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Clinical Microbiology > (exam 3) Ch 24 microbial diseases of the respiratory system > Flashcards

(exam 3) Ch 24 microbial diseases of the respiratory system Flashcards

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1
Q

The nose, pharynx, middle ear, and Eustachian tubes are considered which part of the respiratory system?

A

the upper respiratory system

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2
Q

saliva and tears protect what surfaces?

A

mucosal surfaces

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3
Q

The trachea, bronchial tubes, and alveoli are considered which part of the respiratory system?

A

the lower respiratory system

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4
Q

the double layered membrane enclosing the lungs is a protective layer called the ?

A

pleura

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5
Q

how do cilia defend against pathogens?

A

moving particles upward toward the throat (ciliary escalator)

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6
Q

how do alveolar macrophages defend against pathogens?

A

destroy microorganisms in the lungs

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7
Q

how do respiratory mucus defend against pathogens?

A

protects mucosal surfaces (IgA)

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8
Q

how do normal microbiota defend against pathogens?

A

outcompetes pathogens for nutrients and produce inhibitory substances

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9
Q

what is the infection site of pharyngitis?

A

pharynx

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10
Q

what is the infection site of laryngitis?

A

larynx

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11
Q

what is the infection site of tonsillitis?

A

tonsils

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12
Q

what is the infection site of sinusitis?

A

sinuses

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13
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes causes what disease?

A

Streptococcal pharyngitis (strep throat)

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14
Q

Streptococcal pharyngitis is a gram positive member of what group of streptococci?

A

group A streptococci (GAS)

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15
Q

Streptococcus pyogenes causes what disease?

A

Scarlet fever

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16
Q

the Streptococcus pyogenes strain produces what type of toxin?

A

erythrogenic (reddening) toxin that is expressed from lysogenic phage

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17
Q

pinkish red skin rash and strawberry like tongue may indicate what disease?

A

Scarlet fever

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18
Q

Corynebacterium diphtheriae causes what disease?

A

Diphtheria

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19
Q

what does Corynebacterium diphtheriae look like?

A

gram positive rod that is club shape

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20
Q

if a tough grayish membrane is formed in the throat made of fibrin and dead tissue that blocks the passage of air to the lungs (due to a toxin), your patient may have what disease?

A

Diphtheria

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21
Q

what type of toxin is diphtheria?

A

powerful exotoxin that can enter bloodstream (toxin gene is expressed from lsyogenic phage)

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22
Q

how is Diphtheria prevented?

A

DTaP vaccine (requires a booster every 10 yrs)

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23
Q

what does DTaP vaccine stand for?

A

Diphtheria, Tetanus, and acellular Pertussis

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24
Q

what is an infection of the middle ear?

A

Otitis Media

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25
Q

why is Otitis Media painful?

A

formation of pus outs pressure in the eardrum resulting in pain

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26
Q

who is otitis most common in and why?

A

common in childhood due to smaller auditory tube

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27
Q

what type of disease is the common cold?

A

viral disease and probably the most prevalent human disease - cannot treat with antibiotics

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28
Q

what are airways that conduct air to lungs and branch from trachea?

A

bronchi

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29
Q

what are the cavities where air exchange takes place?

A

alveoli

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30
Q

what is bronchitis (bronchiolitis)?

A

respiratory infection involving the bronchi

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31
Q

what is a severe complication of bronchitis involving the pulmonary alveoli?

A

pneumonia

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32
Q

Bordetella pertussis causes what disease?

A

Pertussis (whooping cough)

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33
Q

what about pertussis contributes to virulence and allows it to attach to ciliated cells in the trachea and destroy the ciliary escalator?

A

capsule

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34
Q

there are two toxins of pertussis; 1) _____________ of cell wall damages and ciliates cells and 2) ___________ enters the blood stream.

A

1) tracheal cytotoxin

2) pertussis toxin

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35
Q

what are the three stages of pertussis?

A

1) Catarrhal stage (like common cold)
2) Paroxysmal stage (violent coughing / gasping for air)
3) convalescence stage (may last for months)

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36
Q

how is pertussis prevented?

A

DTaP vaccine

37
Q

Mycobacterium tuberculosis causes what diseases?

A

Tuberculosis

38
Q

what type of microbe is tuberculosis?

A

acid fast rod; obligate aerobe

39
Q

what feature of tuberculosis makes it resistant to drying and antimicrobials?

A

lipids (mycolic acid) in the cell wall

40
Q

what are the four steps of tuberculosis?

A

1) inhaled organisms are phagocytize by alveolar macrophages (healthy individuals typically destroy bacteria at this stage)
2) bacteria multiply in macrophages (mycolic acid stimulates a inflammatory response & chemotaxis of macrophages to infection site)
3) organisms are isolated in the walled-off tubercle (inner macrophages die and can become latent, noninfectious TB)
4) Tubercle breaks down, releasing bacteria into lungs (ciliary tuberculosis = disseminated infection which is all throughout the body)

41
Q

coughing up bloodstained sputum is a symptom of what disease?

A

tuberculosis

42
Q

how is tuberculosis traditional diagnosed?

A

tuberculin skin test (purified protein from TB bacterium injected cutaneously) and a positive reaction could mean a current OR previous infection

43
Q

what follows a positive reaction of tuberculin skin test?

A

X ray , CT scan, sputum staining, and bacterial culture

44
Q

what are some of the newer ways to diagnose tuberculosis?

A

rapid blood test for IFN-y and nucleic acid amplification test (NAAT) which has higher specificity and less cross reactivity in vaccinated individuals

45
Q

how do we usually treat tuberculosis?

A

minimum of 6 months of drug therapy using first and second line drugs

46
Q

what are first lined drugs for tuberculosis?

A

may cure disease, resistance often develops due to patients not following long schedule

47
Q

what are second line drugs for tuberculosis?

A

for resistant strains, often less effective with toxic side effects

48
Q

what are multi-drug resistant (MDR) strains of tuberculosis?

A

resistant to first line drugs

49
Q

what are extensively drug-resistant (XDR) strains of tuberculosis?

A

resistant to second line drugs (virtually untreatable and emerging globally)

50
Q

Tuberculosis is the leading cause of death of patients with what other disease?

A

HIV (because their immune systems are depleted)

51
Q

what is the vaccine available for Tuberculosis and why is it not widely used in the US?

A

The BCG vaccine is a live culture of avirulent M. bovis; not widely used in the US due to questionable effectiveness

52
Q

what % of the world’s population has latent TB?

A

1/3%

53
Q

Streptococcus pneumoniae causes what diseases?

A

Typical pneumonia (primary form) which accounts for 2/3 cases

54
Q

what is lobar pneumonia?

A

infects the lobes of the lung

55
Q

what is bronchopneumonia?

A

infects the alveoli adjacent to the lungs

56
Q

what is pleurisy?

A

complication from pneumonia causing the pleural membranes inflamed (painful)

57
Q

infected alveoli fill with fluids and RBCs which interferes with oxygen uptake and rust colored uptake may indicate that your patient has what disease?

A

You patient may have typical pneumonia

58
Q

how do you diagnose bacterial pneumonias?

A

antibiotic disk susceptibility, bile solubility test, or presence of capsular antigen in urine

59
Q

what two vaccines can prevent tuberculosis and which age group are they for?

A

1) conjugated vaccine (younger; 2 yrs or less)

2) polysaccharide vaccine (for older people; 65 and older)

60
Q

what are the risk groups for Haemophilus Influenzae Pneumonia and how do you diagnose this?

A

Risk group = children under 5 and adults over 65

diagnosis = isolation on special media for nutritional requirements

61
Q

what vaccine reduces the incidence of Haemophilus Influenzae Pneumonia by 99%?

A

Hib Vaccine

62
Q

Mycoplasma pneumonia causes what disease?

A

Mycoplasmal Pneumonia (aka atypical pneumonia or walking pneumonia)

63
Q

what is unique to Mycoplasma pneumonia?

A

there is NO CELL WALL which results in a fried-egg appearance on the media

64
Q

Legionella pneumophila causes what disease?

A

Legionellosis (aka. Legionnaire’s disease)

65
Q

what is important about Legionella pneumophila that we are aware of?

A

it grows well in water and forms biofilms

66
Q

how is Legionellosis transmitted?

A

transmitted by inhaling aerosols not transmitted person to person

67
Q

Chlamydophila psittaci causes what disease?

A

Psittacosis (Ornithosis)

68
Q

how is Psittacosis (Ornithosis) transmitted?

A

transmitted to humans by elementary bodies from bird droppings that are transmitted through the air

69
Q

Chlamydophila pneumoniae causes what disease?

A

Chlamydial Pneumonia

70
Q

how is Chlamydial Pneumonia transmitted?

A

transmitted person to person (contact)

71
Q

Coxiella burnetiid causes what disease?

A

Q fever

72
Q

what is Coxiella burnetiid?

A

an obligatory parasite meaning it MUST be in a host cell in order to replicate

73
Q

high fever, muscle aches, headache and coughing is what type of Q fever?

A

acute Q fever

74
Q

endocarditis (may occur years after infection) is what type of Q fever?

A

chronic Q fever

75
Q

how is Q fever transmitted?

A

transmitted to farms animals from tick bites which is then transmitted to humans from the inhalation of aerosols from animals and unpasteurized milk

76
Q

what disease occurs as a complication of influenza, measles, or chicken pox?

A

viral pneumonia

77
Q

what is the most common viral respiratory disease in infants? (so common that almost all children are infected by age 2)

A

Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV)

78
Q

what does Respiratory Syncytial Virus (RSV) cause the cells to do?

A

causes cell fusion (syncytium) in cell culture

79
Q

Influenzavirus causes what disease?

A

Influenza (flu)

80
Q

what is unique about Influenzavirus?

A

contains 8 RNA segments and outer lipid bilayer (envelope)

81
Q

what are the two different types of spikes that Influenzavirus can have?

A

1) hemagglutinin (HA) spikes

2) Neuraminidase (NA) spikes

82
Q

what is the purpose of hemagglutinin (HA) spikes on Influenzavirus?

A

recognize and attach to host cells; help with entry

83
Q

what is the purpose of Neuraminidase (NA) spikes on Influenzavirus?

A

helps the virus separate from the infected cells; help it leave

84
Q

why can influenza easily mutate?

A

because of its RNA genome which makes many mistakes

85
Q

if influenza mutates and it is antigenic drift what can this do?

A

can cause minor changes in the HA and NA spikes and allow the virus to elude some host immunity but nothing major

86
Q

if influenza mutates and it is antigenic shift what can this do?

A

changes are great enough to evade most host immunity; leads to pandemics; and involves the reassortment of the eight RNA segments; VERY BAD

87
Q

how do we prevent against influenza?

A

Multivalent vaccine (targeted against 3-4 strains) - composition of vaccine is determined annually by identification of circulating viruses (does not provide long term immunity you need a flu shot every year)

88
Q

Pneumocytosis jirovecii causes what disease?

A

Pneumocystis Pneumonia (PCP) which is a fungal disease

89
Q

how does Pneumocystis Pneumonia (PCP) present?

A

Asymptotic in the immunocompetent (good immune system) but causes pneumonia in the immunocompromised (primary indicator of AIDs/HIV)

Clinical Microbiology (17 decks)

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