Exam 2 Week 1 Flashcards

1
Q

What immunity is essential for microbe clearance?

A

Adaptive immunity

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2
Q

What is an extracellular site of infection is accessible to?

A

soluble molecules and phagocytes

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3
Q

What does a intracellular infection require?

A

killing or activation of infected cells

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4
Q

What is the defense mechanism for interstitial space, blood, and lymph?

A

Antibodies
Complement Macrophages
Phagocytosis
Neutrophils

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5
Q

What is the defense mechanism for epithelial surfaces?

A

Antibodies (IgA)
Antimicrobial peptides

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6
Q

What is the defense mechanism for cytoplasmic?

A

Cytotoxic T cells
NK cells

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7
Q

What is the defense mechanism for vesicular?

A

T-cell and NK cell dependent macrophage activation

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8
Q

What are the characteristic unique to innate immunity?

A

Recognize structures shared by various classes of microbes but NOT present on
normal HOST CELLS

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9
Q

Pattern recognition receptors (PRR) encoded in germline possesses _________ ____________.

A

limited diversity

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10
Q

PRR distribution is clonal. (T/F)

A

False its non clonal

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11
Q

What do PRRs recognize?

A

pathogen associated molecular pattern (PAMPs)

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12
Q

What are PAMPs?

A

Pathogen associated molecular pattern are molecules expressed and or produced solely by microbes

ex.
1. Nucleic Acids
2. Proteins
3. Cell wall lipids
4. Carbohydrates

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13
Q

Where is the location of PRRs?

A

at plasma and endosomal membrane in the cytosol (they are redundant)

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14
Q

What do PRRs recongnize?

A

PAMPs and similar types of ligands

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15
Q

Toll-like receptors (TLRs) is a type of PRR that are expressed on what cells?

A

Cells of the innate immune system

Such as: macrophages, dendritic cells, mast cells, mucosal epithelial cells, endothelial, B and T cells

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16
Q

TLR signal transduction: Recruitment of adaptor proteins, _______ and ________ leads to activation of ___________ factors and ___________ production.

A

Recruitment of adaptor proteins, MyD88 and TRIF, leads to activation of
transcription factors and cytokine production

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17
Q

All TLRs can recruit MyD88 except which TLR?

A

TLR3

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18
Q

What is triggered after TLR3 recruits TRIF?

A

IFN a/b production

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19
Q

TLR 3 recruits - __________
TLR 4 recruits - __________

A

TLR 3 recruits - TRIF then IFN a/b
TLR 4 recruits - MyD88 and can recruit TRIF

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20
Q

What does increased expression of cytokine, adhesion molecules, and costimulators cause?

A

Acute inflammation and stimulation of adaptive immunity

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21
Q

Production of Type 1 Interferon (IFN a/b) induces what state?

A

Antiviral state

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22
Q

NLRP3 Inflammasome Assemble and Function happens by sensing microbes, cell damage and death, inorganic particles, crystals (dental calculus).

Inflammasome assembly lead to __________ activation and results in cleavage of _________ and secretion of _______.

A

Inflammasome assembly leads to caspase-1 activation and results in cleavage of pro-IL1 b and secretion of IL-1 b.

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23
Q

What accumulates at infection site when NLRP3 (Inflasome) assembles and IL-1 b is released?

A

neutrophils and monocytes

  • leads to acute inflammation
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24
Q

What is a physical barrier in the oral cavity?

A

Saliva

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25
Q

What does the chemical barrier do?

A

Kill microbes by disrupting outer membranes of bacteria and some viruses.

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26
Q

When do circulating effectors cells attack microbes?

A

when there are breached epithelial barriers

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27
Q

What are the 3 examples of effector cells in innate immunity?

A

Neutrophils
Monocytes/macrophages
Dendritic cells

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28
Q

3 Characteristics of Neutrophils

A
  1. Most abundant (1x10^11/day)
  2. Short live (6 hours in the blood)
  3. No Lysosome

*Contains 2 types of granules (azurophilic and specific)

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29
Q

What mediates the earliest phase of the inflammatory response?

A

Neutrophils

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30
Q

MyD88 is responsible for ________ ___________.

A

Cytokine production

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31
Q

TRIF is responsible for _____________ __________ (type 1 interferon).

A

transcription factors

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32
Q

Put these in order that they occur when dental calculus is present:
1. Inflammation and neutrophil recruitment
2. NLRP3 inflammasome
3. IL-1
4. Bone damage

A

2,3,1,4

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33
Q

Mononuclear phagocytes are 10x less abundant than neutrophils and long lived (T/F)

A

True

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34
Q

What do monocytes differentiate into once in tissues?

A

Macrophages

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35
Q

What stage do macrophages come in during the innate immune response?

A

Later stage 1-2 days after infection

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36
Q

Put the steps of macrophage in order
1. microbe recognition
2. active recruitment
3. destruction
4. phagocytosis

A

2,1,4,3

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37
Q

Are macrophages 1st or second responders?

A

second responders neutrophils would be first

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38
Q

Which effector cell has this characteristics: rapid response and divide and persist at inflammation site?

A

Macrophage

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39
Q

What are the 2 functions of classical or M1 macrophages?

A

Trigger inflammation
Kill Microbes

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40
Q

Dendritic cells possess what two things?

A
  1. Dendrites
  2. Phagocytic abilities
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41
Q

What type of cells link innate and adaptive immune response?

A

Classical dendritic cells (DC)

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42
Q

Classical DC cells capture and display microbial antigens to ________ ____ __________ and they tune T cell response by secreting __________.

A

Classical DC cells capture and display microbial antigens to naive T lymphocytes and they tune T cell response by secreting cytokines.

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43
Q

What is the main function of plasmacytoid DC?

A

Produce type 1 interferon (IFN a/b) that possess antiviral activities

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44
Q

Plasmacytoid binds dsRNA via ______.

A

TLR3

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45
Q

What are Natural killer cells equivalent to?

A

cytotoxic T cells

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46
Q

Why are they called natural killer cells?

A

Because they don’t need activation to kill target cells. But if they are activated their function may become enhanced

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47
Q

T/F Natural killer cells do not express somatically rearrange clonally distributed antigen receptors.

A

True

NK cells do not have the highly specific, unique receptors that are generated through somatic recombination like B cells and T cells. Instead, they possess a set of germline-encoded receptors that allow them to recognize and respond to a broad range of signals

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48
Q

T/F Natural killer cells are phagocytes.

A

False

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49
Q

What happens when inhibitory receptor is engaged to MHC class I?

A

NK cell activation is inhibited (signals blocked) therefore there is no cell killing

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50
Q

NK cells kill virus-infected cells via __________.

A

perforin/granzyme

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51
Q

NK cells produce _______ which activates macrophages and lead to killing of phagocytosed microbes. (was not in orange)

A

IFN gamma

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52
Q

Where are mast cells, basophils and eosinophils located? (was not in orange)

A

Mast cells mature in tissue (skin and lungs) and are found near blood vessels.

Basophils and eosinophils are found in blood.

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53
Q

What is the function of mast cells, basophils and eosinophils?

A

Upon activation, release proteolytic enzymes and substances that contribute to inflammation, e.g., histamine, prostaglandins, heparin, leukotrienes, TNF-α

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54
Q

Mast cells, basophils and eosinophils play in important role in helping to protect against _____ and bacterial infections.

A

helminth

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55
Q

What cells are involved in innate immunity?

A

PMNs (neutrophils), monocyte, macrophages, eosinophils, NK

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56
Q

What are the two signals in the role of innate immune response in stimulation of adaptive immunity?

Signal 1 =
Signal 2 =

A

Signal 1 = antigen binds to antigen receptor
Signal 2 = molecules provided by innate cells

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57
Q

What is signal 1 and 2 needed for?

A

lymphocyte proliferation and differentiation

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58
Q

In T and B cells what is the second signal going to be mediated by?

A

B cells it will be mediated by the innate immune response typically IL-6

T cells it will be mediated by the dendritic cells (activated APCs)

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59
Q

T/F There is a third signal provided by innate cell to T cell that is the differentiation signal (IL-6/TGFb).

A

True

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60
Q

Four principal effect involved in inflammation

A
  1. increase in temp (calor)
  2. redness (rubor)
  3. swelling (tumor)
  4. pain (dolor)
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61
Q

In the acute inflammatory response what is the role of mediators?

A

increase capillary permeability which leads to influx of plasma proteins and phagocytic cells

(contributes to four principle effects)

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62
Q

Resident cells secrete various mediators (______, ___________, ___________)

A

histamine, prostaglandin, and TNFa

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63
Q

T/F Cytokines are produced by adaptive cells upon interaction with infectious agents. They induce a cellular response activating or mobilizing other cells.

A

False

Cytokines are produced by innate cells upon interaction with infectious agents. They induce a cellular response activating or mobilizing other cells.

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64
Q

What are the two A’s associated with cytokines?

A

Attract and Activate

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65
Q

What can secrete a range of cytokines?

A

Activated macrophages

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66
Q

What is the effect of cytokines on vascular epithelium: vasodilation or vasoconstriction?

A

vasodilation

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67
Q

What happens to the endothelial wall in order for it to interact with leukocytes (selectins, integrin ligands)?

A

gains adhesion proteins

Endothelial wall gains new adhesion proteins specific for interactions with
leukocytes.

68
Q

What cytokines are involved in a abscess? (not in orange)

A

TNF-α, IL-1, IL-6 in response to LPS and LTA

69
Q

What cells are involved in abscess?

A

neutrophils/monocyte

70
Q

Recruitment of leukocytes to site of infection
1. ________
2. Integrin activation by ________
3. Stable adhesion
4. migration through _________

A

Recruitment of leukocytes to site of infection
1. Rolling
2. Integrin activation by chemokines
3. Stable adhesion
4. migration through endothelium

71
Q

Recruitment of leukocytes to site of infection
1. Rolling
2. ________ activation by _________
3. __________ __________
4. migration through endothelium

A

Recruitment of leukocytes to site of infection
1. Rolling
2. Integrin activation by chemokines
3. Stable adhesion
4. migration through endothelium

72
Q

What cell is the first to get there?

A

Neutrophils

Hours to get to the site

73
Q

Neutrophils express what two things
1. __________ __________ for P- and E- selection
2. ________ that binds to ICAM-1

A

Neutrophils express what two things
1. carbohydrate ligands for P- and E- selection
2. LFA-1 that binds to ICAM-1

74
Q

Neutrophils express what two things
1. carbohydrate ligands for _____ and ______ selection
2. LFA-1 that binds to _______

A

Neutrophils express what two things
1. carbohydrate ligands for P- and E- selection
2. LFA-1 that binds to ICAM-1

75
Q

Neutrophils express what two things?

A
  1. carbohydrate ligands for P- and E- selection
  2. LFA-1 that binds to ICAM-1
76
Q

What gets there after neturophils?

A

Monocytes

> 12 hrs to get at the site

77
Q

Monocytes express what two things
1. carbohydrate ligands for _____ and ______ selection
2. ______ that binds to VCAM-1

A

Monocytes express what two things
1. carbohydrate ligands for P- and E- selection
2. VLA-4 that binds to VCAM-1

78
Q

Monocytes express what two things
1. carbohydrate ligands for P- and E- selection
2. ______ that binds to _____

A

Monocytes express what two things
1. carbohydrate ligands for P- and E- selection
2. VLA-4 that binds to VCAM-1

79
Q

Monocytes express what two things

A
  1. carbohydrate ligands for P- and E- selection
  2. VLA-4 that binds to VCAM-1
80
Q

Plasma protein function as _______, inducing phagocytosis or inflammatory cell recruitment.

A

Plasma protein function as opsonin , inducing phagocytosis or inflammatory cell recruitment.

81
Q

What are the liver plasma proteins? (3)

A

SAP CRP MBL

82
Q

Definition: molecules coating microbe surface

A

Opsonin

83
Q

What is the process of marking microbe for ingestion?

A

Opsonization

84
Q

What do opsonins simultaneously do?

A

Bind to microbe and phagocyte receptor

85
Q

Acute phase reactant: Opsonization can activate ________ ________.

A

complement system

86
Q

What do all three pathways in the complement system lead to?

A

Cleavage of C3 by C3 convertase

products = C3b (opsonin) and C3a (anaphylatoxin)

87
Q

What induces local inflammatory response?

A

C3a and C5a

increase vascular permeability and increased microbial activity

88
Q

What 3 cells are phagocytic?

A

macrophages, neutrophils, and dendritic cells

89
Q

Phagocytosis is the process of ingestion of ______ coated or ________ bound microbes.

A

Phagocytosis is the process of ingestion of opsonin-coated or receptor-bound microbes.

90
Q

How are microbes killed once phagocytosed?

A

Production of toxic products kill microbes

91
Q

After phagocytes ingest microbe and kill them, what can be process?

A

Antigens

92
Q

Describe oxidative or respiratory burst after phagocytosis.

A

Generation of O2 and reactive oxygen species (ROS: H2O2, OCl- and OH-) which are toxic for ingested microbes

93
Q

Two free radical generating systems:
1. Phagocyte oxidase system
2. Inducible nitric oxide synthase (iNOS)

Both of these system generate what three things?

A

ROS, NO, and reactive peroxynitrite radicals that are toxic

94
Q

Two ways of killing of microbes by phagocytosis are: Two free radical-generating system and Proteolytic enzyme production. What is the difference between the two?

A

Two free radical generating systems: is killing by ROS and NO.

Proteolytic enzyme production: is killing by lysosomal enzymes

95
Q

Pus = dying ________

A

neutrophils

96
Q

Neutrophils can kill microbes only intracellularly. (T/F)

A

False they can kill both intracellularly and extracellularly

97
Q

Neutrophil Extracellular Traps (NETs) are high local concentration of antimicrobial components that kill microbes intracellularly. (T/F)

A

False kill microbes extracellularly

98
Q

Antigens induce a specific adaptive immune response. What are 5 examples of antigens?

A
  1. Protein
  2. NA
  3. Polysaccharide
  4. Carbohydrate
  5. Metals
99
Q

What type of immunity require expansion/differentiation of lymphocytes?

A

Adaptive

100
Q

What two things is Humoral immunity mediated by?

A

Antibodies and extracellular microbes

101
Q

What two things is cell-mediated immunity mediated by?

A

T cells and intracellular microbe

102
Q

Primary memory response is how long?

A

1-3 wks

103
Q

Secondary memory response is how long?

A

2-7 days

  • larger and more effective responses to repeated antigen exposures
104
Q

What cells circulate and initiate response upon recognition of a antigen?

A

Lymphocytes (T and B cells)

105
Q

What cells detect presence of microbes?

A

APCs (dendritic cells, macrophages, B cells)

106
Q

What cells destroy microbes?

A

Effector cells (T cells, macrophages and granulocytes)

107
Q

What lymphocyte mediates humoral immuntiy?

A

B lymphocyte

108
Q

What lympochyte mediated cell-mediated immunity?

A

T lymphocyte

109
Q

Survive for weeks - months and die if no antigen

a. Effector T/B cells
b. Memory T/B cells
c. Naive T/B cells

A

c. Naive T/B cells

110
Q

Short lived and die when the antigen is eliminated

a. Effector T/B cells
b. Memory T/B cells
c. Naive T/B cells

A

a. Effector T/B cells

111
Q

Survive for long periods of time

a. Effector T/B cells
b. Memory T/B cells
c. Naive T/B cells

A

b. Memory T/B cells

112
Q

______ T cells decrease with age and _________ T cells increase with age.

A

Naive T cells decrease with age and Memory T cells increase with age.

113
Q

Maturation occurs in primary while activation occurs in ________ _______ _________.

A

Maturation occurs in primary while activation occurs in secondary lmyphoid organs.

114
Q

Organization of secondary lymphoid organs enables

  • _____________ to concentrate antigens
  • ____________ to identify and responds to antigens
  • cells to interact with each other
A

Organization of secondary lymphoid organs enables

  • APCs to concentrate antigens
  • Lymphocytes to identify and responds to antigens
  • cells to interact with each other
115
Q

Lymph drains into lymph nodes and concentrates antigen. This allow sampling of antigens by APCs cells at the site. (T/F)

A

True

116
Q

What cells pick up antigens in the tissue and migrate to lymph nodes?

A

Dendritic cells

117
Q

Blood enters the spleen and allows sampling of antigens by what type of cell?

A

Antigen presenting cell

118
Q

Activated T cells migrate into __________ to eliminate microbes.

A

tissue

119
Q

What is the mucosal immune system similar in organization to?

A

lymph nodes (tonsils, peyer patch)

120
Q

How does movement of T and B cells coordinated?

A

chemokines and chemokine receptors

121
Q

What cells are found in follicles?

A

B cells and follicular dendritic cells

122
Q

What cell are outside but adjacent to follicles

A

T cells and dendritic cells

123
Q

T/F When T and B cells are activated they migrate away from each other.

A

False they migrate towards each other

124
Q

Put in order

  1. differentiation in effector cells
  2. antigen recognition
  3. Memory cells
  4. Contraction via apoptosis
  5. clonal expansion
A

2,5,1,4,3

  1. Antigen recognition
  2. clonal expansion
  3. Differentiation in effector cells
  4. Contraction via apoptosis
  5. Memory cells
125
Q

______ T cells circulate through lymphoid organs where as ________ t cells migrate to tissue where inflammation/infection is present.

A

Naive T cells circulate through lymphoid organs where as effector t cells migrate to tissue where inflammation/infection is present.

126
Q

How are T cells in lymphoid organs alerted that there is an infection?

A

APC capture process and transport antigens to T cells

127
Q

Where are protein antigens concentrated in?

A

Lymphoid organs

128
Q

Antigens are transported from tissue/mucosa to lymphoid organ where recognition by what cell occurs?

A

T-cells

*DC residing in tissues capture microbes and antigens

129
Q

What are the three major antigen presenting cells?

A

Dendritic Cells
Macrophages
B lymphocytes

130
Q

What cell is the most potent APC for activating naive T cells?

A

dendritic cells

131
Q

What type of DC are the majority found in tissues and lymphoid organs?

A

Classical DC

*In the T cell zone of LN

132
Q

What DC capture and process protein antigens?

A

Immature DC

133
Q

DC are activated via _____ and migrate to LN via _______ gradient.

A

DC are activated via PRR and migrate to LN via chemokine gradient.

134
Q

Upon capture and presentation of antigens by DC there is a upregulation of costimulatory molecules and what chemokine recptor?

A

CCR7

135
Q

What DC present protein antigen to T cells?

A

Mature

136
Q

Match immature, classical, and mature to the correct letter

A. capture and process protein antigens
B. present protein antigen to T cells
C. majority found in tissues and lymphoid organs

A

Immature - A
Mature - B
Classical - C

137
Q

What determines the specific recognition of antigens by T cells?

A

Major Histone Complex (MHC) molecules

138
Q

T cells have T cell receptors (TCR) that recognize peptide antigens displayed by MHC molecules of APCs. (T/F)

A

True

139
Q

Human MHC proteins are called HLA which stand fors what?

A

Human leukocyte antigens

140
Q

What are the two sets of highly polymorphic genes?

A

Class I MHC genes
Class II MHC genes

141
Q

What HLA are associated with aggressive periodontitis? (not in orange)

A

HLA A9 and B15

142
Q

Structure of MHC class I and II molecules

The membrane protein contains a peptide binding cleft at what terminal?

A

amino-terminal

143
Q

Structure of MHC class I molecules

The alpha chain is associated with what microglobulin?

A

B2- microglobulin

*groove accommodates 8-9 AA

144
Q

Structure of MHC class II molecules

T/F Alpha and beta chains have a groove accommodating 10-30 AA.

A

True

145
Q

______ T cells only recognize peptides presented by MHC class I

A

CD8

146
Q

MHC class I and TCR interaction:

___ binds CD8 on CD8 T cells

A

a3

*the invariant portion of the alpha chain

147
Q

_______ T cells only recognize peptides presented by MHC class II

A

CD4

148
Q

MHC class II and TCR interaction:

___ binds CD4 on CD4 T cells

A

b2

*the invariant portion of the beta chain

149
Q

What does MHC polymorphism ensure?

A

That a population can deal with microbe diversity

150
Q

Where are MHC Class II molecules expressed? and induced?

A

Expressed on APC and induced by IFN gamma

151
Q

Where are MHC Class I molecules expressed?

A

on all nucleated cells

*remember not red bloods cells because no nucleus

152
Q

MHC molecules only bind peptides derived from what?

A

protein antigens

153
Q

How are protein converted into peptides?

A

antigen processing pathway

154
Q

One APCs displays a large number of different peptides. (T/F)

A

True

155
Q

MHC only bind _________.

A

Peptides

*each molecule present only one peptide at the time

156
Q

Peptide binding to MHC only last 24 hours.

A

False binding last up to days to maximize interaction with t cells

157
Q

Where are extracellular proteins (tumor, bacteria) processed in ________________ and peptides displayed on MHC Class _____ to CD__ cells.

A

Where are extracellular proteins (tumor, bacteria) processed in endosome/lysosome and peptides displayed on MHC Class II to CD4 cells.

158
Q

Cytosolic proteins (virus, bacteria that escape phagosome) are processed by _____ and ________. Peptides are displayed on MHC Class ____ to CD_ cells.

A

Cytosolic proteins (virus, bacteria that escape phagosome) are processed by proteasome and endoplasmic reticulum. Peptides are displayed on MHC Class I to CD8 cells.

159
Q

Class II MHC pathway present antigen to what cells?

A

helper t cells

160
Q

Class I MHC pathway present antigen to what cells?

A

Cytotoxic T cells

161
Q

Optimization of response to different microbes in different locations

Extracellular - CD__
Intracellular - CD __

A

Extracellular - CD4
Intracellular - CD8

162
Q

Definition: Cytokines involved in cell migration.

A

Chemokines

163
Q

Synthesis of cytokines is ______ (burst).

A

transient

164
Q

Cytokines can activate or inhibit cell function (T/F)

A

True

165
Q

M1 macrophages are ____-inflammatory while M2 macrophages are __-inflammatory.

A

M1 macrophages are pro-inflammatory while M2 macrophages are anti-inflammatory.

166
Q
A
167
Q

Where are antigens recognized by T cells?

A

In the lymphoid organs after after being transported from tissue/mucosa