Exam 4 Flashcards

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1
Q

What is a MDRO?

A

Multi Drug Resistant Organism

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2
Q

____ describes microorganisms once susceptible to an action of an antibiotic but is no longer affected by the drug.

A

Resistance

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3
Q

Are the majority of antibiotics/antibacterial drugs bacteriostatic or bactericidal?

A

Bacteriostatic

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4
Q

____ is a condition in which the body’s immune system responds to foreign substance?

A

Allergy

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5
Q

Name some contributing factors to antibacterial drug resistance?

A

Unnecessary prescriptions
Unfinished prescriptions
Globalization
Antibiotics in animal feed

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6
Q

What are the 4 mechanisms of resistance?

A
  1. Inactivation of the antibiotic
  2. Efflux pumping of the antibiotic
  3. Modification of the antibiotic target
  4. Alteration of the pathway
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7
Q

Name some ways antibacterial drug resistance can be limited.

A
  1. Restricting antibiotics to essential use only
  2. Using synergism
  3. Maintaining high levels of antibiotics long enough to kill the bacteria
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8
Q

____ is the additive effect when two antibiotics are administered at the same time?

A

Synergism

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9
Q

____ is when some drugs are less effective when used in combination than when used alone?

A

Antagonism

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10
Q

What percentage of antibiotics are used in animal feed?

A

40% - 50%

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11
Q

How much money is estimated to be spent on antibiotic resistance annually?

A

$100 million to $30 billion

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12
Q

____ is the only organism recognized as a common cause of antibiotic-associated colitis?

A

Clostridium difficile

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13
Q

An MDRO is also known as a ____.

A

Superbug

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14
Q

____ is the scientific study of the cause of a disease?

A

Etiology

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15
Q

____ is any change in the function of a cell/tissue/organ system?

A

Disease

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16
Q

____ occurs when a pathogen gets in or on a host and colonies are established?

A

Infection

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17
Q

____ is the strength or potency of a pathogen?

A

Virulence

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18
Q

____ are the microorganisms that are always present on the external and internal surfaces of the body without producing harmful effects?

A

Resident Microbiota

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19
Q

____ are microorganisms that only occasionally inhabit the body; microbes that are present under certain conditions?

A

Transient Microbiota

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20
Q

____ implies that microbial growth has become established on or within the host.

A

Colonization

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21
Q

3 conditions that create opportunities for normal microflora to cause disease?

A
  1. Failure to the host’s normal defenses (immunocompromised)
  2. Introduction of the Organisms into unusual body sites
  3. Disturbances of the normal microflora (microbial antagonism)
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22
Q

____ any organism that harbors another organism.

A

Host

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23
Q

____ describes interactions that occur between different organisms that live close together.

A

Symbiosis

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24
Q

3 types of symbiosis?

A

Commensalism
Mutualism
Parasitism

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25
Q

____ is an association in which one partner benefits but the other remains unaffected. (on skin)

A

Commensalism

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26
Q

____ is an association in which both partners benefit. (in the colon)

A

Mutualism

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27
Q

____ is an association when one organism “the parasite” benefits at the expense of the other organism “the host.”

A

Parasitism

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28
Q

____ is a set of criteria for determining the cause of infectious diseases, established by Robert Koch.

A

Koch’s Postulates

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29
Q

List Koch’s postualtes.

A
  1. Suspected pathogen must be present in ever case of the disease.
  2. That pathogen must be isolated and grown in pure culture.
  3. The cultured pathogen must cause the disease when it is inoculated into a healthy, susceptible host.
  4. The same pathogen must be reisolated from the deceased experimental host.
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30
Q

List some exceptions to Koch’s postulates.

A
  1. Ethical considerations
  2. No single cause established
  3. Pathogens are ignored
  4. Some pathogens cannot be cultured in a lab
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31
Q

Name 4 types of portals of entry.

A

Skin
Mucous membranes
Placenta
Parenteral rout

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32
Q

Name some specific portals of entry.

A
Eyes
Nose
Mouth
Urethra
Anus
Placenta
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33
Q

____ is a mechanism pathogens have and use to stick to the host tissue.

A

Adhesion

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34
Q

Name 5 types of portals of exits.

A
Secretions
Skin
Blood
Vaginal Secretions/Semen
Excreted body wastes
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35
Q

Name some specific portals of exit.

A
Eyes (tears)
Needles
Bites
Wounds
Sweat
Feces
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36
Q

____ is subjective and felt by the patient

A

Symptom

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37
Q

____ is objective and is observable or measured by others

A

Signs

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38
Q

____ is a group of signs & symptoms that collectively characterize a particular disease.

A

Syndrome

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39
Q

____ is the after effects of an infection.

A

Sequelae

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40
Q

____ is an infectious disease that is transmitted from one host to the next. (influenza, herpes)

A

Communicable disease

41
Q

____ is an infectious disease that is “easily” transmitted from on host to the next. (measles, chicken pox)

A

Contagious disease

42
Q

____ is a disease that arises from outside of the host or from normal microflora and is not spread from host to host. (tooth decay, tetanus, acne)

A

Noncommunicable disease

43
Q

____ is a disease in which the symptoms develop rapidly and that runs its course quickly.”quick quick or fast fast” (measles, cold)

A

Acute disease

44
Q

____ is a disease in which the symptoms develop slowly and the disease is slow to disappear. “slow slow” (tuberculosis)

A

Chronic disease

45
Q

____ is a disease with intermediate symptoms.

A

Subacute disease

46
Q

____ is an infection with mild or no symptoms and can go unnoticed. (polio virus or hepatitis A virus)

A

Inapparent (subclinical)

47
Q

____ is a disease that occurs when viruses or microorganisms live in host tissues, often within host cells, for years without causing any symptoms.

A

Latent disease

48
Q

____ is an infection confined to a small region of the body (boil, bladder)

A

Local infection

49
Q

____ is an infection in a confined region from which pathogens travel to other regions of the body. (abscessed tooth)

A

Focal infection

50
Q

____ is an infectious agent spreads throughout the body (measles)

A

Systemic

51
Q

____ is the presence but not multiplication of viruses in the blood.

A

Viremia

52
Q

____ is the presence but not multiplication of bacteria in the blood.

A

Bacteremia

53
Q

____ is the presence and “multiplication” of pathogens in the blood (blood poisoning)

A

Septicemia

54
Q

____ is the presence of toxins in the blood (botulism, tetanus)

A

Toxemia

55
Q

____ is the initial infection in a previously healthy person.

A

Primary infection

56
Q

____ is an infection that immediately follows a primary infection

A

Secondary infection

57
Q

____ is a secondary infection that results from the destruction of normal microflora. (Often follows use of a broad-spectrum antimicrobial drug)

A

Superinfection

58
Q

____ is an infection caused by two or more pathogens (periodontal disease)

A

Mixed infection

59
Q

List the 5 stages of infectious diseases.

A
  1. Incubation period
  2. Prodromal period
  3. Illness
  4. Decline
  5. Convalescence
60
Q

____ is the time between infection and appearance of signs or symptoms

A

Incubation period

61
Q

____ is the period of time with vague symptoms

A

Prodromal period

62
Q

____ is the period of time when symptoms and signs are most severe.

A

Illness/Invasive phase

63
Q

____ is the period of time with the immune system responds or medical treatment works, and the symptoms/signs subside.

A

Decline phase

64
Q

____ is the period of the when the patient recovers, the tissues and systems are repaired and everything returns to normal.

A

Convalescence phase

65
Q

____ is the point when all signs and symptoms are at peak intensity, the signs and symptoms are fully developed.

A

Acme

66
Q

Name 4 predisposing factors for disease.

A
Virulence
Infective dose
State of Health
Nature of the pathogen
Generation time of the pathogen
67
Q

____ is the study of factors and mechanisms involved in the frequency and spread of diseases and other health-related problems within populations of humans, other animals, or plants.

A

Epidemiology

68
Q

The ____ of a disease is the “number of new cases” contracted within a set populations during a specific time period. (# of new cases/ # of people at risk)

A

Incidence

69
Q

The ____ of a disease is the “total number” of people infected within the population at any time. (old + new cases)

A

Prevalence

70
Q

____ is the number of individuals with a disease during a set period of time divided by the total population.

A

Morbidity rate

71
Q

____ is the number of deaths due to a specific disease during a specific period of time divided by the total population.

A

Mortality rate

72
Q

____ is a disease that normally occurs at a relatively stable frequency within a given population or geographic area.

A

Endemic

73
Q

____ is a disease that appears as a few scattered cases within a population or geographic area.

A

Sporadic

74
Q

____ is a disease that occurs with a greater than usual frequency within an area or population

A

Epidemic

75
Q

____ is when an epidemic occurs on one or more continents at the same time.

A

Pandemic

76
Q

____ is a type of epidemic that arises from contact with contaminated substances.

A

Common source outbreak/epidemic

77
Q

____ is a type of epidemic that is an amplification of an infection as a result of person-to-person contact.

A

Propagated epidemic

78
Q

____ are sites where pathogens exist and are maintained as a source of infection, once they leave the host.

A

Reservoirs of infection

79
Q

Name the 3 types of Reservoirs of infection.

A

Animal reservoirs
Human carriers
Nonliving reservoirs

80
Q

____ are diseases spread from animal host to humans.

A

Zoonotic disease

81
Q

3 examples of nonliving reservoirs.

A

Soil
Food
Water

82
Q

3 modes of infections disease transmission.

A

Contact transmission
Vehicle transmission
Vector transmission

83
Q

3 types of contact transmission.

A

Direct contact
Indirect contact
Droplet transmission

84
Q

Describe direct contact.

A

Person-to-person
Placental
“Fecal-oral”

85
Q

Describe indirect contact.

A
Fomites
Nonliving
Toilet seat
Money
Gloves
86
Q

Describe droplet transmission.

A

Spit
Snot
Airborne transmission
Mucous droplets

87
Q

____ are inanimate objects that inadvertently transmit pathogens.

A

Fomites

88
Q

____ is the transmission of disease agents by water, food or air, body fluids, IV fluids

A

Vehicle Transmission

89
Q

3 types of vehicle transmission.

A

Waterborne
Food-borne
Airborne

90
Q

____ is the type of vehicle transmission that is spread by water contaminated with untreated sewage,

A

Waterborne

91
Q

____ is the type of vehicle transmission when the pathogen is transmitted in or on food that has been improperly prepared, cooked, or stored.

A

Food-borne

92
Q

____ is the type of vehicle transmission that is the spread of agents in aerosol droplets that travel “more than 1 meter” from reservoir to host

A

Airborne

93
Q

____ is the mode of infectious disease transmission.

A

Vector Transmission

94
Q

2 types of vectors.

A

Biological Vectors

Mechanical Vectors

95
Q

____ are animals that carry pathogens from one host to another; typically arthropods

A

Vectors

96
Q

____ is the passive transport of pathogens on insects feet or other body parts.

A

Mechanical Transmission

97
Q

____ is a vector such as an insect carrying a pathogen inside its body and infects/transmits the pathogen to a host when it bits the host.

A

Biological Transmission

98
Q

____ is a proportion of individuals in a community or population who are immune to a particular disease.

A

Herd Immunity