Exam 3 Abdomen Week 11 Flashcards
rectus sheath surrounds what
rectus abdominis muscle
what is the origin of the rectus sheath
4th to 9th costal cartilages and adjacent sternum
what is the insertion of the rectus sheath
pubis via prepubic tendon
internal rectus sheath is composed of
aponeurosis of transversus abdominis m.
external rectus sheath is composed of
fused aponeuroses of internal and external abdominal oblique m.
prepubic tendon is made from
linea alba, insertion tendons of right and left rectus abdominis ms (other contributions from other muscles)
prepubic tendon inserts on the
pubis
rupture of prepubic tendon is not common but is more likely in
late gestation mares; usually older, multiparous mares and those that are less fit
rupture of prepubic tendon observations
sudden ventral displacement of caudal abdomen; edema and cranioventral displacement o fthe udder, with painful ventral edema cranial to udder
what is the most extensive flank muscle
external abdominal oblique
insertion of external abdominal oblique
linea alba, prepubic tendon, plus tuber coxae, medial femoral fascia
inguinal ligament
attaches to tuber coxae and to fascia over iliopsoas and sartorius mm.
allergic disease often associated with exposure to
molds
what are clinical signs of recurrent airway obstruction (RAO) (heaves, COPD)
Cough and increased pulmonary airway secretions, exercise intolderance, pronounced abdominal m, contractions with expiration (heaving)
with chronic disease, horses develop heave line which is
hypertrophy of external abdominal oblique m.
dorsal part of transversus abdominis m. is
dorsal part is aponeurotic, costal attachment is muscular
innervation of flank includes
dorsal and ventral branches of T13, L1, L2
General spinal nerve diagram
x
with incisions in upper flank, you need to block what
dorsal and ventral branches of spinal nerves; insert needle in vertically next to vertebral bodies (paravertebral block)
T13 spinal nerve
inject caudal to last rib in angle between L1 transverse process and last rib (or caudal to last rib at lateral edge of iliocostalis m. if cant palpate tip of transverse process of L1)
L1 and L2 spinal nerves
inject caudal to transverse processes of L1 and L2
TO anesthetize dorsal and ventral spinal nerves
inject both dorsal and ventral to level of transverse processes
advantages of paravertebral block
uniform anesthesia of all structures of the paralumbar fossa including the peritoneum; good muscle relaxation
disadvantages of paravertebral block
must avoid puncturing aorta or caudal vena cava (if too deep)
paralyzes epaxial muscles on the side of the operation causing convexity of trunk (viscera may bulge out of incision, closure may be more difficult)
paralumbar block
nerves are blocked at tips of transverse processes
T13 spinal nerve
dorsal and ventral to tip of L1 transverse process (and between last rib and L1 transverse processes)
L1 spinal nerve
dorsal and ventral to caudal of L2 transverse process
L2 spinal nerve
dorsal and ventral to caudal of L4 transverse processes
may need additional injection where
midway between L3 and L4 or cranial to L1 lumbar transverse processes due to variability in nerve placement
paralumbar block advantages
uniform anesthesia of structures of the paralumbar fossa including peritoneum
good flank muscle relaxation
epaxial muscles are not anesthetized
disadvantages of paralumbarblock
individual variation in position of spinal nerves may necessitate additional injections of anesthetic
additional procedures for anesthesia of the flank include
inverted L block; epidural anesthesia
anesthesia of udder (excluding caudal portion innervated by pudendal nerve) not commonly used but need to block
genitofemoral nerve
genitofemoral arises from
L3 and L4 spinal nervs and can include L2 spinal nerve
in cows, block
ventral branches of L1 to L4 spinal nerves
ewe and doe block
ventral branches of L2-L4 spinal nerve
abdominal topography
note normal location and relationships of organs
note relative mobility of different organs (length of mesentery; attachment to other organs)
for horse note potential sites of impactions (decrease in size of intestinal lumen; drastic change in direction/flow of intestinal content)
spleen of the horse extends
obliquely; cranioventrally from last 3 ribs to ventral third of 9th to 10th ribs
spleen parietal surface contacts
diaphragm
gastrosplenic ligament
between hilus of spleen and greater curvature of stomach (continous with greater omentum)
nephrosplenic ligament
between spleen and left kidney
equine stomach size
small; volume 5-15 L
fundus is the
saccus cecus (nonglandular stomach)
what is the wavy edge seaprating non-glandular from glandular portions of equines stomach
margo plicatus
in the horse, the ____ sphincter is well developed
cardiac
anatomical reasons why it is difficult for horse to vomit
pronounced cardiac sphincter
esophagus enters the stomach at an oblique angle; when pressure within stomach increases, the cardia closes tighter
stomach does not touch the ventral abdominal wall; it is situated dorsal to ascending colon; thus abdominal muscular contractions associated with vomiting will first be absorbed by colon
what is the epiploic foramen
the connection between peritoneal cavity and omental bursa
epiploic foramen is located on what side
the right side
dorsal boundary of epiploic foramen
caudate process of liver (CPL) and caudal vena cava
ventral boundary of epiploic foramen
pancreas< hepatoduodenal ligament (HDL) and hepatic portal vein
equine large intestine is composed of
cecum
ascending colon
transverse colon
descending colon
cecum capacity in equine
30 L in large horses
what are the parts of the cecum
base, body, apex
base _____ paralumbar fossa
more than fills
interior cecum of horse
ilieal papilla and cecocolic orifice
ileal papilla
eopening of ileum into cecum
cecocolic orifice
connects to right ventral colon
cecum leads to
ascending colon
what are the parts of the ascending colon
right ventral colon
left ventral colon
left dorsal colon
right dorsal colon
right ventral colon turns to left side at the
ventral diaphragmatic flexure (sternal flexure)
left ventral colon turns 180 degrees at
pelvic flexure
left dorsal colon turns to right side at the
dorsal diaphragmatic flexure
right dorsal colon turns medially at base of cecum to become
transverse colon
ventral colon characteristics
4 bands (four on the floor)
distinct saccules
large diameter
dorsal colon characteristics
1-3 bands +/- saccules
initial portion-1 band
quickly acquires 2 more bands
less elastc fiberes in bands so saccules are less distinct
transverse colon characteristics
short segment short mesentery crosses cranial to the root of the mesentery from right to left decresing diameter two bands
descending colon characteristics
very elongated in the horse
supsended from mesentary
relatively small lumen called small colon
two bands with saccules
changes in diameter associated with impaction occurs at
base of cecum
pelvic flexure (most common)
transverse colon
changes in direction
pelvic flexure
mobility
rotation of ascending colon around common axis (torsion)
lodging of left components of ascending colon above the spleen and left kidney (left dorsal displacement)
lodging of intestines (distal jejunum and ileum) in epiploic foramen (internal incarceration)
anything cranial to ____ will not be in reach within rectal palpation
Cranial mesenteric artery at L1
ruminant spleen dorsal extermit lies under
dorsal ends of last two ribs
spleen visceral surface contacts
left side of rumen
spleen dorsal part attached to
left crus of diaphragm
ruminant spleen ventral part
free
rumen left longitudinal groove separates
dorsal and ventral sacs
ascending colon composed of
proximal loop
double spiral
distal loop
double spiral composed of what in ox
2 centripetal turns, central flexure, 2 centrifugal turns
double spiral composed of what in small ruminant
3-4 centripetal turns
central flexure
3-4 centrifugal turns
superficial leaf
from dorsal body wall on right side to left longitudinal groove
deep leaf
dorsal body wall on right side to right longitudinal groove
deep loeaf forms the
supraomental recess
ventral sac of rumen protudes into the
omental bursa
porcine stomach capacity
6-8 L
narrow region of non-glandular mucosa around
cardia
pig cecum begins below
left kidney
pig cecum extends
ventrally along left flank
pig cecum is sacculated with ___ bands
3
pig ascending colon proximal hals if sacculated with
2 bands
proximal half of ascending colon forms
outer part of cone; centripetal coils
ascending colon distal half is
smooth; narrow diameter; located in center of cone; tighter, centrifugal coils
what is the general porcine vertebral formula
C7, T14-15, L6-7, S4, CD 20-23
Review skeletal structure of swine
x
what is the dental formula of a pig
2 (I3/3, C1/1, PM 4/4, M3/3)
permanent teeth begin erupting at
5-6 months of age
what teeth erupt first
superior and inferior 1st molars
permanent canine erupt at
9 months
full set of teeth is in place at approximately
1.5 years of age
the straight lower incisors meet curved upper incisors that provides potential
grasping action for the incisors
tusks
adult canine teeth that are curved in the boar and continue to grow throughout the animals life
tusks of sow
present but are smaller and usually stop growing at 2 years after eruption
deciduous dental formula for pigs
2 (i3/3, c1/1, pm 3/3, m0/0) =28
baby pigs are born with ____ needle teeth
8 deciduous
what teeth are sometimes clipped at birth
canines and 3rd incisors
breeds that have erect ears include
berkshire, yorkshire, and hampshire (shire means erect)
what vein is used for IV injection
lateral auricular vein
rostral bone
supports the snout; lies against the rostral end of the nasal septum
what are the principal tonsils in the pig
tonsils of the soft palate
swine tongue
long and pointed
what is used for venipuncture in the pig
cranial vena cava
thymus of pig
lateral to larynx and trachea;
carpal glands
open by way of 3-4 small but visible holes in the skin on the caudomedial surface of the carpus
principle weight bearing digits are
3 and 4
accessory digits
2 and 5
how many ribs are there
14-15
right lung is composed of
cranial, middle, caudal, and accessory lobes,
left lung is composed of
cranial and caudal lobe, left cardiac notch
ventral sac of rumen lies in
omental bursa
what lies in the supraomental recess
ascending colon; jejunum; spiral colon
know which organs and blood vessels contact the liver
x
know lobes; ligaments; location in abdomen
x
in the pig, a majority of the liver is on the ___ side
right
in the horse, a majority of the liver is on teh ____ side
right
in the ox, all of the liver is on the ___ side
right
read about pancreas and adrenal glands in the text book
x
which equine kidney is heart shaped
right
right equine kidney is located ventral to
last 2 or 3 ribs and first lumbar transverse processes
left horse kidn rib and first 2 or 3 lumbar processesey is located ventral to
last
renal hilus contains
renal artery and vein
ureter
renal lymph nodes
where is the renal crest
inner central part of medulla and projects into the renal pelvis
area cribrosa
openings for papillary (collecting) ducts
renal sinus
space inside kidney for pelvis,major blood vessels, fat, etc.
renal pelvis
dilated portion of ureter within renal sinus
terminal recesses
extensions of renal pelvis (there are 2)
papillary (collecting ducts) from each kidney open into _______ because renal crest is short in the horse
terminal recesses
which kidney in the ox is retroperitoneal
right kidney
where is the right kidney located
under 13th rib and transverse processes of first 2 or 3 lumbar vertebrae
where is the left kidney located
ventral under lumbar vertebrae 2 to 4
when rumen is full, left kidney is located whre
to the right of the median plane, and caudal and ventral to the right kidney
when the rumen is not so full the left kidney may lie
partly to the left of the median plane
ox renal hilus contains
renal artery and vein; ureter; renal lymph nodes
ox kidney is _____
multipyramidal; approximately 12-20 lobes
each lobe of the kidney contains what
a cortex and medullary pyramid
papilla of each pramid of ox kidney drains into a
minor calyx
minor calyces drain into
one of two major calices (prinicpal branches o the ureter)
major calices carry urine to the
ureter
does the ox have a renal pelvis?
No
small ruminant kidneys are both
retroperitoneal
small ruminant kidneys composed of
cortex, medulla, renal crest, renal pelvis of the ureter
both pig kidneys are located where
between the last rib and 4th lumbar vertebrae
right kidney does not contact the liver due to
symmetrical location of both kidneys
where is the pig renal pelvis
at end of ureter
pic kidneys contain ___ major calices
2
what are major calices
principal branches of urter
how many minor calices does the pig kidney have
8012
celiac artery supplies
supplies liver, stomach, spleen, pancreas, cranial duodenum
cranial mesenteric artery supplies
caudal duodenum, jejunum, ileum, pancreas, cecum, ascending, ransverse and proximalpart of descending colon
caudal mesenteric artery supplies
caudal part of descending colon and cranial rectum
branches off celiac artery
splenic artery
left gastric artery
hepatic artery
splenic artery branches
left gastroepiploic artery
hepatic artey branches
right gastric artery
gastroduodenal artery
right gastroepiploic artery
branches off cranial mesenteric artery
jejunal arteries
right colic artery and middle colic artery
ileocolic artery
ileocolic branches
colic branch
medial and lateral cecal arteries
mesenteric ileal branch
what does the colic branch supply
proximal half of ascending colon
caudal mesenteric branches
left colic artery
cranial rectal artery
left colic artery supplies what
descending colon and anastomoses with middle colic
cranial rectal artery supplies
rectum
colic branch supplies (in horse)
first half of ascending colon
right colic artery supplies (in horse)
terminal half of ascending colon (dorsal colon)
middle colic artery supplies what
transverse colon
left colic artery supplies
descending colon
ruminant branches off splenic artery
right ruminal artery
left ruminal artery
left gastric artery branches
left ruminal artery
left gastroepiploic artery
left ruminal artery branches
reticular artery
proximal loop (centripetal coils) are supplied by
colic branches
centrifugal coils, distal loop supplied by
right colic artery
transverse colon of ruminant supplied by
middle colic artery
descending colon of ruminant supplied by
left colic artery
blood from most abdominal organs drains into
the portal vein
what organs drain into portal vein
spleen, stomach, pancreas, small intestine, majority of large intestin
hypogastric nerve
postganglionic fibers to pelvic viscera
rumen primarily innervated by
dorsal vagal trunk
which parts are supplied by both vagal trunks
rumen, reticulum, omasum, and abomasum
equine abdominal lymph nodes drain to
cesterna chyli
afferent lymph channels from small colon, rectum, peritonemu, and omentum drain to
caudal mesenteric lymph noes
efferent lymph channels then drain to
lumbar trunks or to medial iliac lymph nodes
