity?

A
  1. Innate immunity

2. Adaptive immunity

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6
Q

Mechanical and chemical barriers that protect the body

A
  1. skin
  2. mucus membranes
  3. stomach acid
  4. flow of tears
  5. Flow of urine
  6. coughing and sneezing
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7
Q

Skin

A

Skin is a barrier for entry of bacteria and viruses

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8
Q

Mucus membranes

A

Mucous membranes trap particles and move them to the surface

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9
Q

Stomach acid

A

Stomach acid kills bacteria and viruses stomach acid has a low pH

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10
Q

Flow of tears

A

The flow of tears removes bacteria and viruses

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11
Q

Flow of urine

A

The flow of urine removes bacteria and viruses

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12
Q

Coughing and sneezing

A

Coughing and sneezing and removes bacteria and viruses

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13
Q

Interferon

A

And interferon is a protein released by animal cells usually in response to the entry of a virus that has The property of inhibiting virus replication

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14
Q

How does a virus reproduce?

A
  1. The virus attaches to a cell
  2. The virus injects its DNA into the cell
  3. The cell begins to produce viruses
  4. when the cell becomes full of viruses it bursts
  5. The viruses then infect New cells
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15
Q

How interferons work?

A

The infected cell makes interferons to signal the neighboring cells to start producing anti-viral proteins

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16
Q

Where do white blood cells develop?

A

White blood cells develop in red bone marrow

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17
Q

Phagocytes

A

A type of White blood cell that Engulfs bacteria also known as big eater cells

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18
Q

White blood cells produce what?

A
  1. Antibodies

2. Histamines which signal infection

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19
Q

Types of white blood cells

A
  1. neutrophils
  2. monocytes (macrophages)
  3. basophils and mast cells
  4. Eosinophils
  5. natural killer cells
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20
Q

Neutrophils

A

Neutrophils are small phagocytes 125 billion are dumped into our intestines daily. Neutrophils migrate to infected tissue and release lysozymes which are enzymes

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21
Q

Monocytes (macrophages)

A

Monocytes are large Phagocytes which migrate to infected tissue. Monocytes produce complement proteins and interferons they are found in the lymph nodes

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22
Q

Basophils and mast cells

A

When a mast cell is circulating it is called a basophil when a mast cell is down in the tissue it is called a mast cell. Mast cells produce histamines another signals

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23
Q

Eosinophils

A

Eosinophils migrate to tissues and breakdown histamines. They also secrete enzymes to kill parasites usually larger parasites like worms

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24
Q

Natural killer cells

A

Natural killer cells are also called lymphocytes they recognize cancer and virus-infected cells. They sit next to an infected sell and release chemicals to Lyse the cell

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25
Q

Steps to inflammatory response activation

A
  1. The tissue is damaged and bacteria enter
  2. Chemical signals and histamines are released by basophil mast cells
  3. Chemical signals lead to increased blood flow, chemotaxis and, vascular permeability
  4. neutrophils and other white blood cells like macrophages migrate to the injury site and remove pathogens by Phagocytosis
  5. macro phages secrete hormones called cytokines that attract immune system cells to the site and activate cells involved into tissue repair
  6. Inflammatory response continues until the foreign material is eliminated and the wound is repaired
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26
Q

Inflammatory response feedback loop

A
  1. White blood cells come to injury site
  2. White blood cells destroy bacteria until bacteria are gone
  3. If bacteria are still present more chemical signals are sent out to attract more white blood cells until no bacteria are left
  4. if some bacteria remain the cycle repeats until all bacteria are gone
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27
Q

Functions of the lymphatic system

A
  1. Fluid balance- 10% of fluid from the blood returns as lymph
  2. Fat absorption and transport- starts transport from intestine to veins
  3. Immune defense- fights disease and infection
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28
Q

Lymph vessels

A

Lymph vessels are found near arteries and veins. Lymph vessles have valves.

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29
Q

Lymphatic ducts

A
  1. Thoracic duct
  2. Jugular trunk
  3. Subclavian trunk
  4. Bronchomediastinal trunk
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30
Q

Thoracic duct

A

Drains lymph from lumbar trunks and, lower body lumbar region and legs

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31
Q

Jugular trunk

A

Drains lymph from head and neck

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32
Q

Subclavian trunk

A

Drains lymph from arms and superficial thoracic

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33
Q

Bronchomediastinal trunk

A

Drains lymph from thorax

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34
Q

Parts of a lymph node

A
  1. Afferent duct
  2. Nodule
  3. Germinal center
  4. Efferent duct
  5. Capsule
  6. Trabecula
  7. Diffuse tissue
  8. Medullary sinus
  9. Cortical sinus
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35
Q

Capsule

A

The capsule of a lymph node is the outer layer which is made of dense irregular connective tissue

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36
Q

Trabeculae

A

Made of dense irregular connective tissue you seen as light colored open spaces

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37
Q

afferent flow

A

Flow into the lymph node

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38
Q

Efferent flow

A

Flow out of the lymph node

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39
Q

Sinuses

A

Open areas for flow of lymph

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40
Q

Where are macrophages found in lymph nodes?

A

Lining the sinuses

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41
Q

Where are lymphocytes found in a lymph node?

A

In the lymphatic nodules

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42
Q

What is the purpose of the germinal center of the lymph node?

A

It serves as the site of mitosis for lymphocytes

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43
Q

Medullary cord

A

Is made of diffuse lymphatic tissue

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44
Q

Functions of the immune system?

A
  1. Recognition of self; kill everything else
  2. Innate immunity: non specific immunity, responds to all foreign material
  3. Adaptive immunity; specific responds to one antigen memory
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45
Q

unencapsulated lymphatic tissue

A

Lymphatic tissue that is not surrounded by connective tissue and

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46
Q

Diffuse lymphatic tissue

A

Loose collection of lymphatic tissue

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47
Q

Lymphatic nodules

A

Dense arrangement of the lymphatic tissue

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48
Q

Tonsils

A

Large collection of nodules

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49
Q

Macosa associated lymphoid tissue is found in the lining of

A

Digestive system

Reproductive system

Urinary system

Respiratory system

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50
Q

Types of tonsils

A
  1. Pharyngeal tonsils- found on roof of mouth
  2. Palatine tonsils- found on sides of mouth
  3. Lingual tonsils- found on back of tongue
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51
Q

Encapsulated to lymphatic tissue

A

Lymphatic tissue that is surrounded by connective tissue

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52
Q

What are the three different encapsulated lymphatic tissues?

A
  1. Lymph nodes
  2. spleen
  3. Thymus
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53
Q

What is the function of Lymph nodes?

A

Lymph nodes filter bacteria from lymph

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54
Q

What are the three functions of the spleen?

A
  1. Destroys old red blood cells
  2. Part of the immune system
  3. Small blood reservoir
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55
Q

What is the function of the thymus?

A

Site of T-lymphocyte maturation

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56
Q

What is the area of the spleen where the arteries and veins attach?

A

Hilum

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57
Q

What are the components of the spleen?

A
  1. Artery
  2. Vein
  3. White pulp
  4. Red pulp
  5. Trabecula
  6. Capsule
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58
Q

White pulp

A

Contains lymphatic nodules

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59
Q

Red pulp

A

Contains venous sinuses and has open flow

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60
Q

Splenic cord

A

Contains reticular cells, macrophages and removes old red blood cells

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61
Q

Fast flow

A

Directly from arteries into Venous sinuses. About 88% of flow in spleen takes only a few seconds

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62
Q

Intermediate flow

A

Percolates through splenic cord. 10% of flow and spleen takes a few minutes

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63
Q

Slow flow

A

Percolates through splenic cord 2% of flow in spleen takes an hour

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64
Q

Components of the thymus

A
  1. Capsule
  2. Trabecula
  3. Cortex
  4. Medulla
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65
Q

Types of lymphocytes

A
  1. Natural killer cells
  2. B lymphocytes
  3. T lymphocytes
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66
Q

Natural killer cells

A

Attack and kill cells displaying signs of not being part of the organism

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67
Q

B Lymphocytes

A

Responsible for antibody production

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68
Q

T lymphocytes

A

Attack cells showing specific antigens

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69
Q

What is Costimulation?

A

In some immune responses a B cell or a T-cell becomes activated when an antigen or nonself cell binds to an activation then initiates proliferation and most immune responses however activation requires the presence of a Costimulator

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70
Q

What is the cytokine?

A

Any of a number of substances such as the interferon interleukin and growth factors that are secreted by certain cells of the immune system and have an effect on other cells

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71
Q

Process of costimulation

A
  1. A bacteria or virus enters the body
  2. Proteins combine with MHC II
  3. Proteins are displayed on the surface
  4. antigen persists
  5. Helper T cells proliferate
  6. The cloned T cells recognize the antigen
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72
Q

Antibody production

A
  1. Clone line of B cells proliferate

2. And produce antibodies to a specific antigen

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73
Q

Primary response

A

The response that the immune system displays when first exposed to an antigen memory cells are created and antibodies are created for the next exposure

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74
Q

Secondary response

A

An integrated bodily response to an antigen especially one mediated by lymphocytes and involving recognition of antigens by specific antibodies or previously sensitized lymphocytes. Secondary responses are generally stronger and faster then primary responses

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75
Q

What are the functions of the digestive system?

A
  1. Ingestion
  2. Secretion
  3. Mixing and propulsion
  4. Digestion
  5. Absorption
  6. Defecation
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76
Q

Ingestion

A

Eating and drinking

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77
Q

Secretion

A

Cells produce products and dump them into the lumen

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78
Q

Mixing and propulsion

A

Also known as peristalsis

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79
Q

What are the two types of digestion?

A
  1. Mechanical

2. Chemical

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80
Q

Mechanical digestion

A

Chewing and mixing

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81
Q

Chemical digestion

A

Enzymes break down food molecules

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82
Q

Absorption

A

Taking in monomers

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83
Q

Monomer

A

A simple molecule of relatively low molecular weight capable of reacting to form by repetition a polymer. some basic unit of a molecule either the molecule itself or some structural or functional subunit of it. Basic nutritional unit of a food item

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84
Q

Defecation

A

Eliminating waste

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85
Q

Components of the digestive system

A
  1. Mouth
  2. Salivary glands
  3. Pharynx
  4. Esophagus
  5. Stomach
  6. Liver
  7. Pancreas
  8. Gallbladder
  9. Large intestine
  10. Small intestine
  11. Cecum
  12. Appendix
  13. Rectum
  14. Anus
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86
Q

Abdominal regions

A
  1. Right hypochondriac region
  2. Right lumbar region
  3. Right iliac/inguinal region
  4. Epigastric region
  5. Umbilical region
  6. Hypogastric/pubic region
  7. Left hypochondriac region
  8. Left lumbar region
  9. Left iliac/inguinal region
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87
Q

Parts of the peritoneum

A
  1. Falciform ligament
  2. Parietal peritoneum
  3. Greater omentum
  4. Bursa
  5. Small instestine
  6. Urinary bladder
  7. Corrinary ligament
  8. liver
  9. Lesser omentum
  10. stomach
  11. Pancreas
  12. Duodenum
  13. Mesocolon
  14. Transverse colon
  15. Mesentary
  16. Rectum
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88
Q

Layers of the G.I. tract

A
  1. Lumen
  2. Mucosa
  3. submucosa
  4. Muscularis
  5. Serosa
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89
Q

Components of the Mucosa

A
  1. Epithelium: interlining toward Lumen mucous membrane
  2. Lamina Propria: areolar connective tissue, lymphatic connective tissue
  3. Muscularis mucosa: in layer of smooth muscle
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90
Q

Components of submucosa

A
  1. Areolar CT
  2. Blood vessels, nerves, lymphatic vessles
  3. Connects mucosa to muscles
  4. Contains some glands in intestine
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91
Q

Components of muscularis

A

Contains thick layers of muscle contains skeletal muscle found in mouth pharynx and esophagus smooth muscle which is found in a esophagus stomach and intestines

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92
Q

Components of serosa

A

Contains areolar connective tissue and epithelium also has serous membrane continues with membranes that suspend the organs

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93
Q

Components of the mouth

A
  1. Superior lip
  2. Fauces
  3. Tongue
  4. Gums
  5. Vestibule
  6. Inferior lip
  7. Cheek
  8. Uvula
  9. Soft palate
  10. Hard palate
  11. Teeth
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94
Q

3 types of salivary glands

A
  1. Parotid
  2. Sublingual
  3. Submandibular
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95
Q

Saliva

A

Contains water mucous digestive enzymes it lubricates the food and starts chemical digestion

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96
Q

Parotid glands

A

Near ear, makes watery solution that contains high amounts of the enzyme amylase

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97
Q

Submandibular glands

A

Located inside mandible creates thick mucus with some Amylase

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98
Q

Sublingual glands

A

Located below the tongue synthesizes very thick mostly mucousy saliva

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99
Q

Lingual glands on tongue

A

Creates lingual lipase

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100
Q

Parts of the tooth

A
  1. Enamel
  2. Gingiva
  3. Dentin
  4. Pulp
  5. Root canal
  6. Cementum
  7. periodintal ligaments
  8. Bone
  9. Apical foramen
  10. Crown
  11. Neck
  12. Root
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101
Q

The difference between deciduous and permanent teeth

A

Deciduous teeth also known as milk teeth erupt from a child to gums. They are organized by alphabet all the way up to the letter T. Deciduous teeth include incisors canine and molars. Permanent teeth are organized by Numbers all the way from 1 to 32. Permanent teeth include incisors premolars molars and canine. Deciduous teeth do not have premolars

102
Q

Structures of the pharynx and near the pharynx

A
  1. Uvula
  2. Pharynx
  3. Epiglottis
  4. Trachea
  5. Esophagus
103
Q

The process of swallowing

A
  1. The tongue forces food to the back of the mouth
  2. The food pushes against the soft palate the soft palate in the uvula rise blocking the opening to the nasopharynx
  3. as the food moves down he comes in contact with epiglottis
  4. The epiglottis bends to cover the glottis which is the opening to the trachea
  5. Food travels down the esophagus by Peristalsis into the stomach
104
Q

Bolus

A

A soft roundish mass or lump especially of chewed food

105
Q

Oropharynx

A

The part of the pharynx between the soft palate and upper edge of the epiglottis

106
Q

Larynx

A

A muscular and cartilaginous structure aligned with mucous membrane at the upper part of the trachea and humans in which the vocal chords are located

107
Q

Superior pharyngeal constrictor

A

A muscle of the pharynx that is involved in swallowing

108
Q

Middle pharyngeal constrictor

A

A muscle that is located in East superior pharyngeal constrictor also responsible for swallowing

109
Q

Lower esophageal sphincter

A

Sphincter located at the beginning of the stomach near cardiac region

110
Q

Parts of the stomach

A
  1. Fundus
  2. Body
  3. Cardia
  4. Lesser curvature
  5. Greater curvature
  6. Rugae
  7. Pyloric sphincter
  8. Pyloric region
  9. duodenum
111
Q

Histology of stomach

A
  1. gastric pit
  2. Goblet cell
  3. Parietal cell
  4. Chief cell
  5. G cell
  6. Mucosa
  7. Submucosa
  8. Muscularis
  9. Serosa
112
Q

Goblet cell function

A

Creates mucous to protect stomach lining

113
Q

Mucous neck cells

A

Create mucous to protect stomach lining

114
Q

Parietal cells

A

Produce hydrochloric acid

115
Q

Chief cells

A

Are responsible for the production of digestive enzymes

116
Q

G cells

A

Produce a hormone called gastrin

117
Q

Gastrin

A

A hormone that stimulates the secretion of gastric juice

118
Q

Parts of the gallbladder

A
  1. Cystic duct
  2. Common bile duct
  3. Accessory pancreatic duct
119
Q

Parts of the pancreas

A
  1. Pancreatic duct
  2. Pancreas
  3. Hepatopancreatic ampula
120
Q

Lobes of the liver

A
  1. Caudate lobe
  2. Left lobe
  3. Quadrate lobe
  4. Right lobe
  5. Gall bladder
121
Q

The liver has

A

Bile ducts and hepatic sinusoids

122
Q

The pancreas has

A

Acini cells, pancreatic islets, To pancreatic duct

123
Q

What happens in the duodenum?

A

After food move some of the stomach to the duodenum the first section of the intestine it combines with bile from the call Bladder and digestive juices from the pancreas the intestines contract and relax through peristaltic action to mix the substances with food to promote digestion

124
Q

Parts of the small intestine

A
  1. Duodenum
  2. Jejunum
  3. Ileum
125
Q

Histology of the small intestine

A
  1. Villus
  2. intestinal glands
  3. Blood vessels
  4. Lymphatic vessles
126
Q

Cells of the small intestine

A
  1. Absorptive cell: absorbs nutrients
  2. Goblet cells: secretes mucous
  3. Enterendocrine cells: secretes hormones
  4. Paneth cells: involved in immune response
127
Q

Parts of large intestine

A
  1. appendix
  2. cecum
  3. Ascending colon
  4. Hepatic flexure
  5. Transverse colon
  6. Splenic flexure
  7. Descending colon
  8. Haustra
  9. Sigmoid colon
  10. Rectum
  11. Anal canal and sphincter
128
Q

Functions of large intestine

A
  1. Absorption of water

2. Formation of feces via symbiotic bacteria, haustral churning (peristalsis), mass peristalsis

129
Q

How does defecation occur?

A
  1. Mass peristalsis stretches the rectum
  2. Longitudinal rectal muscles contract
  3. Internal sphincter opens (involuntary)
  4. We contract abdominal muscles
  5. We open our internal sphincter (voluntarily)
  6. Defecation
130
Q

Functions of the respiratory system

A
  1. Gas exchange
  2. Regulates pH
  3. Voice
  4. Olfactory sense
  5. Protection against microorganisms
131
Q

Parts of the respiratory system

A
  1. Nasal cavity
  2. Pharynx
  3. Larynx
  4. Trachea
  5. Bronchi
  6. Lungs
132
Q

Parts of the nasal cavity

A
  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Cribriform plate
  3. Concha
  4. Meatus
  5. Vestibule
  6. Naris
133
Q

How the nasal cavity works

A

Air flows through the Naris to the vestibule it is then forced up to the olfactory receptors through the cribriform plate it then flows through the Meatus between the Concha. Turbulence makes the particles hit the mucus membranes and it then moves into the nasopharynx

134
Q

Features of the pharynx

A

The pharynx is the area where the tubes cross.

  1. Nasopharynx
  2. Soft palate
  3. Oral cavity
  4. Pharynx
  5. Epiglottis
  6. Glottis
  7. Esophagus
135
Q

What happens during swallowing

A
  1. The soft palate in the uvula block the opening to the nasopharynx
  2. The epiglottis bends down and blocks the glottis which is the opening to the trachea
136
Q

Features of the larynx

A
  1. Epiglottis
  2. Thyroid cartilage
  3. Arytenoid cartilage
  4. Cricoid cartilage
  5. Tracheal cartilage
137
Q

What is the position of the vocal chords when breathing?

A

Open

138
Q

What is the position of the vocal chords when speaking?

A

Closed

139
Q

Only the interior part of the vocal chords vibrate during what types of sound?

A

High pitched

140
Q

More of the vocal cords are used to create…

A

Lower pitched sounds

141
Q

The trachealis muscle is located

A

Anterior to the esophagus and posterior to the trachea

142
Q

The tracheal mucous membrane

A

Goblet cells produce mucus which captures dirt and bacteria the cilia on the pseudostratified cells moves the particles out of the body

143
Q

Components of the tracheobronchial tree

A
  1. Trachea
  2. Primary bronchus
  3. Secondary bronchus
  4. Tertiary Bronchus
  5. Bronchiole
  6. Terminal bronchioles
144
Q

The conducting zone of the Tracheobronchial tree

A

Responsible for the movement of air starts at trachea and ends at terminal bronchioles

145
Q

Respiratory zone of tracheobronchial tree

A

Is responsible for gas exchange begins at terminal bronchioles and ends at aveoli

146
Q

Respiratory zone

A

Terminal bronchial, alveolar ducts and Aveoli

147
Q

Gas exchange in aveoli

A

High O2 and low co2 inside aveoli, low O2 and high co2 outside of aveoli

148
Q

Anatomy of the lung

A
  1. Apex
  2. Hilum
  3. Cardiac notch
  4. Base
149
Q

Pleura membranes

A

Parietal pleura: covers wall of thoracic cavity

Visceral pleura: covers the lungs

Mediastinum: separates right and left lungs; contains heart, esophagus, trachea, etc

150
Q

What are the muscles of breathing in?

A

external intercostals: pulls ribs up

Pectoralis minor: pulls ribs up

Diaphragm: expands thoracic cavity

151
Q

What are the muscles of breathing out?

A

Internal intercostals: pull ribs down

Abdominal muscles: compresses abdomen and pushes on thoracic cavity

152
Q

Ventilation (pressure differences) of lungs

A

Air flows from high-pressure to low-pressure

When the thorax expands pressure decreases and air flows in

When the thorax compresses pressure increases and air flows out

153
Q

How does the lung recoil?

A

The Aveoli get smaller as air flows out

Elastic fibers provide stretching and recoil

Surface tension of water also causes recoil surfactants (lipoproteins) reduce this tension and prevents collapse of lung

154
Q

High compliance

A

High compliance: breakdown of elastic tissue in the lung;expands to easily; example emphysema

155
Q

Compliance (lung) def.

A

Ease of expansion

156
Q

Low compliance

A

Inelastic fibers in the lung; lung does not expand easily; example pulmonary fibrosis

157
Q

Controlled breathing

A

Controlled breathing is done through voluntary control and involuntary control

158
Q

Voluntary control of breathing

A

Apnea: holding your breath

Hyperventilating

159
Q

Involuntary control breathing

A

Holding your breath until you faint

And then beginning to breathe again

160
Q

Breathing is controlled by

A

Medulla in the brain

Carotid artery

Stretch receptors in lungs

Muscles and joints

Pain receptors

161
Q

How does the medulla control breathing?

A

Low pH which is acidic and high CO2 stimulate breathing

162
Q

How does the carotid artery control breathing?

A

Low pH high carbon dioxide and low oxygen

163
Q

How do the stretch receptors in the lungs control breathing?

A

They receive information about the status of your lung you don’t breathe on expanded lung

164
Q

How do muscles and joints control breathing?

A

Muscle contractions directly stimulate breathing

165
Q

How do you pain receptors control breathing?

A

Paint stimulates breathing

166
Q

Functions of the urinary system

A

Excretion of waste products

Regulation of blood volume and blood pressure

Regulation of the concentration of solutes in the blood

Regulation of extracellular pH

Regulation of red blood cell production

Vitamin D synthesis

167
Q

Gross anatomy of the urinary system

A

Renal artery and vein

Kidney

Ureter

Urinary bladder

Urethra

168
Q

Components of the kidney

A

Renal capsule

Cortex

Medulla

Major calyx

Renal artery

Renal vein

Renal pelvis

Ureter

Minor calyces

Renal pyramid

Renal column

Medullary rays

169
Q

What is the functional unit of the kidney?

A

The nephron

170
Q

Components of the nephron

A

Proximal convoluted tubule

Renal corpuscle

Arcuate artery+ vein

Distal convoluted tubule

Loop of henle

Collecting duct

Vasa recta

171
Q

Components of the renal corpuscle

A

Bowmans capsule

Glomerulus

Capillary

172
Q

Where does filtration take place?

A

Renal corpuscle

173
Q

Parts involved in filtration

A

Filtration slit

Podocyte

Basement membrane

Fenestra (holes) in capillary

174
Q

Molecules less then _______ can pass through the filter

A

7nm

175
Q

Proximal tube

A

Most of the reabsorption and secretion takes place in the proximal tubule

176
Q

What is the histology of the proximal tube?

A

The cells of the proximal to contain micro really to increase the surface area of the cell membrane (area limits movement)

177
Q

What happens at the loop of henle?

A

The reabsorption of water

178
Q

What are the two types of nephrons?

A

Cortical (85%)

Juxtamedullsry (15%)

179
Q

The descending loop of the nephron contains

A

Water and solutes

180
Q

The sending thin loop of the nephron contains

A

Solutes

181
Q

The sending thick loop of the nephron is responsible for

A

Active transport of solutes out

182
Q

Distal tube

A

Sodium is reabsorbed by active transport

Calcium and potassium are you absorbed through active transport

Calcium and potassium are you absorbed through facilitated diffusion

183
Q

The collecting duct of the nephron is responsible for

A

Rehab sorption of water

urine concentration

184
Q

Parts of the nephron and Bowmans capsule responsible for regulating blood pressure

A

Juxtaglomerular cells

Afferent arteriole

Glomerulus

Macula densa

Distal tube

Efferent arteriole

185
Q

The urinary bladder and ureters contain

A

Stretch receptors

transitional epithelium

smooth muscle

186
Q

Flow of urine out of the body

A

Urine is created in the kidneys flows down the ureters into urinary bladder goes through the internal urethral sphincter and out of the external urethral sphincter her into the urethra and out of the body

187
Q

Unique features of transitional epithelium

A

Transitional epithelium stretches and the cells change shape

188
Q

Unique characteristic of ureter

A

Folding and transitional epithelium allow stretch for pulses of urine

189
Q

Empty bladder

A

During the relaxed filling state of the bladder, input from higher CNS to the spinal cord sends a tonic discharge via motor neuron telling the external sphincter (skeletal muscle) to stay contracted

190
Q

When the bladder is full

A

Stretch receptors report a full bladder via sensory neuron to the spinal cord and from the spinal cord and parasympathetic their own fires to the bladder. higher CNS input may facilitate or inhibit reflex. The tonic discharge is inhibited on the motor neuron responsible for keeping the external sphincter closed

191
Q

Functions of the male reproductive system

A

Production and delivery of sperm, by testes, scrotum and epididymis.

Male ducts assist delivery of sperm to the surface and accessory glands create substances to assist the sperm

192
Q

Components of the scrotum

A

Spermatic cord

Vas deferens

Creamaster muscle

Scrotal septum

Epididymis

Testes

Dartos muscle

193
Q

What is the function of the scrotum and why are testicles outside the body?

A

Sperm mature at about 34°C muscles of the scrotum raise and lower the testicles to regulate temperature

194
Q

Components of the testes

A

Spermatic cord

Blood vessels and nerves

Epididymis

Tunica vaginalis

Tunica albuginea

Lobule

Septum

Vas deferens

Efferent duct

Seminiferous tubule

Rete testes

Straight tubule

Ductus epididymis

195
Q

Sertoli cell

A

Elongated cells found in the seminiferous tubule’s of the testes apparently the nourish the spermatids

196
Q

Spermatids

A

A cell derived from a secondary spermatocyte by fission and developing into a spermatozoon

197
Q

Secondary spermatocyte

A

He sold produced by mitotic division of the primary spermatocytes in which gives rise to the spermatid

198
Q

Primary spermatocytes

A

The spermatocyte arising by a growth phase from a spermatogoniumv

199
Q

Spermatogonium

A

Any of the cells of the gonads in the male organisms that are the progenitors of spermatocytes also called spermatoblats

200
Q

Spermatozoon

A

A mature male germ cell

201
Q

Leydig cell

A

Interstitial cells of the testes which secrete testosterone

202
Q

What are the components of spermatogenesis?

A

spermatids

Secondary spermatocyte

Primary spermatocytes

Spermatogonium

Basement membrane

Sertoli cells

Leydig cell

203
Q

Blood testes barrier

A

Prevents immune system from attacking and destroying sperm cells

204
Q

The process of spermatogenesis

A

Spermatogenesis is the process in which spermatozoa are produced from mail primordial germ cells by way of mitosis and meiosis.

The initial cells which start the process are called spermatogonia. The spermatogonium yield primary spermatocytes by mitosis. The primary spermatocytes divides mitotically in the first meiosis into two secondary spermatocytes each secondary spermatocyte divides into two spermatids in meiosis part 2. The spermatids develop into mature spermatozoa also known as sperm cells

205
Q

Cytoplasmic bridge

A

Also known as intercellular bridge. It is a structure that connects adjacent cells are made of cytoplasmic strands

206
Q

Components of the sperm cell

A

Acrosome

Nucleus

Neck

Mitochondria

Head

Tail

207
Q

Acrosome

A

The Like membrane bound structure covering the anterior portion of the head of the sperm it contains enzymes for penetrating the egg cell

208
Q

How sperm travels through the mail reproductive organs

A

Testes

Epididymis

Vas deferens

Seminal vesicle

Ejaculatory duct

Prostate

Bulbourethral

Urethra

Penis

209
Q

What hormones control the formation of sperm?

A

Gonadotrophin releasing hormone GnRH made in the thalamus

Luteinizing hormone LH and follicular stimulating hormone FSH both produced in the pituitary gland

Testosterone produced by Leydig cells

Inhibin and androgen binding protein or ABP produced by Sertoli cells

210
Q

How do hormones control the formation of sperm?

A

Gonadotrophin releasing normal stimulates the release of lien in 19 hormone and follicular stimulating hormone

Luteinizing hormone stimulates the release of testosterone while FSH stimulates spermatogenesis

Testosterone inhibits LH

Inhibin inhibits FSH

211
Q

Ducts of the male reproductive organ

A

Seminiferous tubule

Straight tubules

Rete testes

Efferent duct

Ductus epididymis

Vas deferens

Ejaculatory duct

Urethra

212
Q

Seminiferous tubule

A

The site of spermatogenesis

213
Q

Straight tubule

A

The Continuation of the seminiferous tubule contorts which street is just before entering the mediastinum to form their Rete testis

214
Q

Rete testes

A

The network of canals at the and of the seminiferous tubules

215
Q

Ductus epididymis

A

Site of sperm maturation

216
Q

Vas deferens

A

Stores sperm

217
Q

Ejaculatory duct

A

Where semen comes out

218
Q

Urethra

A

The membranous canal through which urine is discharged from the bladder and semen is discharged to the exterior of the body

219
Q

Accessory glands of the male reproductive system

A

Seminal vesicles

Prostate gland

Bulbourethral gland

220
Q

Seminal vesicles

A

Produces alkaline fluid

Contains fructose

221
Q

Prostate gland

A

Contains citric acid

222
Q

Bulbourethral gland

A

Produces alkaline fluid

223
Q

Anatomy of the penis

A

Prostate gland

Bulbourethral gland

Crus of penis

Bulb of penis

Corpora cavernosa

Corpora spongiosum

Spongy urethra

Corona

Glans penis

224
Q

Components of the female reproductive system

A

Fundus of uterus

Isthmus of uterine tube

Fimbriae of uterine tube

Uterine cavity

Endometrium

Myometrium

Perimetrium

Internal OS

Cervical canal

Lateral fornix

Rugae

Broad ligament

Body of uterus

Ureter isthmus

Uterosacral ligament

External Os

Vagina

225
Q

Ovarian ligament

A

Holds ovary in place

226
Q

Broad ligament

A

Holds uterus in place

227
Q

Suspensory ligament

A

Holds fallopian tube in place

228
Q

Parts of ovaries and eggs

A

Primordial follicle

Primary follicle

Secondary follicle

Cortex

Follicular fluid

Mature follicle

Medulla

Corpus luteum

229
Q

Antrum

A

A fluid filled cavity

230
Q

Parts of an egg and around the egg in the ovary

A

Antrum

Granulosa cells

Zona pellucida

Oocyte

231
Q

Granulosa cell

A

A cell lining the vesicular ovarian follicle that becomes a luteal cell after ovulation

232
Q

Zona pellucida

A

A thick transparent membrane surrounding an egg before it is fertilized. Made of glycoprotein

233
Q

When does egg formation begin?

A

Before birth

234
Q

The process of oogenesis

A

Germ cells move to ovary, and become oogonia (stem cells)

Oogonia divide to produce millions of germ cells

Most germ cells degenerate, at Bert’s a female has 200,000 to 2,000,000 germ cells at puberty it’s only 40,000 and only 400 egg cells reach maturity

235
Q

Corona radiata

A

Inner layer of granulosa cells

236
Q

Primordial follicle

A

Oocyte with one layer of follicle cells

237
Q

Primary follicle

A

Oocyte surrounded by 1-7 layers of granulosa cells. Has a zona pellucida and Corona radiata

238
Q

Secondary follicle

A

Has an antrum and an internal bulge of granulosa cells

239
Q

Oogenesis

A

Formation and development of the Ovum

240
Q

Meiosis and oogenesis

A

Before birth meiosis stops in stage one

Meiosis stage one resumes as follicle develops

Meiosis stage two stops in metaphase (mature follicle)

After fertilization meiosis stage two is complete

241
Q

Parts of the Fallopian tube

A

Ampula

Infundibulum

242
Q

Infundibulum

A

A funnel shaped structure

243
Q

Two stratum found in uterus

A

Stratum functionalis

Stratum basalis

244
Q

What is the function of gonadotrophin releasing hormone in the female cycle?

A

Stimulates the release of LH and FSH

245
Q

What is the function of follicular stimulating hormone in the female cycle?

A

Responsible for follicular growth and estrogen release

246
Q

What is the function of Lutinizing hormone in the female cycle?

A

It is responsible for the development of follicles and estrogen

It is also responsible for ovulation

247
Q

What are the two things needed for sperm production?

A

FSH and high levels of testosterone

248
Q

GnRH stimulates what?

A

Release of LH and FSH

249
Q

LH stimulates what

A

Testosterone production

250
Q

Is testosterone high in the testes?

A

Because of androgen binding protein and because it is made in the tested

251
Q

What happens when the ducts of male reproductive system get full

A

Sertoli cells produce inhibin which turns off FSH production