Exam 3 Flashcards

1
Q

What are five risk factors for anesthesia emergency?

A
o	Breed
o	Patient health
o	Experience skills of the vet team
o	Case circumstances
o	Owner idiosyncrasy
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2
Q

Define laryngeal eversion.

A

edges of larynx are depressed or are everted

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3
Q

What issues arise when surgically correcting an elongated soft palate?

A

o Surgical correction with complications of swelling and incorrect length
o Too short causes food in the nares
o Too long does not solve the problem

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4
Q

How do you determine the correct ET tube size?

A

o Palpate to check size - Should not be tight going down

o Septum of the nares

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5
Q

What is one complication of the ET tube being too tight?

A

scrapes mucosal surface causing a postoperative cough

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6
Q

What is one factor in determining the order of surgical procedures?

A

most life threatening goes first

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7
Q

What must one evaluate before performing a procedure which requires anesthesia?

A

must weigh risks and benefits - benefits must outweigh risks

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8
Q

What is the number one reason for anesthetic emergencies?

A

human error

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9
Q

What are five examples of human mistakes which may lead to an emergency?

A
o	Lack anesthesia and drug familiarity
o	Wrong drugs administered
o	Preoccupied or in a hurry
o	Fatigue
o	Inattentiveness
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10
Q

What are four symptoms/warning signs that a patient has a diaphragmatic hernia?

A

o Internal organs displaced into the thorax
o Skinny abdomen
o Muffled heart sounds
o Dyspnea

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11
Q

What are two examples of drugs that come in different dosage strengths?

A

Xylazine, Butorphanol

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12
Q

What is a potential route of administration drug complication that may occur with aggressive dogs?

A

aggressive dogs may be dosed IM in emergency situations, but if there is a struggle the vein may be hit

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13
Q

What is the second most common reason for emergencies?

A

equipment failure

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14
Q

What are six potential anesthesia machine equipment problems?

A
o	CO2 absorber exhausted
o	Decreased O2 flow
o	Misassembled
o	ET tube problems
o	Vaporizer problems
o	Pop off valve
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15
Q

How often should the CO2 absorber be changed?

A

every ten hours

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16
Q

What are five symptoms of CO2 absorber exhaustion in the patient?

A
o	Hypercapnia because of the increased CO2 buildup
o	Increased HR and RR
o	Brick red MM
o	Arrhythmias 
o	No reflexes
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17
Q

What are four possible reasons for decreased O2 flow?

A

o Tank runs out (change at 500 psi though 2-3 more surgeries could be done)
o Valves are closed
o Flow meter ball is lodged in the flow meter tube
o Obstruction or leak

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18
Q

What is one symptom of decreased O2 flow in the patient?

A

appears cyanotic when O2 has stopped

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19
Q

What should the tech’s reaction to reduced O2 flow be?

A

o Disconnect the nonrebreathing circuit because room air has 20% oxygen (better than 0%)
o Leave a rebreathing circuit connected as long as the reservoir bag is full (there is still oxygen in it)

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20
Q

What percentage of O2 is found in room air?

A

20%

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21
Q

What percentage of 02 is administered by the vaporizer?

A

100%

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22
Q

What are four potential problems with the endotracheal tube?

A

o Twisting or kinking
o Material in tubes
o Bad positioning
o Blockage

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23
Q

How do you prevent twisting and kinking of the ET tube?

A

detach before flipping the animal

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24
Q

What drug increases the risk of material being trapped in the tube?

A

atropine in cats

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25
Q

What may occur when the ET tube is positioned too far past the bifurcation and the thoracic inlet?

A

only one bronchus is oxygenated and the other side dies

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26
Q

What does blockage of the ET tubes cause?

A

respiratory arrest

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27
Q

How does a tech check ET tube placement?

A

o Bag the patient to check for a rising chest - Abdominal rising means the ET tube is down the esophagus and into the stomach

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28
Q

What should a tech do if there is no rise of the chest or abdomen when bagging the patient to check placement of the ET tube?

A

disconnect and feel for air coming from the ET tube

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29
Q

What should the tech do when there is no air coming from the disconnected ET tube?

A

o Remove and replace the tube

o Suction the accumulation if this is the problem

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30
Q

What are six potential issues with the vaporizer?

A
o	Wrong anesthetic
o	Tipping machine over
o	Dial is stuck and jammed
o	2 vaporizers on
o	Over filling the vaporizer
o	Increased room temperatures in non-precision vaporizers
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31
Q

What is one potential problem with the pop-off valve?

A

it is closed

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32
Q

What happens when the pop-off valve is closed?

A

o The bag will be tense and tight
o The patient will not exhale
o Decreased venous return decreasing heart rate, deceased cardiac output, rapid decrease blood pressure, and possible rapid death

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33
Q

What should the tech’s reaction be if the reservoir bag is too full?

A

o Open pop off valve
o Decrease O2 flow
o Disconnect from machine if correction is taking too long

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34
Q

How does a tech change the O2 concentration in the reservoir bag?

A

dump the bag three times

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35
Q

What are three common patient types that require a special drug protocol?

A

o C-section
o Brachycephalic
o Geriatric

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36
Q

Define balanced anesthesia.

A

o Using more than one drug (using a preanesthetic) to decrease the amount of gas needed

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37
Q

What five patient factors need to be considered for geriatric patients?

A
o	Aging (how quickly certain breeds age)
o	Organ function
o	Stress response decrease
o	Increased hypothermia risk
o	Increased risk of overhydration
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38
Q

What is one example of a dog breed that ages slowly?

A

Chihuahua

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39
Q

What is one example of a dog breed that ages quickly?

A

Great Dane

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40
Q

What consideration should be made for the heart when choosing an anesthetic agent?

A

decreased cardiac function calls for isoflurane (decreased heart effects)

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41
Q

What is the role of the liver in metabolizing anesthetic agents?

A

metabolizes injectable agents

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42
Q

What is the role of the lungs in metabolizing anesthetic agents?

A

removes anesthetic gas through blow off

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43
Q

What is the role of the kidneys in metabolizing anesthetic agents?

A

excretes (does not metabolize!) injectable agents

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44
Q

What is different about the kidney’s metabolism and secretion mechanism in the cat?

A

kidneys completely remove the agents

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45
Q

Explain anesthetic redistribution.

A

o Anesthetic goes from the machine to the patient’s lungs where diffusion across capillary walls increases the concentration in the blood stream
o The anesthetic then travels to the highly vascularized tissues such as the brain
o Then the agents are pulled into the fats and muscle of the body which are poorly vascularized
o This decreases the concentration in the brain causing the animal to “wake up” even though there is still adequate anesthetic in the body
o The liver cannot metabolize the agents fast enough to eliminate the drugs completely before redosing

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46
Q

Why do older dogs have a higher hypothermia risk?

A

lost insulation (low body fat content)

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47
Q

Why do older dogs have a higher risk for overhydration?

A

impaired heart circulation and decreased kidney function

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48
Q

What anesthetic should be used for a patient with liver problems?

A

inhalation induction (mask, chamber, or cage)

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49
Q

What is the safest minimum age to begin anesthesia induction?

A

8 weeks

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50
Q

Why are pediatric patients at higher anesthetic risk?

A
o	Decreased liver function pathway
o	Increased hypothermia and overhydration risk
o	Difficulty intubating
o	Fasting avoidance
o	Catheterization problems
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51
Q

What is the safest way to induce a pediatric patient?

A

isoflurane mask

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52
Q

Why are pediatric patients not fasted?

A

hypoglycemia, dehydration risk

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53
Q

When is hypoglycemia most likely to occur in a pediatric patients, and what patients are at greatest risk?

A

patients less then 6 months old (especially toy breeds) fasted longer then 8 hours

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54
Q

Besides hydration, what must be checked in pediatric patients before surgery?

A

blood sugar

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55
Q

What is the most common problem in pediatric patients?

A

hypoglycemia

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56
Q

What is the most common problem in brachycephalic dogs?

A

tendency for airway obstruction

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57
Q

What causes airway obstruction in brachycephalic dogs?

A

o Stenotic nares
o Elongated soft palate
o Everted laryngeal ventricles
o Small, short trachea

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58
Q

When should stenotic nares be examined?

A

at the patient’s first exam

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59
Q

What may cause bradycardia in a brachycephalic dog?

A

increased vagal tone which causes increased vagal response inducing bradycardia

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60
Q

How is vagal tone decreased?

A

o Use anticholinergics for preanesthetics which prevent bradycardia and secretions
o Proxygenate before drugs
o Induce rapidly

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61
Q

Why should brachycephalic dogs be induced rapidly?

A

to avoid stage 2 (excitatory stage)

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62
Q

What special instructions are suggested for brachycephalic patients?

A

leave the ET tube in as long as possible - until they chew or pick up the head

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63
Q

What is the anesthetic drug of choice for sighthounds?

A

propofol

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64
Q

Why is propofol the drug of choice for sighthounds?

A

o Sight hounds lack body fat so drugs will have a larger effect on them
o Propofol is eliminated quickly through liver metabolism
o Because there is less fat and muscle to absorb the drug from the blood stream, rapidly metabolized drugs are a good thing for sight hounds (little to no redistribution)

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65
Q

What drug is not given to sighthounds?

A

barbiturates because there is no redistribution to decrease concentration of the agents in the brain and blood

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66
Q

How are obese patients dosed?

A

for ideal body weight, not current body weight

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67
Q

What are three anesthetic complications associated with obesity?

A

o Difficult for accurate dosing (guessing the dose by weight)
o Poor distribution of anesthetics
o Respiratory difficulty

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68
Q

Why is respiration compromised in obese patients?

A

fat takes up space where the lungs and diaphragm normally would expand

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69
Q

How should obese patients be treated before surgery?

A

o Preoxygenate

o Induce rapidly (injectable and inhaled)

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70
Q

How is respiration supplemented in obese patients?

A

o Assisted PPV when needed

o Delay extubation (maintain airway until completely recovered to breathe on own)

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71
Q

How should all patients be placed in the cage during recovery from anesthesia?

A

o Face towards the cage door

o Propped so that the nose is not obstructed by the cage wall or bedding

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72
Q

What four complications are c-section patients at increased risk for?

A

o Heart workload increases
o Compromised respiration
o Vomiting and regurgitation
o Hemorrhage

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73
Q

Why is workload to the heart increased in c-section patients?

A

there are puppies inside that require blood flow so the heart works overtime to compensate

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74
Q

Why is respiration compromised in c-section patients?

A

uterus takes up abdominal space restricting diaphragm space for contraction

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75
Q

Why is there an increased hemorrhage risk for c-section patients?

A

uterus is highly vascularized

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76
Q

What are five special considerations in the care of c-section patients?

A
o	IV fluids
o	Clip prior to induction with patient on the left side
o	Preoxygenate
o	Give lowest effective dose of drugs
o	Avoid certain drugs
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77
Q

Why are c-section patients given IV fluids?

A

a lot of fluid is lost and blood pressure must be maintained

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78
Q

Why are c-section patients clipped while laying on their left side and prior to induction?

A

o if placed on their back the additional weight on the caudal vena cava would compromise blood flow to dam and puppies
o decreases the amount of anesthetic to the puppies

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79
Q

What five drugs are avoided in c-section patients?

A
o	Pentobarbitol
o	Ketamine
o	Diazepam
o	Ace 
o	Xylazine
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80
Q

How are c-section patients induced?

A

o Mask

o Propofol

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81
Q

What are three common breeds of c-section patient?

A

English bulldogs, pug, French bulldog

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82
Q

Why are c-sections common in these breeds?

A

puppies have large heads when compared to the birth canal

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83
Q

What problems may occur with c-section puppies?

A

agents can cross the placenta which reduces respiratory and CDVS function

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84
Q

What are five ways reduced respiratory and CDVS function can be prevented in c-section puppies?

A
o	Use reversal agents
o	Use doxopram
o	Administer oxygen with face mask
o	Administer atropine for bradycardia
o	Keep warm
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85
Q

When should the puppies be allowed to nurse?

A

ASAP once the mother has recovered enough to put the puppies out of danger

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86
Q

What calls for the use of doxopram in c-section cases?

A

the use of narcotics

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87
Q

When does doxipram work?

A

only when there was an initial respiratory effect

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88
Q

What are two ways that the bladder may be emptied in the c-section patient?

A

o Normal outside urination
o Intraoperatively
o NOT MANUAL EXPRESSION

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89
Q

What three things should be done before trauma patients are induced if they are stable enough to have them done?

A

o Radiographs
o Examinations
o ECG

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90
Q

How is respiration examined in trauma patients?

A

o Auscultation

o Observation

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91
Q

What can be done if there is a complete oxygen exchange loss from blood or fluid filled lungs?

A

nothing

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92
Q

Fluid in the chest calls for what treatment?

A

thoracocentesis

93
Q

When do cardiac arrhythmias occur in trauma patients?

A

within 3 days

94
Q

What are two common signs that occur with trauma in many of the cases?

A

o Shock

o Hemorrhage

95
Q

What are two other potential internal problems with trauma patients?

A

o Internal injury

o CNS problems

96
Q

What three clinical signs indicate internal injury or CNS problems in trauma patients?

A

o Swelling
o Cerebral edema
o Glaucoma

97
Q

How are patients with a diaphragmatic hernia positioned

A

patients will try to keep their front ends up

98
Q

How are diaphragmatic hernia patients treated for surgery?

A

o Rapid intubation
o Rapid induction (IV)
o Respiration is supported right away

99
Q

How are diaphragmatic hernia patients bagged?

A

o Lower than normal patient respiration because we are more efficient at breathing than the patient
o q5s

100
Q

What are two symptoms of left heart failure?

A

o Lung edema

o Crackles

101
Q

What considerations should be taken with a left heart failure anesthetic patient?

A

o Gas should be used because of increased margin of safety
o No fluids are given because of too much accumulation that has occurred
o For anesthesia give the lower end of the formula (2ml/lb/hr)

102
Q

What are four potential CDVS problems?

A

o Compromised circulation
o Pulmonary edema
o Arrhythmias
o Tachycardia

103
Q

What are four ways to prevent CDVS problems?

A

o Alleviate pulmonary edema
o Preoxygenate
o Avoid agents that depress CDVS function
o Avoid overhydration

104
Q

Are heart murmurs always bad?

A

no because the dog has a normal sinus arrhythmia

105
Q

What are three potential respiratory disease problems?

A

o Poor tissue oxygenation
o Anxiety leading to difficulty in restraint
o Respiratory arrest (COMMON)

106
Q

What are two problems caused by anxiety in the patient with respiratory disease?

A

o They are not getting air so they panic

o Anxiety decreases the amount of air getting to the lungs

107
Q

How are patients with existing respiratory disease treated?

A
o	Reduce handling stress
o	Preoxygenate
o	Use injectables
o	Avoid mask
o	Rapid intubation
o	Assisted PPV if needed 
o	Close monitoring in recovery
108
Q

Why might hepatic disease be overlooked on a chem panel?

A

without secretions there are no indications of liver disease even though the liver is dead

109
Q

What are five potential complications in a liver disease patient?

A
o	Metabolism of injectables is delayed 
o	Clotting factors are decreased 
o	Hypoproteinemia 
o	Anemia 
o	Icterus
110
Q

How can you tell if clotting factors are decreased?

A

o The patient will drip after being stuck or cut

o BMBT

111
Q

How should decreased clotting factors be treated prior to surgery?

A

administer blood or plasma transfusion

112
Q

Why might a patient with liver disease not wake up from anesthesia?

A

the drug cannot be metabolized so it is not broken down and stays in the bloodstream

113
Q

Why is decreased protein a problem?

A

less binding of drugs so more free drug exerts its effect

114
Q

Why are liver disease patients icteric?

A

cannot conjugate bilirubin properly

115
Q

How are patients with existing liver disease treated for surgery?

A

o Preanesthetic blood work
o No injectables
o Prolonged recovery

116
Q

How much isoflurane is metabolized?

A

3%

117
Q

How much sevoflurane is “blown off”?

A

99%

118
Q

What are three potential renal disease problems?

A

o Delayed inj excretion
o Electrolyte imbalances
o Dehydration

119
Q

What are four common electrolyte imbalances seen in the renal patient?

A

o Hypokalemia
o Hyperkalemia
o Hyperphosphatemia
o Metabolic acidosis

120
Q

Why are renal patients commonly dehydrated?

A

they are both polydipsic and polyuric, and eliminate more then they take in

121
Q

How should the renal patient be treated for surgery?

A

o Rehydrate
o Renal function test
o Correct electrolyte imbalances
o Avoid injectables

122
Q

Urinary tract obstruction occurs most commonly in what species?

A

male cats

123
Q

Cats can have problems with just _____.

A

crystals

124
Q

In how much time can a urinary tract obstruction be fatal in the cat?

A

3 days of obstruction in lateral recumbency

125
Q

What five problems may occur with urinary tract obstruction?

A
o	Azotemia
o	Acidosis
o	Dehydration 
o	Hyperkalemia
o	Bradycardia
126
Q

What two drugs should be avoided in cases of renal disease?

A

o IM ketamine

o Barbiturates

127
Q

What gas is used in cases of renal disease?

A

sevoflurane

128
Q

What deficiency is important to correct when present?

A

hyperkalemia

129
Q

Why might a catheter get hung in the urethra?

A

a stone present may block catheter advancement

130
Q

Why might a catheter be passed?

A

to relieve an obstruction ASAP

131
Q

What should be done after the obstruction is relieved?

A

fluid therapy

132
Q

What happens after a prolonged obstruction?

A

ruptured bladder

133
Q

What type of epi can be used in a crash cart?

A

epi that can be safely stored at room temprature

134
Q

If there is an emergency protocol or if there is a life threatening emergency what can the tech do in most states?

A

Act to save the animal in the vet’s absence

135
Q

What are eight common complications during surgery?

A
o	Animal will not stay under
o	Animal is too deep
o	Pallor
o	Hypotension
o	Dyspnea and cyanosis
o	Tachypnea
o	Respiratory arrest
o	Cardiac arrest
136
Q

What eleven things should be checked if the animal will not stay under?

A
o	Vaporizer setting
o	Oxygen setting
o	Anesthetic in vaporizer
o	ET tube placement
o	Cuff inflation/deflation
o	Breath holding in the patient
o	Respiration depth
o	Machine function and assembly
o	Oxygen flow rate adequacy
o	Agonal breathing in the patient
o	Patient assessment
137
Q

What two types of patient require PPV every five minutes if they are deficient?

A

o Toy breeds

o Obese patients

138
Q

What are ten signs that an animal is too deep?

A
o	Respiration is  2 seconds
o	Bradycardia (
139
Q

How can CRT be normal in a dead patient?

A

the capillaries will pool with blood

140
Q

What is the first thing you check in a patient that is too deep?

A

vital signs other then mucous membranes

141
Q

What drug USED TO be given to stabilize mucous membranes?

A

corticosteroids

142
Q

What is the appropriate response to a big decrease in heart rate?

A

atropine

143
Q

What are four reasons a patient might be too deep?

A

o High vaporizer setting
o High inj dose
o Inj given IV rather then IM
o Preexisting problem

144
Q

What are seven ways increased anesthetic depth is treated by the technician?

A
o	Turn vaporizer to 0 if needed 
o	Inform vet
o	Bag with pure O2 q5s
o	IV fluids
o	External heat
o	Drugs as ordered by vet
o	Decrease and watch for arousal
145
Q

What are six causes of pallor?

A
o	Pre-existing anemia
o	Surgical blood loss
o	Vasodilation
o	Hypotension
o	Hypothermia
o	Pain
146
Q

What are three ways pallor is treated by the technician?

A

o Ascertain anesthetic depth
o Monitor vitals
o Consult vet

147
Q

What four things might the vet order for pallor treatment?

A

o IV fluid therapy
o Blood transfusion
o Corticosteroids (IV)
o Pain management

148
Q

What are five possible causes of hypotension?

A
o	Preexisting conditions like trauma
o	Surgical blood loss
o	Deep anesthesia
o	Drugs 
o	Circulatory shock
149
Q

What two common drugs can cause hypotension?

A

o Ace

o Xylazine

150
Q

What are ten ways that hypotension may be treated by the technician?

A
o	Check CRT
o	Check pulse quality
o	HR 
o	Hypothermia
o	BP
o	Rapid IV fluids with shock
o	Reduce anesthetic depth 
o	Give 100% oxygen
o	Supplement heat
o	Drugs as ordered by vet
151
Q

What blood pressure readings indicate hypotension?

A

o Systolic:

152
Q

What fluid administration rates are used for rapid shock fluid treatment in the dog?

A

20 ml/kg/1st 15 min to max of 90 ml/kg/1st hour

153
Q

What fluid administration rates are used for rapid shock fluid treatment in the cat?

A

10 ml/kg/1st 15 min to max of 45-65 ml/kg/1st hour

154
Q

What are three types of fluids that may be given IV?

A

o Colloids
o Blood transfusions
o Crystalloids

155
Q

What are four potential sources of supplemental heat?

A

o Warm towels
o Heating pads
o Rice socks
o Hot water bottles

156
Q

What five things do a cyanotic patient indicate?

A

o Not enough oxygen
o Not enough CO2 elimination
o Hypoxia
o Pulse oximetry

157
Q

What are six potential causes of respiratory distress?

A
o	Lack of oxygen supply
o	Too full reservoir bag 
o	Respiratory disease
o	Airway obstruction
o	Heavy drapes or constricting bandage
o	Too deep
158
Q

What are five ways that dyspnea may be treated by the technician?

A
o	Check oxygen delivery
o	Turn off vaporizer and bag q5s
o	IV fluids
o	Emergency drugs
o	Observation for cardiac arrest
159
Q

What three things need to happen when bagging the patient?

A

o Observe for chest rise and fall with bagging
o Bag until MM color improves and pulse ox reaches 90-95%
o Tracheotomy with complete obstruction

160
Q

What is done in the event of cardiac arrest?

A

CPR with chest compressions

161
Q

What drug class commonly induces tachypnea?

A

opioids

162
Q

Why might a patient in the surgery room have a spike in heart rate?

A

stimulation with too light anesthesia

163
Q

What are two ways that deep anesthesia causes tachypnea?

A

o Low oxygen

o High carbon dioxide

164
Q

When is it OK to see the heart rate spike?

A

when the ovarian pedicle is clamped

165
Q

What temperature change can increase heart rate?

A

hyperthermia

166
Q

When is increased temperature OK to induce increased heart rate?

A

small animals

167
Q

What are three ways tachypneal may be treated by the technician?

A

o Assess anesthetic depth
o Check CO2 absorber and capnography for hypercapnia
o Vitals ok: wait 1-2 minutes to see if the patient can self-correct

168
Q

What does tachypnea due to pain indicate?

A

analgesia should be administered

169
Q

What does tachypnea due to obesity indicate?

A

assisted PPV

170
Q

How is anesthetic depth assessed?

A

Reflexes such as palpebral reflex present

171
Q

What are five signs of hypercapnia?

A
o	Tachycardia
o	Hyperventilation
o	Sweating 
o	Hypertension
o	Brick red MM
172
Q

When may respiration stop during surgery?

A

o After induction

o After prolonged bagging

173
Q

What is the first thing that should be done if respiration stops?

A

o Check other vitals (HR, MM, pulse strength)
o Check pulse ox (> 95% is good)
o Deliver occasional breaths q30s for 1-2 minutes while observing for respiration return

174
Q

What are three potential causes of respiratory arrest?

A

o Anesthetic overdose
o Cesation of O2 flow
o Pre-existing respiratory disease

175
Q

What also may occur with respiratory arrest?

A

abnormal vitals

176
Q

What seven steps should the technician take to treat respiratory arrest?

A
o	Inform vet
o	Turn off vaporizer
o	Intubate and connect to 100% O2
o	Check HR with ECG is possible
o	Check O2 flow and airway 
o	Bag q5s until stable
o	IV fluids and drugs as ordered by vet
177
Q

What are four alternative methods of getting oxygen to the patient besides the 100% O2 method?

A

o Ambu-Bag (positive pressure pushed into patient)
o Mouth to ET tube
o Mouth to muzzle (close nose and breathe into mouth)
o Tube tracheostomy

178
Q

What drug may be given to stimulate respiration?

A

doxopram

179
Q

Define cardiac arrest.

A

sudden cessation of effective circulation and ventilation

180
Q

What are eight signs of cardiac arrest?

A

o Loss of consciousness in 10-15 seconds
o No heart beat
o No palpable pulse
o BP

181
Q

What does asystole look like on an ECG?

A

flat line

182
Q

What does ventricular fibrillation look like on an ECG?

A

wavy pattern

183
Q

What does electromechanical dissociation look like on an ECG?

A

Normal QRS complexes without a heart beat

uncommonly, normal ECG without heartbeat

184
Q

What are the ABCDEF steps to cardiac arrest response?

A
o	Airway
o	Breathing
o	Circulation
o	Drugs
o	ECG
o	Fluids
185
Q

What is the CPR protocol?

A

o 15 compressions
o 2 breaths
o OR as many compressions in a minute without the breaths

186
Q

How long do you have before the brain is damaged permanently from oxygen deprivation?

A

4 minutes

187
Q

What are the four team member jobs in CPR?

A

o Compressions
o Bagging
o Response, pulse, and ECG assessor
o Drugs as ordered and record keeper

188
Q

Which job may be neglected if needed?

A

record keeper (should try to do it as soon as the drugs are administered)

189
Q

What is noted on the record first in cases of cardiac arrest?

A

time of arrest

190
Q

What method can be used to establish an airway?

A

intubation

191
Q

How should respiration be supplemented in CPR?

A

bag with 100% O2 q5s

192
Q

What should happen when the patient is bagged?

A

chest rises with inhalation and falls with exhalation

193
Q

What recumbency is the patient placed in for CPR?

A

right lateral

194
Q

How is the chest compressed for CPR?

A

1/3 chest diameter of chest wall 1-2 times per second

195
Q

How are wide chested dogs placed for CPR?

A

on their backs

196
Q

What are two examples of wide chested breeds?

A

o English bull dog

o French bulldog

197
Q

What are the two things that are done by CPR to induce circulation?

(these are debated as to which actually occurs)

A

o Force blood through the heart

o Inducing blood flow with pressure changes

198
Q

What do compressions cause during CPR?

A

o Each compression should cause a palpable femoral pulse

o MM color should improve

199
Q

How can breaths be administered during CPR?

A

o Simultaneously with compressions

o 10-15 compressions at every 2 breaths

200
Q

What is one alternative to external cardiac compressions?

A

internal cardiac compressions (sterile hand directly grasping the heart)

201
Q

When might internal compressions be performed?

A

o After 2 minutes of ineffective external compressions

o Immediately with chest trauma, pericardial effusion, or hypovolemia

202
Q

How are internal compressions performed?

A
o	Quick shave
o	Alcohol rinse
o	Sticky drape
o	Skin incision between 7-8 rib
o	Gloved hands grasp heart 
o	80 compressions per min
o	Lavage
o	Close chest 
o	Observe
203
Q

How are fluids administered during cardiac arrest?

A

o Rapidly through IV catheter prn to expand blood volume

204
Q

What nine drugs may given during cardiac arrest?

A
o	Epinephrine
o	Corticosteroids
o	Dopamine
o	Dobutamine
o	Doxopram
o	Atropine
o	Lidocaine
o	Sodium bicarbonate
o	Anesthetic reversal agent
205
Q

Why is sodium bicarb contraindicated?

A

an accidental alkalosis will occur if too much sodium bicarb is administered

206
Q

What is the drug of choice to treat cessation of the heart?

A

epinephrine

207
Q

What two alternate routes exist for drug administration during cardiac arrest?

A

o Intratracheal through the ET tube with a double dose

o Injected into base of tongue

208
Q

How is the patient cared for post cardiac arrest?

A

o Monitored
o Support vital function
o Oxygenation
o Heat supplement

209
Q

What are four common complications of cardiac arrest recovery?

A

o Repeated arrest
o Disseminated intravascular coagulation (DIC)
o Acute renal failure secondary to epinephrine shutting down the blood flow
o Cerebral edema

210
Q

What is DIC (disseminated intravascular coagulation)?

A

o Commonly called death is coming or dead in cage
o Comes secondary to cancer or end stage heart worm disease
o Causes coagulation in the vessels and uses up clotting factors which causes the patient to bleed everywhere else
o Will look bruised even though coagulant is there

211
Q

What happens with cerebral edema?

A

o Brain swells

o Possibly cause blindness

212
Q

What are six potential anesthetic recovery problems?

A
o	Regurgitation and vomiting
o	Anesthesia in unfasted patient
o	Post anesthesia seizures and excitement
o	Dyspnea in cats
o	Dyspnea in dogs
o	Prolonged recovery
213
Q

What are the complications of regurgitation and vomiting while under anesthesia?

A

o Risk of esophagitis

o Aspiration pneumonia

214
Q

How is vomiting responded to in an unconscious patient lacking an ET tube?

A

o Head lower than the body
o Clean oral cavity
o Assist respiration as needed

215
Q

How is vomiting responded to in an unconscious patient with an ET tube?

A

o Ensure cuff inflated

o Head lower than body

216
Q

How is vomiting responded to in a conscious patient?

A

assist as required

217
Q

How is an unfasted patient treated?

A

o Rapid induction and intubation
o Avoid head down positioning
o Suction made available
o Antiemetics adm but up to vet

218
Q

What does excitement look like?

A

o Paddling
o Vocalization
o Agitation
o Confusion

219
Q

How is excitement treated?

A

o Reassure and calm
o Occasional anesthetic and analgesic administration
o Cover the cage of cats that are crazy and give Valium to calm

220
Q

What do seizures look like?

A

o Twitching

o Uncontrolled violent movements

221
Q

What three drugs are given for seizures?

A

o Diazepam
o Phenobarbital
o Pentobarbital

222
Q

What are two causes of dyspnea in cats?

A

o Laryngospasm from intubation or extubation

o Laryngeal edema

223
Q

What does dyspnea sound like?

A

o Stridor
o Wheezes
o Cyanotic
o Losing consciousness

224
Q

What must be done if the patient is turning blue or losing consciousness?

A

intubate

225
Q

If you are unable to intubate, what must be done?

A

tracheotomy

226
Q

What six things might cause dyspnea in the dog?

A
o	Foreign objects
o	Fluid 
o	Mucus
o	Laryngeal edema
o	Post operative tissue swelling 
o	Tracheal collapse
227
Q

What does dyspnea look and sound like in a dog?

A

o Stridor

o Cyanosis after tube removal

228
Q

How is dyspnea in the dog treated?

A

assist in airway clearance and oxygenate as needed

229
Q

What seven things does prolonged recovery require?

A
o	Vet’s examination
o	Constant observation or frequent monitoring
o	IV fluids
o	Good nursing care
o	Turn frequently
o	Warm patient
o	Use reversal agent