Exam 3 Abdomen Week 11 Flashcards
1
Q
rectus sheath surrounds what
A
rectus abdominis muscle
2
Q
what is the origin of the rectus sheath
A
4th to 9th costal cartilages and adjacent sternum
3
Q
what is the insertion of the rectus sheath
A
pubis via prepubic tendon
4
Q
internal rectus sheath is composed of
A
aponeurosis of transversus abdominis m.
5
Q
external rectus sheath is composed of
A
fused aponeuroses of internal and external abdominal oblique m.
6
Q
prepubic tendon is made from
A
linea alba, insertion tendons of right and left rectus abdominis ms (other contributions from other muscles)
7
Q
prepubic tendon inserts on the
A
pubis
8
Q
rupture of prepubic tendon is not common but is more likely in
A
late gestation mares; usually older, multiparous mares and those that are less fit
9
Q
rupture of prepubic tendon observations
A
sudden ventral displacement of caudal abdomen; edema and cranioventral displacement o fthe udder, with painful ventral edema cranial to udder
10
Q
what is the most extensive flank muscle
A
external abdominal oblique
11
Q
insertion of external abdominal oblique
A
linea alba, prepubic tendon, plus tuber coxae, medial femoral fascia
12
Q
inguinal ligament
A
attaches to tuber coxae and to fascia over iliopsoas and sartorius mm.
13
Q
allergic disease often associated with exposure to
A
molds
14
Q
what are clinical signs of recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) (heaves, COPD)
A
Cough and increased pulmonary airway secretions, exercise intolderance, pronounced abdominal m, contractions with expiration (heaving)
15
Q
with chronic disease, horses develop heave line which is
A
hypertrophy of external abdominal oblique m.
16
Q
dorsal part of transversus abdominis m. is
A
dorsal part is aponeurotic, costal attachment is muscular
17
Q
innervation of flank includes
A
dorsal and ventral branches of T13, L1, L2
18
Q
General spinal nerve diagram
A
x
19
Q
with incisions in upper flank, you need to block what
A
dorsal and ventral branches of spinal nerves; insert needle in vertically next to vertebral bodies (paravertebral block)
20
Q
T13 spinal nerve
A
inject caudal to last rib in angle between L1 transverse process and last rib (or caudal to last rib at lateral edge of iliocostalis m. if cant palpate tip of transverse process of L1)
21
Q
L1 and L2 spinal nerves
A
inject caudal to transverse processes of L1 and L2
22
Q
TO anesthetize dorsal and ventral spinal nerves
A
inject both dorsal and ventral to level of transverse processes
23
Q
advantages of paravertebral block
A
uniform anesthesia of all structures of the paralumbar fossa including the peritoneum; good muscle relaxation
24
Q
disadvantages of paravertebral block
A
must avoid puncturing aorta or caudal vena cava (if too deep)
paralyzes epaxial muscles on the side of the operation causing convexity of trunk (viscera may bulge out of incision, closure may be more difficult)
25
paralumbar block
nerves are blocked at tips of transverse processes
26
T13 spinal nerve
dorsal and ventral to tip of L1 transverse process (and between last rib and L1 transverse processes)
27
L1 spinal nerve
dorsal and ventral to caudal of L2 transverse process
28
L2 spinal nerve
dorsal and ventral to caudal of L4 transverse processes
29
may need additional injection where
midway between L3 and L4 or cranial to L1 lumbar transverse processes due to variability in nerve placement
30
paralumbar block advantages
uniform anesthesia of structures of the paralumbar fossa including peritoneum
good flank muscle relaxation
epaxial muscles are not anesthetized
31
disadvantages of paralumbarblock
individual variation in position of spinal nerves may necessitate additional injections of anesthetic
32
additional procedures for anesthesia of the flank include
inverted L block; epidural anesthesia
33
anesthesia of udder (excluding caudal portion innervated by pudendal nerve) not commonly used but need to block
genitofemoral nerve
34
genitofemoral arises from
L3 and L4 spinal nervs and can include L2 spinal nerve
35
in cows, block
ventral branches of L1 to L4 spinal nerves
36
ewe and doe block
ventral branches of L2-L4 spinal nerve
37
abdominal topography
note normal location and relationships of organs
note relative mobility of different organs (length of mesentery; attachment to other organs)
for horse note potential sites of impactions (decrease in size of intestinal lumen; drastic change in direction/flow of intestinal content)
38
spleen of the horse extends
obliquely; cranioventrally from last 3 ribs to ventral third of 9th to 10th ribs
39
spleen parietal surface contacts
diaphragm
40
gastrosplenic ligament
between hilus of spleen and greater curvature of stomach (continous with greater omentum)
41
nephrosplenic ligament
between spleen and left kidney
42
equine stomach size
small; volume 5-15 L
43
fundus is the
saccus cecus (nonglandular stomach)
44
what is the wavy edge seaprating non-glandular from glandular portions of equines stomach
margo plicatus
45
in the horse, the ____ sphincter is well developed
cardiac
46
anatomical reasons why it is difficult for horse to vomit
pronounced cardiac sphincter
esophagus enters the stomach at an oblique angle; when pressure within stomach increases, the cardia closes tighter
stomach does not touch the ventral abdominal wall; it is situated dorsal to ascending colon; thus abdominal muscular contractions associated with vomiting will first be absorbed by colon
47
what is the epiploic foramen
the connection between peritoneal cavity and omental bursa
48
epiploic foramen is located on what side
the right side
49
dorsal boundary of epiploic foramen
caudate process of liver (CPL) and caudal vena cava
50
ventral boundary of epiploic foramen
pancreas< hepatoduodenal ligament (HDL) and hepatic portal vein
51
equine large intestine is composed of
cecum
ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon
52
cecum capacity in equine
30 L in large horses
53
what are the parts of the cecum
base, body, apex
54
base _____ paralumbar fossa
more than fills
55
interior cecum of horse
ilieal papilla and cecocolic orifice
56
ileal papilla
eopening of ileum into cecum
57
cecocolic orifice
connects to right ventral colon
58
cecum leads to
ascending colon
59
what are the parts of the ascending colon
right ventral colon
left ventral colon
left dorsal colon
right dorsal colon
60
right ventral colon turns to left side at the
ventral diaphragmatic flexure (sternal flexure)
61
left ventral colon turns 180 degrees at
pelvic flexure
62
left dorsal colon turns to right side at the
dorsal diaphragmatic flexure
63
right dorsal colon turns medially at base of cecum to become
transverse colon
64
ventral colon characteristics
4 bands (four on the floor)
distinct saccules
large diameter
65
dorsal colon characteristics
1-3 bands +/- saccules
initial portion-1 band
quickly acquires 2 more bands
less elastc fiberes in bands so saccules are less distinct
66
transverse colon characteristics
```
short segment
short mesentery
crosses cranial to the root of the mesentery from right to left
decresing diameter
two bands
```
67
descending colon characteristics
very elongated in the horse
supsended from mesentary
relatively small lumen called small colon
two bands with saccules
68
changes in diameter associated with impaction occurs at
base of cecum
pelvic flexure (most common)
transverse colon
69
changes in direction
pelvic flexure
70
mobility
rotation of ascending colon around common axis (torsion)
lodging of left components of ascending colon above the spleen and left kidney (left dorsal displacement)
lodging of intestines (distal jejunum and ileum) in epiploic foramen (internal incarceration)
71
anything cranial to ____ will not be in reach within rectal palpation
Cranial mesenteric artery at L1
72
ruminant spleen dorsal extermit lies under
dorsal ends of last two ribs
73
spleen visceral surface contacts
left side of rumen
74
spleen dorsal part attached to
left crus of diaphragm
75
ruminant spleen ventral part
free
76
rumen left longitudinal groove separates
dorsal and ventral sacs
77
ascending colon composed of
proximal loop
double spiral
distal loop
78
double spiral composed of what in ox
2 centripetal turns, central flexure, 2 centrifugal turns
79
double spiral composed of what in small ruminant
3-4 centripetal turns
central flexure
3-4 centrifugal turns
80
superficial leaf
from dorsal body wall on right side to left longitudinal groove
81
deep leaf
dorsal body wall on right side to right longitudinal groove
82
deep loeaf forms the
supraomental recess
83
ventral sac of rumen protudes into the
omental bursa
84
porcine stomach capacity
6-8 L
85
narrow region of non-glandular mucosa around
cardia
86
pig cecum begins below
left kidney
87
pig cecum extends
ventrally along left flank
88
pig cecum is sacculated with ___ bands
3
89
pig ascending colon proximal hals if sacculated with
2 bands
90
proximal half of ascending colon forms
outer part of cone; centripetal coils
91
ascending colon distal half is
smooth; narrow diameter; located in center of cone; tighter, centrifugal coils
92
what is the general porcine vertebral formula
C7, T14-15, L6-7, S4, CD 20-23
93
Review skeletal structure of swine
x
94
what is the dental formula of a pig
2 (I3/3, C1/1, PM 4/4, M3/3)
95
permanent teeth begin erupting at
5-6 months of age
96
what teeth erupt first
superior and inferior 1st molars
97
permanent canine erupt at
9 months
98
full set of teeth is in place at approximately
1.5 years of age
99
the straight lower incisors meet curved upper incisors that provides potential
grasping action for the incisors
100
tusks
adult canine teeth that are curved in the boar and continue to grow throughout the animals life
101
tusks of sow
present but are smaller and usually stop growing at 2 years after eruption
102
deciduous dental formula for pigs
2 (i3/3, c1/1, pm 3/3, m0/0) =28
103
baby pigs are born with ____ needle teeth
8 deciduous
104
what teeth are sometimes clipped at birth
canines and 3rd incisors
105
breeds that have erect ears include
berkshire, yorkshire, and hampshire (shire means erect)
106
what vein is used for IV injection
lateral auricular vein
107
rostral bone
supports the snout; lies against the rostral end of the nasal septum
108
what are the principal tonsils in the pig
tonsils of the soft palate
109
swine tongue
long and pointed
110
what is used for venipuncture in the pig
cranial vena cava
111
thymus of pig
lateral to larynx and trachea;
112
carpal glands
open by way of 3-4 small but visible holes in the skin on the caudomedial surface of the carpus
113
principle weight bearing digits are
3 and 4
114
accessory digits
2 and 5
115
how many ribs are there
14-15
116
right lung is composed of
cranial, middle, caudal, and accessory lobes,
117
left lung is composed of
cranial and caudal lobe, left cardiac notch
118
ventral sac of rumen lies in
omental bursa
119
what lies in the supraomental recess
ascending colon; jejunum; spiral colon
120
know which organs and blood vessels contact the liver
x
121
know lobes; ligaments; location in abdomen
x
122
in the pig, a majority of the liver is on the ___ side
right
123
in the horse, a majority of the liver is on teh ____ side
right
124
in the ox, all of the liver is on the ___ side
right
125
read about pancreas and adrenal glands in the text book
x
126
which equine kidney is heart shaped
right
127
right equine kidney is located ventral to
last 2 or 3 ribs and first lumbar transverse processes
128
left horse kidn rib and first 2 or 3 lumbar processesey is located ventral to
last
129
renal hilus contains
renal artery and vein
ureter
renal lymph nodes
130
where is the renal crest
inner central part of medulla and projects into the renal pelvis
131
area cribrosa
openings for papillary (collecting) ducts
132
renal sinus
space inside kidney for pelvis,major blood vessels, fat, etc.
133
renal pelvis
dilated portion of ureter within renal sinus
134
terminal recesses
extensions of renal pelvis (there are 2)
135
papillary (collecting ducts) from each kidney open into _______ because renal crest is short in the horse
terminal recesses
136
which kidney in the ox is retroperitoneal
right kidney
137
where is the right kidney located
under 13th rib and transverse processes of first 2 or 3 lumbar vertebrae
138
where is the left kidney located
ventral under lumbar vertebrae 2 to 4
139
when rumen is full, left kidney is located whre
to the right of the median plane, and caudal and ventral to the right kidney
140
when the rumen is not so full the left kidney may lie
partly to the left of the median plane
141
ox renal hilus contains
renal artery and vein; ureter; renal lymph nodes
142
ox kidney is _____
multipyramidal; approximately 12-20 lobes
143
each lobe of the kidney contains what
a cortex and medullary pyramid
144
papilla of each pramid of ox kidney drains into a
minor calyx
145
minor calyces drain into
one of two major calices (prinicpal branches o the ureter)
146
major calices carry urine to the
ureter
147
does the ox have a renal pelvis?
No
148
small ruminant kidneys are both
retroperitoneal
149
small ruminant kidneys composed of
cortex, medulla, renal crest, renal pelvis of the ureter
150
both pig kidneys are located where
between the last rib and 4th lumbar vertebrae
151
right kidney does not contact the liver due to
symmetrical location of both kidneys
152
where is the pig renal pelvis
at end of ureter
153
pic kidneys contain ___ major calices
2
154
what are major calices
principal branches of urter
155
how many minor calices does the pig kidney have
8012
156
celiac artery supplies
supplies liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, cranial duodenum
157
cranial mesenteric artery supplies
caudal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, pancreas, cecum, ascending, ransverse and proximalpart of descending colon
158
caudal mesenteric artery supplies
caudal part of descending colon and cranial rectum
159
branches off celiac artery
splenic artery
left gastric artery
hepatic artery
160
splenic artery branches
left gastroepiploic artery
161
hepatic artey branches
right gastric artery
gastroduodenal artery
right gastroepiploic artery
162
branches off cranial mesenteric artery
jejunal arteries
right colic artery and middle colic artery
ileocolic artery
163
ileocolic branches
colic branch
medial and lateral cecal arteries
mesenteric ileal branch
164
what does the colic branch supply
proximal half of ascending colon
165
caudal mesenteric branches
left colic artery
| cranial rectal artery
166
left colic artery supplies what
descending colon and anastomoses with middle colic
167
cranial rectal artery supplies
rectum
168
colic branch supplies (in horse)
first half of ascending colon
169
right colic artery supplies (in horse)
terminal half of ascending colon (dorsal colon)
170
middle colic artery supplies what
transverse colon
171
left colic artery supplies
descending colon
172
ruminant branches off splenic artery
right ruminal artery
| left ruminal artery
173
left gastric artery branches
left ruminal artery
| left gastroepiploic artery
174
left ruminal artery branches
reticular artery
175
proximal loop (centripetal coils) are supplied by
colic branches
176
centrifugal coils, distal loop supplied by
right colic artery
177
transverse colon of ruminant supplied by
middle colic artery
178
descending colon of ruminant supplied by
left colic artery
179
blood from most abdominal organs drains into
the portal vein
180
what organs drain into portal vein
spleen, stomach, pancreas, small intestine, majority of large intestin
181
hypogastric nerve
postganglionic fibers to pelvic viscera
182
rumen primarily innervated by
dorsal vagal trunk
183
which parts are supplied by both vagal trunks
rumen, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum
184
equine abdominal lymph nodes drain to
cesterna chyli
185
afferent lymph channels from small colon, rectum, peritonemu, and omentum drain to
caudal mesenteric lymph noes
186
efferent lymph channels then drain to
lumbar trunks or to medial iliac lymph nodes
