Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy > Exam 2 Anatomy Chap 10-14, 16-18 > Flashcards

Exam 2 Anatomy Chap 10-14, 16-18 Flashcards

1
Q

Does the A band decrease during the sliding filament mechanism?

A

No. It remains the same length throughout the muscle contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

Receptors for acetylcholine are located on:

A

external surface of the sarcolemma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

What is the process during the sliding filament mechanism of skeletal muscle contraction?

A

calcium binds to troponin to remove the tropomyosin, exposing the myosin-binding site

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

What are the characteristics that describe smooth muscle cells?

A
  • can stretch without losing their contractile function
  • may contract in response to nerve impulses, hormones or autorhythmic signals
  • non-striated
  • usually activated involuntary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

The arrangement from microscopic to gross level of a muscle

A
  • myofibril, muscle fiber, fascicle
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

The H band is comprised of

A

Myosin only

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

What does not shorten when a muscle fiber contracts?

A

myofilaments

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

What does the sarcoplasmic reticulum contain?

A

terminal cisterns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

In the neuromuscular junction, the motor end plate is part of the:

A

muscle cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

A fascicle is:

A

a bundle of muscle fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

Myofibrils contain both __ and __ filaments

A

think & thick

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

True or false. An isometric contraction is one which the length of the muscle doesn’t change.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

What characteristic refers to the ability of muscle tissue to repeatedly generate spontaneous action potentials, i.e. as seen in cardiac muscle fibers and some smooth muscle fibers?

A

Autorhymicity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

____ muscle tissue contracts only when stimulate by acetylcholine, while ___ muscle tissue can contract without extrinsic (outside) nervous or hormonal stimulation

A

Skeletal; cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

What are the physiological properties of muscle tissue?

A

Excitability
Extensibility
Contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

Thin filaments are composed of:

A

actin plus the regulatory proteins troponin and tropomyosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

A motor neuron communicates with skeletal muscle fiber by releasing ___ into the synaptic cleft at the neuromuscular junction

A

Acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

Which structure forms tunnels from the sarcolemma inward and allows for rapid communication of the action potential to parts of the muscle fiber?

A

transverse tubules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

Muscles with a high myoglobin content and a large number of capillaries are classified as:

A

slow oxidative

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

Skeletal muscle fibers that would be used for walking or distance running are the:

A

fast oxidative-glycolytic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

Which of the following differentiates cardiac muscle tissue from skeletal muscle tissue?

A

autorhythmic
shorter in length
branching

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

What would result from contraction of the skeletal muscle?

A
  • Aid the return of blood especially from lower limbs to the heart
  • Produce body movement
  • Produce heat
  • Stabilize body position
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

What is a structural protein of the myofibril?

A

Titan

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The type of muscle fibers that have low myoglobin content, relatively few blood capillaries and few mitochondria, and appear white in color:

A

fast glycolytic fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

The type of muscle fibers associated with aerobic, endurance-type activities such as running a marathon are:

A

Slow oxidative (SO) fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

Slow oxidative fibers (type I) function:

A

adapted for maintaining posture

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

Stimulation of one ___ muscle fibers causes contraction of many adjacent fibers, but stimulation of one ___ muscle fiber causes contraction of that fiber only.

A

visceral smooth / multi-unit smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

True or false. Endurance training can cause gradual transformation of some fast glycolytic fibers to fast oxidative glycolytic fibers.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

A neuromuscular bundle of skeletal muscles contains both __ and __ axons

A

sensory / motor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

What are the characteristics of a transverse tubule?

A
  • tube-shaped invaginations of the sarcolemma
  • filled with interstitial fluid
  • ensure that all the superficial and deep parts of the muscle fiber become excited almost simultaneously
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

The ___ surrounds each individual muscle fiber and distributes capillaries to the fibers.

A

Endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

The fascicles is a subunit of a skeletal muscle surrounded by ___

A

Perimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

The muscle enthesis is the:

A

site of attachment to the bone

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

The outer connective tissue layer of a skeletal muscle is the ___ and it is comprised of ___

A

epimysium / dense irregular connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Characteristics of skeletal muscle tissue:

A
  • moves the bones of the skeleton
  • striated
  • voluntary
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Characteristics of cardiac muscle tissue:

A
  • found only in the heart
  • striated
  • involuntary
  • autorhythmicity
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Characteristic of smooth muscle tissue:

A
  • located in the walls of hollow internal structures such as B.V.’s, airways, most organs in the abdominopelvic cavity, and hair follicles
  • non-striated
  • involuntary
  • regulated by neurons in the PNS & hormones released by the endocrine system
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

What are the main functions of muscular tissue:

A
  • producing body movements
  • stabilizing body positions
  • storing and moving substances within the body
  • producing heat
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What are the properties of muscular tissue?

A
  • electrical excitability (action potentials)
  • contractility
  • extensibility; stretch within limits
  • elasticity; return to its original shape
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

Surrounding each muscle fiber is a thin wrapping of mostly reticular fiber called ___

A

endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

Groups of muscle fibers form bundles wrapped in a thicker layer of connective tissue called ___

A

muscle fascicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

The attachment of a muscle’s tendon to the stationary bone is called the:

A

origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

The attachment of a muscle’s other tendon to the moveable bone is called the:

A

insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Motion occurs when the effort applied to the bone __ the load

A

exceeds

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

Only a relatively small effort is required to move a large loud over a small distance. What is this mechanism called?

A

mechanical advantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

A relatively large effort is required to move a small loud. What mechanism is this called?

A

mechanical disadvantage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

Characteristics of first-class levers (EFL):

A
  • fulcrum is between the effort and load
  • either mechanical advantage or mechanical disadvantage
  • Ex. seesaw, scissors
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

Characteristics of second-class levers (ELF):

A
  • load is between the effort and fulcrum
  • mechanical advantage
  • Ex. standing up on your toes
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

Characteristics of third class levers (FEL):

A
  • effort is between the fulcrum and load
  • mechanical disadvantage
  • most common levers in the body
  • Ex. flexing the forearm at the elbow, the contraction of the biceps brachii
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

The tissue surrounding an entire muscle is known as

A

epimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

The tissue that surrounds a muscle cell (myofiber) is known as

A

endomysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

Muscle fibers are bundled into groups known as

A

fascicles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Bundles of muscle fibers (fascicles) are wrapped by a tissue known as

A

perimysium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has conductivity. Which of the following best describes this characteristic?

A

Muscles have local electrical charges that are capable of moving along the muscle fiber.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has extensibility. Which of the following best describes this characteristic?

A

Muscles can stretch when needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

One of the characteristics of muscle tissue is that is has excitability. Which of the following best describes this characteristic?

A

Muscles contract when stimulated.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

Which of the following groups are considered to be parts of the series-elastic components of muscle?

A. actin and myosin
B. ligaments and tendons
C. thick and thin filaments
D. endomysium, perimysium, epimysium, fascia, and tendons

A

endomysium, perimysium, epimysium, fascia, and tendons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

Which of the following best describes the function of the series-elastic component of muscle?

A. These components help the muscle contract.
B. The components help maintain muscle tone.
C. These are not excitable or contractile, but are extensible and elastic.
D. These assist the thick and thin filaments to contract.

A

These are not excitable or contractile, but are extensible and elastic.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

What part of a muscle is the muscle fiber?

A. actin and myosin component
B. series-elastic component
C. muscle cell itself
D. nuclei and the mitochondria

A

muscle cell itself

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

The outer membrane of the muscle fiber is known as the

A

sarcolemma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

The cytoplasm within the muscle fiber is known as the

A

sarcoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

The cytoplasm within the muscle fiber contains a molecule to distribute oxygen within the cell. This molecule is known as

A

myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

The molecule within the cytoplasm of a muscle fiber that supplies quick energy for contraction is

A

glycogen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

The myofilaments within the muscle fiber are composed of three integral items. Which of the following lists the components correctly?

A

myosin, actin, and elastic (titin) filament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

Thick filaments within the myofibril are composed of

A

myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Thin filaments within the myofibril are composed primarily of

A

actin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The elastic filaments within a myofibril are composed of molecules known as

A

titin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

The elastic filaments within a myofibril are attached to and wound around, which of the following?

A. myosin
B. troponin
C. actin
D. sarcolemma

A

myosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

In the myofibril, ATP is used for:

A
  • muscle tone
  • muscle contraction
  • muscle relaxation
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

Which of the following tissues has the greatest ability to repair itself?

A

smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

Of the following muscles types, which one has long, cylindrical-shaped cells?

A

skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Of the following muscle types, which one has only one nucleus?

A

smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

Of the following muscle types, which one does NOT have striations?

A

smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

Of the following muscle types, which one is usually voluntary?

A

skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Objects that move through organs that are surrounded by smooth muscle are often moved by means of

A

peristalsis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

Of the following muscle types, which one is found in the middle layer of the aorta?

A

smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

The “all-or-none” concept of skeletal muscle contraction means that

A

muscle fibers contract completely

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

Which of the following best describes the use of muscle tone in the body?

A. It keeps heart muscle activated and functional.
B. It keeps smooth muscles in a ready state.
C. It prevents fatigue.
D. It keeps our backs straight and our heads up.

A

It keeps our backs straight and our heads up

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

Action potential frequency is best described as:

A

The number of action potentials produced per unit of time.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Triads in skeletal muscle consist:

A

two terminal cisternae and a T-tubule

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

When acetylcholine is broken down by acetylcholinesterase in the synaptic cleft, what happens to the choline?

A

It is reabsorbed at the presynaptic terminal and combined with more acetic acid to make acetylcholine.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

The recovery stroke in muscle contraction involves:

A

return of the myosin head to its original position after the cross bridge releases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

What is one of the primary functions of muscle tissue?

A

heat production

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

The ability of a muscle to be stimulated is called

A

excitability

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

Which of the following muscles is involuntary and is the most widely found throughout the body?

A

smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

What muscle type contains intercalated discs and branching fibers?

A

cardiac

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

What muscle type contains peripherally located, multiple nuclei in its cells?

A

skeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

Function of the Z line:

A

an attachment point for actin molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

Function of the I band:

A

a band where only actin molecules are found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Function of H band:

A

a band where only myosin molecules are found

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

Which of the following is the A band within a myofibril?

A. actin myofilaments in profile
B. myosin myofilaments in profile
C. Z disks in profile
D. gaps between the actin and myosin myofilaments

A

myosin myofilaments in profile

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

What is the unit in a myofibril from Z line to Z line called?

A

sarcomere

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

What best describes a muscle motor unit?

A

one nerve fiber and all the muscle fibers innervated by that nerve

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

On the surface of the sarcolemma, the voltage may shift up and down rapidly. This change in electrical potential caused by shifts in ions across the membrane is known as a(n)

A

action potential

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

During an action potential, calcium is released into the sarcoplasm, near the actin and myosin molecules. Which of the following is the best explanation of what the calcium does?

A

The calcium removes the tropomyosin block.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

When the myosin head (of the thick filament) flexes into a bend, while releasing ADP and inorganic phosphate, pulling the thin filament along with it, this is called the

A

power stroke

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

When the thick and the thin filaments pull together, what happens to the sarcomere?

A

The sarcomere gets shorter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

The tissues of cardiac muscle have unique structures known as

A

intercalated discs

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

Function of Intercalated discs:

A

passing electrical stimulation to other cardiac cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

What is unique about cardiac muscle tissue?

A

The cells have large mitochondria

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

Which of the following is TRUE of cardiac tissue?

A. It contains only small amounts of myoglobin and glycogen.
B. It has few nerve endings within the tissue.
C. The fibers are not arranged in bundles.
D. It has abundant glycogen and myoglobin and is aerobic

A

It has abundant glycogen and myoglobin and is aerobic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

What proteins attaches Z discs to myosin myofilaments?

A

titin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The functional connection between a nerve fiber and a muscle fiber is called a(an)

A

Synapse

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

When the neuron stimulates a muscle fiber, what molecule diffuses across the gap between them?

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

Once a signal molecule has left the neuron and binds to a receptor molecule on the surface of the muscle fiber, a sodium channel opens, allowing entry of sodium into the muscle fiber. Which substance is then released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum?

A

calcium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

Muscle fibers and neurons are called electrically excitable cells because

A

their plasma membranes exhibit voltage changes in response to stimulation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

Movement of which protein causes exposure of the active sites on the actin molecule?

A

tropomyosin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

What type of molecule is acetylcholine?

A

a neurotransmitter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Binding of acetylcholine with its receptor on muscle cells causes

A

opening of a ligand-gated sodium channel

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

What kind of molecule is ACh?

A

protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

In the muscle fiber, what is the function of acetylcholinesterase?

A

It deactivates acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

What is the voltage of the resting potential of the sarcolemma?

A

-70 mv

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Which of the following is a molecule that binds to a receptor?

A

acetylcholine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Which of the following is true of an isometric muscle contraction?

A. The length of the muscle increases during the contraction.
B. responsible for rapid movements of the extremities
C. divided into concentric and eccentric
D. The amount of tension increases during the contraction.

A

The amount of tension increases during the contraction.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Eccentric muscle contractions occur when

A. a person slowly lowers a heavy weight
B. the length of the muscle does not change
C. a person rapidly raises a lighter weight
D. the length of the muscle decreases

A

a person slowly lowers a heavy weight

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

The sum of active and passive tension is called

A

total tension

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Active tension in a muscle is defined as

A

the tension applied to a load when the muscle contracts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

Which of the following types of muscle fatigue represents depletion of ATP?

A. psychological
B. synaptic
C. muscular
D. physiological

A

muscular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Which of the following types of fatigue is caused by the release of more acetylcholine than can be produced to replace it?

A. muscular
B. psychological
C. synaptic
D. physiological

A

synaptic

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

What energy storages source is most commonly used during the first 10 seconds of exercise?

A

creatine phosphate

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

During anaerobic respiration, what is the net amount of ATP produced?

A

2 ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

Which of the following represents the amount of oxygen that is necessary for the body to recover from anaerobic respiration?

A. creatine phosphate utilization period
B. oxygen overload
C. oxygen debt
D. aerobic respiration

A

oxygen debt

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

All of the following are true about fast-twitch fibers except

A. high amount of myoglobin
B. rapid contraction
C. break down ATP rapidly
D. fewer mitochondria than slow-twitch fibers

A

high amount of myoglobin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

What is the difference between fast and slow-twitch fibers in the body?

A

Slow-twitch fibers are usually more resistant to fatigue.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

A person with an arm immobilized in a cast for 6 weeks will

A

develop muscular atrophy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

Which of the following effects of exercise elevate the body temperature?

A. elevated metabolism from the oxygen debt
B. vasodilation of blood vessels in the skin
C. skeletal muscle contractions
D. all of the above

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

True or false. The resting membrane potential is less negative than in skeletal muscle.

A

True

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

What is most common neurotransmitters in smooth muscle?

A

acetylcholine and norepinephrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

All of the following are properties of cardiac muscle cells except:

A. intercalated discs
B. involuntary
C. branching fibers
D. shorter in duration of contraction than skeletal muscles.

A

shorter in duration of contraction than skeletal muscles.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

A type of muscle that extends a joint is known as a(n)

A

extensor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the relatively stationary end of attachment of the muscle is termed its

A

origin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

When a skeletal muscle contracts to cause a given movement, the more movable end of attachment of the muscle is termed its

A

insertion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

When a muscle contracts, it usually has an opposing muscle that can cause movement in the opposite direction. Such a muscle is called a(an)

A

antagonist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

For the following muscle shapes, which one is thick and tapered like the biceps brachii muscle?

A. fusiform
B. parallel
C. Convergent
D. pennate

A

fusiform

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

For the following muscle shapes, which one is fan shaped like the chest muscles?

A

convergent/triangular

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

When a muscle contracts, there may be another muscle that contracts along with it. Which of the following terms describes that type of muscle?

A

synergist

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Which muscle encircles the outer border of the orbits?

A

orbicularis oculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

Of the following muscles of the head, which one aids in chewing?

A

masseter

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

Of the following muscles of the head, which one is on the side of the head?

A

temporalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Of the following muscles of the head, which one wraps around the mouth?

A

orbicularis oris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Of the following muscles of the head, which one is on the nose?

A

nasalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

Of the following muscles of the head, which one is over the temporal bone?

A

temporalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Of the following muscles of the head, which one is in the back of the head?

A

occipitalis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

Which of the following muscles is (are) attached to the tongue?

A. genioglossus
B. hypoglossus
C. styloglossus
D. all of the above

A

all of the above

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

Which muscle of the neck tilts the head down and toward the side?

A

sternocleidomastoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

Which muscle of the neck flexes the neck laterally?

A

scalenes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Of the following back muscles , which is the largest?

A

trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Which of the following muscles of the back has its origin on the occipital bone?

A

trapezius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Which muscle of the back adducts, and rotates the arm laterally?

A

infraspinatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

Which muscle of the back has its insertion on the humerus?

A

latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

Which muscle of the lower back inserts on the humerus and helps to move the arm?

A

latissimus dorsi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Which muscle is the major muscle for respiration? And it separates the abdominal and thoracic cavity.

A

diaphragm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Which is the deepest abdominal muscle?

A

transversus abdominis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

Which muscle of the arm inserts at the mid-humerus?

A

deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

Which muscle of the arm moves the arms up, as in asking a question in class?

A

deltoid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Of the following muscles of the forearm, which one rotates the forearm laterally?

A

supinator

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

Of the following muscles that work the hand, which one flexes and abducts the wrist?

A

flexor carpi radialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

Of the following muscles of the forearm, which one has its origin on the mid-humerus and its insertion on the coronoid process of the ulna? It flexes the forearm at the elbow.

A

brachialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one crosses over the anterior portion of the thigh from lateral to medial?

A

sartorius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the posterior side?

A

biceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the anterior midline?

A

rectus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is on the medial side of the thigh and pulls the leg inward?

A

adductor magnus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one is a narrow band that is on the medial side and moves from the pubis to the tibia?

A

gracilis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

Of the following muscles of the thigh which one has its origin on the ilium, sacrum and coccyx and its insertion on the posterior surface of the femur?

A

gluteus maximus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Of the following muscles of the thigh, which one inserts on the head of the fibula?

A

adductor magnus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

Of the following muscles of the thigh which one is on the medial side of the anterior thigh?

A

vastus medialis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

Which muscle would be considered an antagonist to the rectus femoris?

A

biceps femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Which muscle would be considered an antagonist to the gluteus maximus?

A

rectus femoris

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

Of the following muscles of the lower leg, which one is on the anterior side?

A

tibialis anterior

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Which muscles of the leg inserts on the calcaneus?

A

gastrocnemius

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Of the following muscles of the leg, which one attaches to the heel by way of the calcaneal tendon?

A

soleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

Of the following muscles, which one flexes the toes?

A

flexor digitorum longus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

There are _____ pairs of spinal nerves.

A

31

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

The deep groove on the ventral surface that extends the length of the spinal cord is the

A

anterior median fissure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Which spinal nerves comprise the cauda equina?

A

lumbar, sacral and coccygeal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What two grooves extend the length of the spinal cord and partially divide it into right and left halves?

A

anterior median fissure and posterior median sulcus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

The fibrous strand or terminal filum that anchors the inferior end of the spinal cord to the coccyx is a continuation of the of which mater

A

pia mater

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

space superficial to the meninges in the spinal cord area in which an anesthetic is injected to block pain impulses from the pelvic area

A

epidural space

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

What are the four regions into which the spinal cord is divided?

A
  • lumbar
  • sacral
  • thoracic
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

The spinal cord is contiguous superiorally with the

A

medulla oblongata

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

The nerves that supply the upper limbs enter or exit from this area of the spinal cord.

A

cervical enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

The nerves that supply the lower limbs enter or exit from this area of the spinal cord.

A

lumbar enlargement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

The inferior end of the spinal cord is anchored to the coccyx by the

A

filum terminale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

The white matter in each half of the spinal cord is organized into three columns. What are the three columns?

A

ventral column
lateral column
dorsal column

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

The gray matter on either side of the spinal cord is subdivided into anterior, lateral and posterior ___

A

horns

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

The lateral horns of the gray matter in the thoracic region of the spinal cord contain the cell bodies of

A

sympathetic motor neurons.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

The gray matter on the right and left sides of the spinal cord is connected by the

A

gray commissure.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Which of the following terms is synonymous with columns as in columns of white matter in the spinal cord?

A

funiculi

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Each column in the white matter of the spinal cord consists of one or more

A

tracts

190
Q

The white matter in each half of the spinal cord is arranged in

A

three columns - ventral, lateral and dorsal.

191
Q

Ascending and descending tracts of the spinal cord occur in the

A

columns

192
Q

What is correct distribution of spinal nerve pairs?

A

8 cervical - 12 thoracic - 5 lumbar - 5 sacral - 1 coccygeal

193
Q

Where are fibers of adjacent spinal nerves sorted and recombined so that fibers specific to a body part reach that body part in the same nerve?

A

plexus

194
Q

The brachial plexus supplies nerves that function to contract:

A

muscles of the arm and forearm

195
Q

The sciatic nerves arise from which plexuses?

A

lumbosacral

196
Q

After severely breaking his left humerus in an accident, a man lost sensation on the posterior aspect of the limb and was unable to extend his forearm, wrist, or fingers. What nerve was damaged?

A

radial

197
Q

After severely injuring her hip in an accident, a woman was unable to extend her right leg. What nerve was damaged?

A

femoral

198
Q

Which of the following nerves arises from the brachial plexus and innervates all of the extensor muscles of the upper limb?

A

radial nerve

199
Q

Compression of what nerve arising from the brachial plexus results in numbness, tingling, and pain in the fingers, a condition called carpal tunnel syndrome?

A

median nerve

200
Q

Nerve fibers in the phrenic nerves that innervate the diaphragm arise primarily from what plexuses?

A

cervical

201
Q

Which portion of the brainstem is continuous with the spinal cord?

A

medulla oblongata

202
Q

What are the enlargements on the medulla oblongata that are involved in conscious skeletal muscle control?

A

pyramids

203
Q

Which of the following serves as a motor center that is involved in maintaining muscle tone and coordinating movements?

A. inferior olivary nucleus
B. red nucleus
C. substantia nigra
D. suprachaismatic nucleus

A

substantia nigra

204
Q

Another term for “midbrain” is

A

mesencephalon

205
Q

The _________ is the most-specific part of the midbrain that is an integral part of the auditory pathway.

A

inferior colliculi

206
Q

The stalk that connects the hypothalamus to the pituitary is the

A

infundibulum

207
Q

Which lobes receive and interpret sensory input for smell and / or hearing?

A

frontal and temporal

208
Q

The right and left cerebral hemispheres are separated by the

A

longitudinal fissure.

209
Q

The _______ comprises the bulk of the mature adult brain.

A

cerebrum

210
Q

The posterior boundary of the frontal lobe is the

A

central sulcus.

211
Q

What type of nuclei in the cerebrum are involved in control of motor functions?

A

basal nuclei

212
Q

Which of the following is or are located within the white matter of the cerebrum?

A

basal nuclei

213
Q

What lobe of the cerebrum is located deep within the lateral sulcus?

A

insula

214
Q

A ridge or fold on the surface of the cerebrum is called a

A

gyrus

215
Q

Gyri on the cerebral surface _______ the surface area of the cortex.

A

increase

216
Q

Venous blood flows through the _______, located in some areas of the meninges surrounding the brain.

A

dural venous sinuses

217
Q

Dural sinuses contain

A

venous blood.

218
Q

What is the name for the portion of the dura mater that separates the cerebellum from the overlying cortex?

A

tentorium cerebelli

219
Q

What is the name for the portion of the dura mater that separates the two cerebellular hemispheres?

A

falx cerebelli

220
Q

The cluster of specialized capillaries at which cerebrospinal fluid is secreted into a ventricle is the

A

choroids plexus.

221
Q

The cerebrospinal fluid circulates around the brain and spinal cord in the

A

subarachnoid space.

222
Q

Cerebrospinal fluid circulates from the third ventricle to the fourth through the

A

cerebral aqueduct.

223
Q

From superficial to deep, the three layers of the meninges are

A

dura mater - arachnoid mater - pia mater

224
Q

Which space(s) does the brain get filled with cerebralspinal fluid?

A
  • subarachnoid space
  • ventricles
  • spinal cord
  • central canal of spinal cord
225
Q

Lipid-soluble substances move through the blood-brain barrier by

A. active transport.
B. mediated transport.
C. diffusion

A

diffusion

226
Q

The central nervous system develops from the embryonic

A

forebrain

227
Q

The embryonic forebrain gives rise to the

A

cerebrum and diencephalon

228
Q

The bulk of the adult human brain develops from which of the following secondary vesicles during embryonic development?

A

telencephalon

229
Q

There are _____ pairs of cranial nerves.

A

12

230
Q

Sensory impulses from taste receptors are transmitted to the brain on which of the following cranial nerves?

A

Facial nerve (VIII), Glossopharyngeal nerve (IX), Vagus nerve (X)

231
Q

The anesthetic a dentist injects before drilling to clean and repair a cavity is done to block sensory impulses from a branch of what cranial nerve?

A

trigeminal (contains alveolar nerves which transmit tooth pain)

232
Q

Autonomic fibers of the _______ nerve carry motor impulses to the heart and many smooth muscles and glands in the viscera of the thorax and abdomen.

A

Vagus

233
Q

The nerve fibers carrying sensory information through the cribriform plate of the ethmoid bone are associated which the _______ nerve.

A

olfactory

234
Q

How many of the 12 pairs of cranial nerves enter or exit the central nervous system through the brainstem?

A

10

235
Q

Which cranial nerve innervates four of the six muscles that move the eye and the levator palpebrae superioris muscle that raises the superior eyelid?

A

oculomotor

236
Q

A drooping upper eyelid is a symptom indicative of possible damage to what cranial nerve?

A

oculomotor

237
Q

Which cranial nerves transmit sensory impulses pertaining to taste to the brainstem?

A

facial, glossopharyngeal and vagus

238
Q

The only cranial nerve involved in sensory cutaneous innervation is the

A

glossopharyngeal

239
Q

Which cranial nerve controls the muscles involved in chewing?

A

vagus

240
Q

What cranial nerve causes movements of the tongue involved in speaking, manipulating food and swallowing?

A

hypoglossal

241
Q

The jugular foramen provides a route of passage through the cranium for which of the following cranial nerves?

A

glossopharyngeal, vagus and accessory

242
Q

Which of these somatic receptors is involved in detecting heavy pressure?

A

pacinian corpuscles

243
Q

Ascending tracts of the spinal cord occur in the

A

columns

244
Q

Sensory information on its way from your hand to the cerebral cortex would pass through the following structures in what sequence?

  1. medulla oblongata
  2. midbrain
  3. pons
  4. spinal cord
  5. thalamus
A

spinal cord -> medulla oblongata -> pons -> midbrain -> thalamus

245
Q

The sensory areas for vision are located in what lobes

A

occipital lobes

246
Q

The sensations of temperature, touch, pressure and pain occur in the

A

postcentral gyrus of each parietal lobe

247
Q

Somatic sensory signals are routed to which of the following areas?

A. Auditory
B. Olfactory
C. Taste
D. Visual

A

Visual

248
Q

Descending tracts of the spinal cord occur in the

A

columns

249
Q

The primary motor area is located in the __________ gyrus of each __________ lobe.

A

precentral; frontal

250
Q

What happens to the muscle fibers during isotonic contraction?

A

muscle fibers are contracting to shorten the muscle against the load

251
Q

What happens to the muscle fibers during isometric contraction?

A

the number of fibers contracting and generating a force are equal to opposite force of the load, so the muscle does not change length

252
Q

The extracellular matrix liquid portion in blood is called

A

blood plasma

253
Q

True or false. Blood is more dense and more viscous than water.

A

True

254
Q

What is the average alkaline pH range?

A

7.35 - 7.45

255
Q

Where are blood plasma proteins produced?

A

In the liver by hepatocytes (liver cells)

256
Q

What is the function of a albumin?

A
  • osmotic pressure
  • blood viscosity
  • transport hormones
  • regulate blood pH
257
Q

What is the function of globulins?

A
  • attack viruses
  • transport iron
258
Q

What is the function of fibrinogens?

A

blood clotting

259
Q

Lymphoid stem cells give rise to:

A
  • lymphocytes
  • natural killer cells
260
Q

Myeloid stem cells give rise to:

A
  • RBC’s
  • platelets
  • monocytes
  • neutrophils
  • eosinophils
  • basophils
  • mast cells
261
Q

Red blood cells have oxygen-carrying proteins called

A

hemoglobin

262
Q

When hemoglobin releases nitric oxide (NO), what happens to the blood vessel?

A

Vasodilation - increase in the diameter

263
Q

What is the production of RBC’s called?

A

Erythropoiesis

264
Q

Which white blood cells are categorized as granular leukocytes?

A

neutrophils, eosinophils, basophils

265
Q

Which white blood cells are categorized as agranular leukocytes?

A

lymphocytes and monocytes

266
Q

What hormone aids in producing platelets?

A

thrombopoietin

267
Q

There are 4 chambers inside the heart. Which chamber(s) receive blood from outside the heart?

A
  • right atrium (deoxygenated)
  • Left atrium (oxygenated)
268
Q

There are 4 chambers inside the heart. Which chamber directs blood to the lungs?

A

right ventricle

269
Q

There are 4 chambers inside the heart. Which chamber is enclosed by a thick layer of heart muscle so that it can pump blood out of the body?

A

left ventricle

270
Q

What is the purpose of valves in the heart?

A

they facilitate the movement of blood through the heart

271
Q

The heart valves are “tethered” or held down by a structure known as the?

A

Chordae Tendineae

272
Q

Describe the systemic circuit of circulation:

A

blood moves from the left ventricle to the body (excluding the lungs)

273
Q

The heart actually pumps blood to itself (to the myocardium). What is the name of the blood vessels that supply the heart muscle with blood?

A

coronary vessels

274
Q

What is is true of the SA node?

A
  • it stands for Sino artial
  • It is the peacemaker of the heart
275
Q

What is the sequence of the cardiac conduction pathway?

A

SA node, atria, AV node, ventricles

276
Q

True or false. There are two phases to the heart beat. One phase relates to when the heart is contracting, the other phase refers to when the heart is relaxed. Diastole refers to the phase when the heart is contracting.

A

False; diastole refers to the phase that is relaxing. Systole refers to the phase that is contracting.

277
Q

The heart is position with the apex directed ___ and __ to the ___.

A

inferiorly; anteriorly; left

278
Q

What causes the heart valves to open?

A

increased pressure within the preceding chamber

279
Q

What is the flow of deoxygenated blood through the heart?

A

superior and inferior vena cava; right atrium; tricuspid valve; right ventricle, pulmonary artery

280
Q

The right and left coronary arteries branch from which blood vessels

A

ascending aorta

281
Q

What is the function of autorhythmic cells?

A

generate cardiac action potentials

282
Q

During atrial systole the atrioventricular valves are ___, and the semilunar valves are ___.

A

open; closed

283
Q

S1, the first heart sound, is the result of what cardiac event?

A

closure of the atrioventricular valve

284
Q

The first heart sound (S1), described as a lubb sound, is caused by blood turbulence associated with the closure of which valves?

A

right (tricuspid) and left (bicuspid) atrioventricular valves

285
Q

Which part of the heart is the most inferior part of the heart and sits slightly to the patient’s left?

A

Apex

286
Q

During each cardiac style, there are four heart sounds. In a normal heart only the first “lubb” and second “dump” heart sounds (S1 and S2) are loud enough to be heard through a stethoscope. What causes these heart sounds?

A

the closing of the atrioventricular and semilunar valves

287
Q

A person with a heart valve that leaks would most likely have a condition known as ___.

A

heart murmur

288
Q

AV valves close during which periods?

A

ventricular systole

289
Q

What creates a delay for the atria to empty their blood into the ventricles?

A

atrioventricular node

290
Q

What can lead to blood regurgitating (flowing back) into the atria when the ventricles contract?

A
  • Damaged to the chordae tendineae
  • Damaged to the atrioventricular valves
291
Q

The ___ transports oxygen ___ blood from the heart to the lungs

A

pulmonary trunk; poor

292
Q

The ____ transports oxygen ___ blood from the left lung to the heart

A

pulmonary veins; rich

293
Q

The ___ received oxygen-poor blood from the superior and inferior vena cava and the coronary sinus

A

right atrium

294
Q

Blood ejected by the left ventricle flows through the ___ then into the aorta and then through the body

A

aortic semilunar valve

295
Q

The base of the heart is formed primarily by the left atrium and also includes portions of the right atrium and the ___ sinus

A

Coronary

296
Q

The mechanism of closing a semilunar valve is

A

a decrease in ventricular pressure

297
Q

Contained within the intercalated discs are___ which hold the cardiac fibers together.

A

Desmosomes

298
Q

An incompetent bicuspid valve may allow blood to regurgitate (backflow) into the __________?

A

left atrium

299
Q

The ___ receives oxygen rich blood from the pulmonary veins.

A

left atrium

300
Q

Branching off the ascending aorta, the____ carry oxygenated blood to the myocardium of the heart.

A

coronary arteries

301
Q

A remnant of fetal circulation, the ___ was originally designed to bypass the lungs and deliver blood from the pulmonary artery to the aorta.

A

ligamentum arteriosum

302
Q

Blockage of the circumflex branch of the coronary arteries prevents oxygenated blood flow to the walls of the

A

left ventricle and left atrium

303
Q

Which component of the conduction system provides the only electrical connection between the atria and the ventricles?

A

atrioventricular bundle (bundle of His)

304
Q

The left side of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to all tissues except

A

pulmonary alveoli of the lungs

305
Q

Semilunar valves close when ventricular pressure is (high or low)

A

low

306
Q

What type of blood occurs in pulmonary circulation?

A
  • both oxygenated and deoxygenated blood
  • Pulmonary arteries carry deoxygenated blood from the heart to the lungs
  • Pulmonary veins carry oxygenated blood back to the heart to be prepared to pump it to the rest of the body
307
Q

During the ventricular relaxation period, describe the orientation of the heart valves:

A
  • atrioventricular valves open, semilunar valves closed
    (During ventricular relaxation or diastole, the AV valves are open to allow blood to fill the ventricles. The SL valves will open during ventricular contraction to allow the ejection of blood)
308
Q

The anterior interventricular branch of the left coronary artery supplies oxygenated blood to the walls of both

A
  • Ventricles
  • Coronary arteries are responsible for supplying blood to the heart muscle tissue.
309
Q

The majority of pacemaker cells in the heart occur in the

A

sinoatrial node

310
Q

During aortic insufficiency there is a backflow of blood from the aorta into the

A

left ventricle

311
Q

Blood that enters the heart via the superior and inferior venae cavae enters the atrium, flows through the ____________________ valve, enters the ventricle, then passes the ____________________ valve.

A

tricuspid valve; pulmonary valve

312
Q

The membrane that surrounds the heart is called the __________ and it functions to ____________.

A

pericardium; protect the heart

313
Q

After blood from the myocardium enters the coronary veins and coronary sinus, it enters the

A

right atrium

314
Q

The left ventricle can be distinguished from other chambers by the

A

Thickest myocardium

315
Q

Which of the layer of the heart is responsible for the pumping action of the heart?

A

myocardium (middle layer of the heart)

316
Q

The coronary sinus empties into the right atrium and is located on the

A

posterior surface of the heart

317
Q

The innate heart rate is 100 bpm, however the___division of the autonomic nervous system slows the SA node down to 75 bpm.

A

Parasympathetic

318
Q

Branching off the ascending aorta, the__ carry oxygenated blood to the myocardium of the heart.

A

coronary arteries

319
Q

This valve opens during an increase in ventricular pressure and routes blood to the lungs.

A

pulmonary semilunar valve

320
Q

Blood flows from the left atrium into the left___

A

Ventricle

321
Q

The receiving chambers of the heart are the___

A

atria

322
Q

How many flaps are in each semilunar valve?

A

3

323
Q

Heart valves are designed to open and allow a one directional flow of blood and then close to prevent__

A

back flow

324
Q

Which of the following time spans represents the normal lifespan for platelets?

A

5-9 days

325
Q

Identify the element found in the hemoglobin molecule.

A

Iron

326
Q

Agglutination is

A

the clumping of red blood cells

327
Q

Platelets arise from _________ stem cells.

A

Myeloid

328
Q

Myeloid stem cells complete development in the

A

red bone marrow

329
Q

____ is fluid that surrounds body cells.

A

interstitial fluid

330
Q

In physiology lab, a group of students lysed (opened up) RBCs to analyze the contents. Which protein should they expect to find?

A

Hemoglobin

331
Q

An individual with type A blood has

A

anti-B antibodies

332
Q

An individual with red blood cells that display the A antigen has

A

type A blood

333
Q

An individual with type O blood can receive blood transfusions of which type(s)?

A

type O

334
Q

In a healthy individual, less than 1% of all white blood cells are

A

basophils; basophils help with inflammation

335
Q

A high white blood cell count of ________ may indicate a bacterial infection.

A

Neutrophils; contain defenses, proteins tat exhibit a broad range of antibiotic activity against bacteria and fungi

336
Q

A high white blood cell count of ________ may indicate a fungal infection.

A

monocytes; often appear during chronic inflammation are indicative of various disease states including fungal infection, tuberculosis, and some leukemias

337
Q

After platelets die, which organ removes them from circulation?

A

Spleen or liver

338
Q

An individual with red blood cells that display neither of the A and B antigens has

A

type O

339
Q

The gel-like mass that consist of fibrin threads, platelets, and any blood cells trapped by the fibrin in a blood vessel is a

A

blood clot

340
Q

Anti-A antibodies will react with__ antigens

A

A

341
Q

An individual with A antigens on their red blood cells and anti-B antibodies in the plasma has

A

Type A

342
Q

Monocytes will migrate into tissues where they enlarge and differentiate into

A

Macrophages

343
Q

In centrifuged blood, the buffy coat consists of

A

white blood cells and platelets

344
Q

An individual with no antigens on their red blood cells but who has both anti-A and anti-B antibodies in the plasma has

A

type O blood

345
Q

Which of the following disorders involves an inability to carry oxygen?

A

Anemia

346
Q

Which of the following disorders involves cancer of white blood cells?

A

Leukemia

347
Q

Which subtype of lymphocyte attacks viruses, fungi, and some bacteria?

A

T cells; attack infected body cells and tumor cells

348
Q

Which are the only arteries that carry deoxygenated blood?

A

pulmonary arteries

349
Q

Blood leaves the liver by way of which vein?

A

Hepatic

350
Q

The superior mesenteric vein empties into which vessel?

A

hepatic portal vein

351
Q

What is the term for the union of the branches of two or more arteries?

A

Anastomosis

352
Q

The internal and external iliac veins unite to form which of the following?

A

common iliac vein

353
Q

The vertebral veins, external jugular veins, and internal ________ veins drain most blood from the head.

A

Jugular

354
Q

Blood is supplied to the cardiac myocardium through which system?

A

coronary circulation

355
Q

Arterioles branch to form which smaller vessels?

A

Capillaries

356
Q

Compared to arteries of the same diameter, veins have __ walls than arteries

A

Thinner

357
Q

The outermost layer of an artery or vein is called the tunica

A

adventitia (externa)

358
Q

What gives arteries high compliance?

A

elastic fibers
(Artery walls can stretch easily and expand without tearing in response to a small increase in pressure)

359
Q

Describe the structure of arterioles.

A
  • thin tunica intima
  • Small pores
  • Thin internal elastic membrane
360
Q

The five basic types of blood vessels are arteries, arterioles, capillaries, __, and veins.

A

Venules

361
Q

After blood from the myocardium enters the coronary veins and coronary sinus, it enters the ___

A

right atrium

362
Q

The coronary sinus empties into the right atrium and is located on the

A

posterior surface of the heart

363
Q

The branches of the thoracic aorta that supply blood to internal organs are called __ branches

A

Visceral

364
Q

The dural venous sinuses are located between layers of what type of cranial tissue?

A

dura mater

365
Q

Which vein drains the gallbladder?

A

Cystic

366
Q

What is the term for a vein that carries blood from one capillary network to another?

A

portal vein

367
Q

From where does the superior mesenteric vein drain blood into the hepatic portal?

A
  • Intestine
  • Pancreas
  • Stomach
368
Q

The abdominal aorta ends when it divides into the:

A

common iliac arteries

369
Q

The portion of the aorta that emerges from the left ventricle is the ______ aorta.

A

Ascending

370
Q

Which vessels returns deoxygenated blood to the right atrium?

A
  • superior vena cava
  • Coronary sinus
  • Inferior vena cava
371
Q

When the pulmonary trunk splits, the right pulmonary__carries blood to the pulmonary capillaries in the right lung.

A

Artery

372
Q

What is the term for the part of the tunica interna that has openings to facilitate diffusion of materials to the tunica media?

A

internal elastic lamina

373
Q

The __ mesenteric vein passes into the splenic vein and drains blood from portions of the large intestine.

A

Inferior

374
Q

What forms the hepatic portal vein?

A

superior mesenteric and splenic vein

375
Q

True or false. The pulmonary circulation carries oxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the pulmonary alveoli within the lungs and returns deoxygenated blood from the pulmonary alveoli (air sacs) to the left atrium.

A

FALSE; The pulmonary circulation carries deoxygenated blood from the right ventricle to the lungs, where it becomes oxygenated and returns to the left atrium as oxygenated blood

376
Q

The portion of the aorta that descends inferior to the diaphragm is the _____ aorta.

A

Abdominal

377
Q

From where does the hepatic portal vein receive blood?

A

digestive canal

378
Q

Where do the pulmonary arteries of the lungs originate?

A

pulmonary trunk

379
Q

The popliteal artery divides into the anterior and posterior__ arteries.

A

Tibial

380
Q

The pulmonary trunk divides into what?

A

pulmonary arteries

381
Q

Describe the structure of veins.

A
  • thin walls
  • Little smooth muscle
  • Few elastic fibers
382
Q

Which two veins open directly into the hepatic portal?

A

right/left gastric veins

383
Q

Describe the order of vessels in the pulmonary circulation from lungs to heart.

A

alveoli, capillaries, venules, pulmonary veins, left atrium

384
Q

The hepatic portal vein transports blood from the gastrointestinal organ capillaries and spleen capillaries to which organ?

A

Liver

385
Q

The abdominal portion of the esophagus is drained by the right__ vein.

A

Gastric

386
Q

What does pulmonary circulation do?

A
  • carries deoxygenated blood to alveoli
  • Returns oxygenated blood from alveoli
387
Q

The pulmonary trunk emerges from where?

A

right ventricle

388
Q

How are veins and arteries structurally different?

A
  • veins have larger lumen
  • Veins lack external/internal elastic membrane
  • Veins have thinner tunica intima and media
389
Q

Most blood is drained from the head through the internal jugular veins, external jugular veins, and which vessel?

A

Vertebral veins

390
Q

The innermost layer of blood vessels is composed of:

A

simple squamous epithelium

391
Q

Which type of blood vessel is associate with thick elastic walls and high pressure?

A

Arteries

392
Q

Which type of blood vessel is associated with gas exchange in the lungs and tissues?

A

Capillary

393
Q

Which type of blood vessel is associated with valves and skeletal “muscle pump”?

A

Veins

394
Q

Continuous capillaries have:

A

intercellular clefts
- located in lungs

395
Q

Fenestrated capillaries have:

A

many small pores
- located in kidneys

396
Q

Sinusoids have:

A
  • unusually large fenestrations
  • incomplete or absent basement membrane
  • very large intercellular clefts
  • located in liver
397
Q

Blood is combined from other veins and returns to the heart through the superior and inferior ___.

A

vena cava

398
Q

Identify the three layers of a blood vessel from outermost to innermost?

A

tunica externa, tunica media, tunica intima

399
Q

What are the functions of smooth muscle within the blood vessel wall?

A
  • regulate blood flow
  • Regulate blood pressure
  • Limit loss of blood through a damaged vessel wall (vasospasm)
400
Q

Which level of blood vessels play a key role in regulating blood flow and are therefore known as resistance vessels?

A

Arterioles

401
Q

Which structures can be referred to as blood reservoirs as they contain a large percentage of the blood volume?

A

veins and venules

402
Q

What 3 branches are a direct branch off the aortic arch?

A
  • Left subclavian artery
  • Left common carotid artery
  • Brachiocephalic trunk
403
Q

In anatomical position, the __ artery runs along the lateral side of your lower arm.

A

Radial

404
Q

Capillaries found in the kidneys, choroid plexuses of the ventricles in the brain, and most endocrine glands are most likely to be which capillaries:

A

fenestrated capillaries

405
Q

Which vessel is the first major branch of the arch of the aorta?

A

brachiocephalic trunk

406
Q

Describe the sequence of the blood flow through the pulmonary circulation?

A

right ventricle -> pulmonary trunk -> pulmonary arteries -> lungs

407
Q

What is the correct circulatory route that delivers blood throughout the body?

A

arteries -> arterioles ->capillaries -> venules -> veins

408
Q

Trace the flow of venous blood draining from the small intestine back to the heart:

A

superior mesenteric vein -> hepatic portal vein -> hepatic veins -> inferior vena cava -> heart

409
Q

The abdominal aorta splits first into right and left ___ arteries

A

common iliac

410
Q

The __ artery runs down the posterior surface of the knee.

A

Popliteal

411
Q

The internal iliac artery supplies the:

A
  • pelvic organs
  • External genitals
  • Buttocks
412
Q

The left subclavian vein receives blood directly from:

A

left external jugular vein

413
Q

The artery that is commonly used to measure/take the blood pressure is, and it is classified as a(n) ___ artery.

A

brachial; muscular

414
Q

A characteristic feature of many veins, that are not evident in arteries are:

A

cusp-like internal valves

415
Q

The internal layer of a blood vessel is called the:

A

tunica intima or tunica interna

416
Q

The middle layer of a blood vessel is called the:

A

tunica media

417
Q

The artery family of blood vessels consists of:

A

elastic arteries, muscular arteries, and arterioles

418
Q

The most common type of capillaries are the ___ capillaries that are characterized by plasma membranes that are separated by ____

A

continuous/intercellular clefts

419
Q

Fenestrated capillaries are more permeable than continuous capillaries because their plasma membranes:

A

have intercellular clefts and small pores

420
Q

Capillaries are the __ vessels of the circulatory system of vessels

A

Exchange

421
Q

The heart is self-regulating pump consisting of four chambers - two receiving chambers called __ and two pumping chambers called ___

A

Atria / ventricles

422
Q

The large vessels that carry blood from the right and left ventricles are the __ and __.

A

pulmonary trunk/aorta

423
Q

The right pump, or right ventricle of the heart, pumps blood into a circulatory pathway called the ___

A

pulmonary circuit

424
Q

Arteries called __ vessels, which means to take blood away from the heart, while veins are called __ vessels, which means to return blood to the heart.

A

Efferent/afferent

425
Q

The principal molecules of exchange in capillaries of the pulmonary circuit are

A

oxygen and carbon dioxide

426
Q

The first capillary network of the renal portal system is the

A

Glomerulus

427
Q

Blood helps to maintain homeostasis by

A

transporting materials between the tissue fluid and the external environment

428
Q

The average blood volume for an adult is about

A

5 liters

429
Q

What percentage of body weight is blood?

A

8%

430
Q

Other than water, the most common component of plasma is

A

protein

431
Q

The antibodies that circulate in the plasma are made by

A

B lymphocytes, which are part of the immune system

432
Q

If you have some blood from which the formed elements have been removed, how can you tell if it is plasma or serum?

A

plasma contains clotting proteins; serum does not

433
Q

Plasma proteins listed in order from highest to lowest percent:

A

albumins, globulins, fibrinogen

434
Q

The benefit of the biconcave shape of red blood cells is that it

A

decreases the distance between the cell membrane and hemoglobin molecules, facilitating oxygen uptake

435
Q

Blood cells all develop from a common stem cell in bone marrow, but early in development they split into separate lineages. Which three of these cells develop from the myeloblast lineage?

A

basophil, eosinophil, neutrophil

436
Q

Blood test results for an adult male are returned and the total red blood cell count is 2,500,000 cells per mm3. This person

A

has an abnormally low total red blood cell count

437
Q

As red blood cells get older, they

A

become more fragile

438
Q

What would you suspect to find if someone has high blood erythropoietin levels?

A

blood oxygen deficiency

439
Q

Which hormone stimulates red blood cell formation?

A

erythropoietin

440
Q

Which condition would stimulate erythropoietin secretion?

A

low blood oxygen level

441
Q

The lower the total amount of iron stored in the body,

A

the higher the absorption of ingested iron in the intestine.

442
Q

In which choice are the formed elements arranged in order of increasing size?

A. red blood cell, neutrophil, platelet
B. platelet, red blood cell, neutrophil
C. neutrophil, platelet, red blood cell
D. platelet, neutrophil, red blood cell

A

platelet, red blood cell, neutrophil

443
Q

In adults, red blood cells are made in one place, spend most of their lifespan in another, and most are finally destroyed in yet another place. list the locations in chronological order:

A

bone marrow; blood vessels; spleen

444
Q

The carrier protein that transports absorbed iron through the blood is

A

transferrin
(“Ferric” and “ferrous” refer to iron)

445
Q

Joe had to have both of his kidneys removed and is now kept alive only by dialysis machines that remove waste molecules from his blood and adjust electrolyte levels. Because Joe has no remaining kidney tissue, he may also need

A

erythropoietin to stimulate RBC production

446
Q

The term “hematopoiesis” refers to

A

the process of blood cell formation

447
Q

What is the role of the nitric oxide (NO) carried by hemoglobin?

A

NO relaxes blood vessels and decreases blood pressure

448
Q

If someone has no megakaryocytes, he/she will

A

have a reduced ability to prevent blood loss

449
Q

Once released from the bone marrow into the circulation, the average life span of a red blood cell is about

A

4 months

450
Q

Leukocytes arranged in order from most common to least common:

A

neutrophils, lymphocytes, monocytes, eosinophils, basophils

451
Q

One molecule of hemoglobin:

A

contains two alpha globin proteins and two beta globin proteins.

452
Q

In a red blood cell, carbon dioxide is attached to the

A

amino acids of the Globin

453
Q

Erythropoietin is produced by

A

kidneys

454
Q

Red blood cells do not use any of the oxygen that they carry, because

A

they lack miochondria to use oxygen for aerobic respiration

455
Q

A pulmonary embolism is a blood clot that blocks blood flow in a vessel

A

supplying part of a lung

456
Q

What happens when fibrinogen is converted to fibrin?

A

a clot is formed

457
Q

Removal of this substance from blood would prevent clotting.

A

calcium

458
Q

A person’s blood type is determined by

A

mixing the blood with different antibodies to see which ones cause the red blood cells to agglutinate

459
Q

A person who is Rh negative might form anti-Rh antibodies if she

A

receives a transfusion of Rh positive blood

460
Q

Agglutination, which occurs during transfusion reactions, is caused by binding between

A

RBC membrane antigens and plasma antibodies

461
Q

A person with type O+ blood would

A

have Rh but not A or B antigens on his RBCs

462
Q

Blood types are determined

A

genetically by glycoproteins and glycolipids on the RBC membrane

463
Q

Type O is considered to be universal:

A

donor because it has neither antigen A nor antigen B on its RBCs

464
Q

A dietary deficiency of iron could cause

A

a low red blood cell count

465
Q

For a person whose hematocrit is 45%,

A

plasma volume would be 55% of total blood volume

466
Q

For a person whose hematocrit is 45%, in which choice below are the components of blood correctly ranked in order of decreasing percent of total volume?

A

plasma, red blood cells, white blood cells

467
Q

Which of these diseases involves a problem with the red blood cells?

A

sickle-cell anemia

468
Q

A person with a vitamin B12 or folic acid deficiency would probably also have

A

anemia

469
Q

Which describes anemia?

A

a reduction in oxygen-carrying capacity of the blood

470
Q

The buffy coat, a layer that appears when blood is centrifuged for determining the hematocrit, is made of

A

white blood cells and platelets

471
Q

An abnormally high number of normal white blood cells is called

A

leukocytosis

Anatomy (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions