Chap 1-9 Flashcards
The structural and functional unit of all living organisms is the
cell
When a cell is observed with a compound light microscope, which of the following structures will be seen?
cell membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus
The fluid mosaic model is a theory for the structure of
the plasma membrane
Function of the cell membrane or plasma membrane?
- separates the cell from its external environment
- gives the cell a definite size and shape
- controls the movement of molecules from one side of the cell to the other
Basic skeleton of the plasma membrane is formed by
bilayered phospholipid structure
Proteins of the plasma membrane serve all of the following functions
- Breaking down hormones
- Serving as carriers for large molecule transportation
- Binding to neurotransmitters
In some tissues, cells are tightly packed and their cell membranes are connected by a structure known as
Intercellular junction
(anything in between or connecting cells are called junctions)
The fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane suggests that
the membrane has rigidity and flexibility
(cell membranes are adaptable to their environment)
Cell adhesion molecules (CAM) are
modified structure to function as sensory receptors
(cells can interact by protein molecules)
The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. This means that
Only certain substances can pass into or out of the cell
What are marker molecules?
primarily steroids
(markers are usually glycloproteins)
The second most abundant of the lipids in the plasma membrane is
cholesterol
(they could also be harmful as they clog arteries and increase blood pressure)
When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in electrical charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins close. These channels would be called
voltage-gated channels
(voltage is associated with electrical signals
Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a selectively permeable membrane
water
When molecules move from an area of lower concentration to the area of higher concentration and energy is used, it is called
active transport
The aroma of cake baking in the kitchen and reaches the living room. The distribution of this odor throughout the house is an example of
simple diffusion
An increase in _____ will increase the rate of diffusion
temperature
What change/s occur when red blood cells are placed in hypertonic solution
red blood cells lose water and shrink
The movement of a solution across a plasma membrane because of a pressure gradient is called
filtration
The movement of oxygen from a higher concentration in the lungs to a lower concentration in the blood stream is an example of
diffusion
The greater the concentration of a solute in a solution, the greater the
osmotic pressure of the solution
(osmotic pressure is directly proportional to concentration of a solution)
The sodium-potassium pump located in the plasma membrane
actively moves potassium into cells
Cyanide stops the production of ATP. Which of the following process would be affected?
active transport
(active transport is dependent on ATP)
The process of pinocytosis
involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles
What characteristic is shared by simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion
Both involve the movement of a substance from regions of a higher concentration to lower concentration without cellular energy.
In simple diffusion, the rate at which a solute passes through a membrane depends on all of the following
- surface area of the membrane
- temperature of the solution
- concentration difference from one side of the membrane to the other
If a carrier protein were to move both hydrogen and chloride ions from the inside of a cell to the extracellular fluid, and consume ATP in the process, it would be considered a(n)
symport system
All of the following processes can move substances out of a cell
- exocytosis
- simple diffusion
- active transport
Many gland cells release their secretions by means of ___, a process somewhat like reverse endocytosis
exocytosis
White blood cells engulf foreign particles by means of
phagocytosis
Organelles are distinguished from inclusions in that organelles are ___, whereas inclusions are ___.
Functional structures; storage sites for chemical substances
Which of the following cellular components in nonliving?
- mitochondria
- nucleus
- cytoplasm
Cells dispose of worn-out organelles by a process called
autophagy
____ is enclosed in double membranes with cristae extending inward from the inner membrane
the mitochondrion
Endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached to it is called
rough ER
Which function is associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum
protein synthesis
Which organelle is most active in causing programmed cell death?
lysosomes
Muscle cells contain numerous ___ because of their high demand for ATP
mitochondria
(mitochondria are associated with the production of energy)
What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed?
protein synthesis
When a white blood cell engulfs a foreign particle with its pseudopods, it traps the particle in a bubble called a ___ in its cytoplasm
Vacuole
The following statement about organelles is true
- Depending on the particular cell function, organelles vary in number and type
Vesicles are:
membrane sacs; contain various substances that recently entered or formed in the cell
Microfilaments are:
tiny rods of proteins (actin); cause cellular movement
Microtubules are:
long, slender tubes of globular protein
The function of the golgi apparatus is
packaging and distribution of proteins and lipids
If you compare a cell with a manufacturing plant that exports goods, the cells ___ could be compared to the manufacturing plants shipping department
golgi apparatus
The organelle that protects cells from damaging effects of medications and toxins is
smooth endoplasmic reticulum
A cell uses centrioles in the process of
cell division
A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in
detoxification activitiesO
Organelles in the cytoplasm are embedded in a semitransparent matrix called
cytosol
Tay-Sachs disease involves a cellular defect in
lysosomal enzymes
___ are the only type of cells where flagella are found
Sperm
Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubule have a “brush border” composed of ___, which are cell extensions that increase the surface area
microvilli
Cilia and flagella are distinguished from each other on the basis of
length and numbers
The building blocks of DNA and RNA found in the nucleus of the cell are known as the
nucleotides
The “control center” of the cell is the
nucleus
A structure of the nucleus can be described as
enclosed in a nuclear envelope
In the nucleus, DNA is wrapped within proteins. This structure is known as
chromatin
One function of the nucleus in the cell is to
control and coordinate cellular activities
Elements present in DNA and RNA are
C H O N P
DNA is condensed to form a structure called a ___ in the nucleus
chromosome
Nuceoli
produce ribosomal subunits
Nuclear pores:
allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm
Arrange the following sequence:
1) initiated by the RNA, polypeptide chains are made by ribosomes on rough ER
2) Polypeptide chains move through rough ER and then carried in vesicles to Golgi apparatus
3) Golgi apparatus separates and modifies varieties of proteins then packages them into vesicles
4) Vesicles are pinched off from Golgi apparatus carrying newly formed proteins to plasma membrane
The transfer of information from DNA to messenger RNA (m-RNA) is known as
transcription
Which of the following molecules contains the anticodon?
r-RNA
The process of DNA replication is
semiconservative in nature
DNA replication results in two new DNA molecules. Each of these new molecules has
one strand of nucleotides from the parent DNA and only one newly synthesized strand of nucleotides
Cells undergo a series of changes during their life-span known as
cell cycle
What happens by the process of mitosis
new daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes and all other cellular components are produced
DNA synthesis occurs during
the S phase of interphase
Human somatic cells contain _______ chromosomes, while gametic cells contain _______ chromosomes.
46; 23
The major phenomenon and changes during cell division starts within the
nucleus
The process by which cytoplasm divides during cell division is known as
cytokinesis
Meiosis is the process of cell division that occurs in the
gametes (egg and sperm)
By the process of meiosis, a _________ number of chromosomes are produced in the gametes.
haploid
Crossing over
increases the amount of genetic diversity
How many divisional stages occur during meiosis?
2
The process that divides the nucleus during cell division is known as
karyokinesis
Which is the longest and most complex phase during meiosis?
prophase I
Which of the following is characteristic of aging cells?
- golgi apparatus becomes fragmented
- lipid inclusions accumulate
- glycogen-containing structures decrease
A tissue is formed by a group of ____ performing or associated with similar function
cells
There are four primary types of tissues; they are
epithelial, connective, muscular, nervous
muscle tissue is characterized by its
contractility
a tissue specialized for energy storage and thermal insulation is
adipose tissue
which of the following is not one of the four primary classes of tissue
cartilaginous tissue
All permanent connective tissues originate with the ___ of the embryo
mesenchyme
About 90% of all cancers originate from
epithelium
When different varieties of tissues are associated to perform a function they form the structure known as ___
organ
Epithelial tissue is characterized by
tightly packed cells
The various types of epithelium are classified by the
shape of cells and number of cell layers
Epithelial tissue is distinguished from connective tissue, muscular, or nervous tissue by its
basement membrane
Simple epithelium has one layer of cells on the basement membrane, ___ epithelium has more than one layer of cells
Stratified
Which of the following cell organelles would be most important in secretory epithelial cells
Golgi apparatus
Lining of blood capillaries supplying body cells with oxygen and nutrients, are expected to consist of
simple squamous epithelium
Epithelial tissue that can stretch or is subjected to stress would have many
desmosomes
Glands whose ducts have few branches are called
simple
In a(n) ___ gland, the entire cells break down to form the secretion
holocrine
According to their function, there are two major types of epithelial tissue, these are
covering and secretory epithelium
Glands that produce thick, sticky secretion are called ___ glands
mucous
The epithelium that lines the stomach and intestines is
simple columnar
The epithelium that lines the passages of the respiratory and reproductive system is called
pseudostratified columnar epithelium
The secretions of endocrine glands are released directly
into the bloodstream
What is the general function of glands
produce and secrete specialized compounds to control and maintain different body function
A carcinoma is a cancer originating from
epithelium
The following is a function of epithelium tissue
secretion and absorption of molecules
The tissue that forms the inner lining of the respiratory passages is
- pseudostratified
- ciliated
- mucus-secreting
Connective tissue exists in different forms (within the human body) from liquids to very hard solids of the presence of the ___
extracellular matrix
Connective tissue fibers are produced by
fibroblasts
Collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers in connective tissues are formed by
proteins
Extracellular matrix in blood is
plasma
The gel of the extracellular matrix is composed mostly of water and
proteoglycans
Macrophages almost as abundant as fibroblasts are specialized in
phagocytosis
Bone cells are arranged in concentric circles around longitudinal tubes called
osteonic canals
Extracellular matrix in bone is formed by
mineral salts
A general characteristic of connective tissue is that it
consists of cells with much intercellular material between them
Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because
they lack direct blood supplies
When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack, they are usually replaced by
connective tissue cells
Dense regular collagenous connective tissue would be found in
a ligament
Blood cells are produced in hemopoietic tissue found in
red bone marrow
The only type of cell seen in a tendon is
fibroblasts
The shape of a person’s ear is due mainly to
elastic cartilage
Which of these it NOT connective tissue
muscle
Tendons and ligaments contain the protein
collagen
The secretory cells of a gland are supported by a connective tissue framework called
stroma
The perichondrium is a layer of fibroconnective tissue surrounding
most cartilage
Fetal skeleton in early stages is formed by
hyaline cartilage
Loose connective tissue contains
- collagen and elastin fibers
- myosin and actin fibers
- plasma
Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of
fibrous connective tissue
Which of the following types of connective tissue is MISMATCHED with its matrix?
cartilage—highly vascular matrix
Muscle tissue cells are contractile, which means they
are specialized in contraction and relaxation
A muscle that is not consciously controlled and has a banded appearance would be described as
striated involuntary
Movement of food through the digestive tract results from the action of
smooth muscle
The only type of muscle with multinucleated fibers is
skeletal muscle
The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is
skeletal
Cardiac muscle is found in the wall of the
heart
Which one among the following statement about smooth muscle is TRUE?
- The smooth muscles are responsible for the movements of the internal organs.
- The cells in the smooth muscles have actin, but no striations.
- The muscular cells in the smooth muscles are shorter than the skeletal muscles.
The type of muscle found in the walls of blood vessels is
smooth
A continuous supply of __________ is necessary for muscle contraction.
ATP
Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types:
neurons and neuroglia
Which of the following is associated with nervous tissue?
axon
A unipolar neuron is characterized by the presence of
no dendrites
Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched?
axons—conduct action potentials away from the cell body
What is the function of neuroglial cells in nervous tissue?
support and bind nervous tissue together, and they provide nutrients to neurons
What is the function of nervous tissue?
maintain and coordinate normal body functions
In patients suffering from multiple sclerosis, the _____________ of the neurons are destroyed.
myelin sheath
Three essential components of most neurons are
axon, dendrites and cell body
Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nervous tissue?
Its intercellular space is filled with collagen.
Inflammatory reactions usually occur in
connective tissue
The formation of scar tissue is most directly caused by
granulation tissue
The abnormal death of a tissue is called
necrosis
Membranes lining body cavities that lack openings to the outside are called
serous
Membranes lining body cavities that do not open to the outside are called
serous
As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface they
are replaced by dividing cells from below
By covering the whole body surface skin acts as a protective barrier and plays a role in
excretion
Epidermis is characterized by being _______, whereas dermis is distinguished by being _______.
composed of stratified epithelial tissue; composed of connective tissue
The subcutaneous layer in the skin is
composed of loose connective tissue
The skin does not include the
hypodermis
Adipose tissue in the hypodermis
varies in amount from one region to other body regions
The integumentary system has many functions, one of which is
- protection from cancer
- detection of painful stimuli
The outermost layer of epithelium that covers the skin is called the
epidermis
Which of the following functions is associated with the skin?
protection against ultraviolet radiation of the sun
The dermis
is responsible for most of the skin’s structural strength
The layer of epidermis that undergoes mitosis and forms new epidermal cells is the stratum
basale
Intact skin provides protection because
- it forms a physical barrier against the entry of microbes
- its secretions keep the skin slightly acidic
- the skin is capable of excretion of certain waste products
The sloughing off of older cells from the surface of the skin is called
desquamation
The outermost layer of the epithelium in the skin hardens due to deposition of a waterproof protein called
keratin
Which layer of the skin causes the formation of “fingerprints”?
Papillary layer of the dermis
A plastic surgeon would most likely make a skin incision:
Parallel to the cleavage lines.
Which of the following epidermal cells functions in immunity?
Langerhans’ cells
Which of the following acts as the foundation for the skin?
hypodermis
The subcutaneous layer in the skin is
a heat insulator layer which helps to conserve body heat
The integumentary system has many functions, one of which is
detection of painful stimuli
Intact skin provides protection because
it forms a physical barrier against the entry of microbes
Goose-bumps on the skin are due to the contraction of the muscle called
arrector pili muscle.
What is the difference between a hair and a hair follicle?
Dead epidermal cells exist in the hair, whereas a hair follicle is composed of living epidermal cells.
A hair receives its nutrition from
the dermal papilla.
The most superficial layer of the epidermis is
stratum corneum.
Which of the following layers of the epidermis has no nuclei in its cells?
Stratum corneum
Which of the following is true concerning light and dark-skinned races?
Dark-skinned people have the same number of melanocytes as light-skinned people but there is greater melanin production in dark skinned-people.
The activity of apocrine sweat glands
sometimes leads to body odor
Sweat contains
water, salts and wastes
Which one among the following is not a skin gland?
salivary glands
The glands most responsible for cooling the skin are
merocrine
Eccrine sweat glands
respond primarily to elevated body temperature.
Eccrine sweat glands differ from sebaceous glands
- in terms of what is secreted
- in their location in the body
- because sebaceous glands are associated with hair follicles, whereas sweat glands are not
In which of the following regions of the body are apocrine sweat glands most numerous?
axilla and groin
Which of the following statements about the sebaceous gland is true?
- They are associated with the hair follicle.
- Sebaceous glands are also called holocrine glands.
- Secretion from sebaceous gland is called sebum.
Which of the following structures in the hair would contain hard keratin?
Cuticle
Which of the following is true concerning hair growth?
Hair grows for a period of time and then rests and grows again.
When the arrector pili muscle contracts, which of the following happens?
- The hair shaft is pulled perpendicular to the skin surface.
- Movement of the hair follicle causes “goose bumps”.
Which of the following glands produce sweat?
- Apocrine
- Merocrine
Why is it not a good idea for nail technicians to “pull back the cuticles” (eponychium) when manicuring nails?
The cuticle acts as a barrier against infection.
The most active growing region of the nail is called
nail matrix.
Which one among the following statements about nails is true?
Nails protect the ends of fingers and toes.
The nail plate is produced by
specialized epithelial cells.
The primary means by which body heat is lost is
radiation
The ways in which the skin promotes loss of excess body heat are
- dilation of dermal blood vessels
- activation of eccrine sweat glands to release more sweat to skin surface
- loss of heat by radiation, conduction, and convection
An increase in body temperature causes
sweating
An abrasion of the skin results in which of the following?
portal of entry for microorganisms
Which of the following will help cool the body?
evaporation of sweat from the skin’s surface
In cold weather _______ may result from reduced blood circulation through the skin.
cyanosis
Due to the contraction of smooth muscle in the walls of dermal blood vessels
body heat is conserved
By reducing body temperature during hot weather skin helps to maintain
body homeostasis
What determines the color of skin?
amount of melanin produced by melanocytes in the skin
Exposure to ultraviolet light causes the skin to darken by stimulating the production of
melanin.
All of the following substances can contribute to the color of skin. Of these, only ______ is of dietary origin.
carotene
Which of the following layers of the epidermis consists of a single row of columnar cells that undergo mitosis and includes pigment-producing melanocytes?
stratum basale (germinativum)
The melanocytes in very dark skin
contain single, large, pigment granules
Skin color is the result of
heredity or genetic factors.
Which of the following hair colors is the result of a decrease in melanin?
white
Albinism develops due to
inherited mutant gene for melanin.
Light-skinned races such as Caucasians have
approximately the same number of melanocytes as races with darker skins.
Melanin production can be influenced by
- genetics
- exposure to sunlight.
- pregnancy
The skin discoloration most likely to suggest physical trauma is
hematoma
All of the following changes occur in aging skin except:
increased collagen
Which of the following cause “age spots”?
increased melanocytes in certain areas of hands and face
Which of the following groups of people are more likely to get skin cancer as they become older?
- Those who have been frequently over-exposed to the sun.
- Fair skinned blonds and redheads.
- Those who have a pre-existing mole.
Which of the following skin changes is usually associated with aging?
there are additional sweat and sebaceous glands
With aging, individuals tend to feel colder and usually need a higher temperature, especially in the winter because their body
experiences a decrease in the thickness of their subcutaneous fat layer
Stretch marks result from
torn collagen fibers
Elderly persons may become less able to maintain stable body temperatures because
their sweat glands are replaced by fibrous tissue and their activity decreases
Some marrow of long bones is termed “yellow” marrow under normal conditions. The function of this is to
store adipose tissue
Some marrow of long bones is termed “red” marrow. The function of this is to
manufacture blood cells
One of the functions of bone is “electrolyte balance.” Which of the following best represents this role?
Bones store calcium and phosphorus and release them into the blood as needed.
Which of the following best describes the role of a lacuna in a bone?
a cavity within a bone to house an osteocyte
Cartilage grows by two mechanisms: interstitial growth and appositional growth. Which pair of terms best describes the two methods?
internal and on the surface
The shaft of a bone is known as the
diaphysis
The growth zone of a long bone is referred to as the
epiphyseal plate
A tissue that surrounds a long bone, made of a double layer of connective tissue, is referred to as the
periosteum
What type of bone tissue surrounds a medullary cavity?
spongy bone
Sharpey’s fibers, located on the periphery of a bone, are
collagen fibers from ligaments that attach to bone
The lattice of spongy bone, consisting of plates, rods and spines, is called
trabeculae
The end of a long bone is referred to as the
epiphysis
Examples of bones that are “irregular” in shape are
vertebrae and some skull bones
Which of the following is a squamous epithelium that lines the medullary cavity of a bone to begin the formation of marrow?
endosteum
Passing through the periostum of bones are arteries, veins, and
nerves
Which of the following bones is considered to be flat?
sternum
Which of the following is classified as a long bone?
phalanx
The epiphyseal plate is located in the
metaphysis
Once an endochondral bone has completed its ossification, the bone now has a ___________ where the old epiphyseal plate existed.
epiphyseal line
Bones are
- cartilage
- connective tissues
- organs
In compact bone, the Haversian canals go the length of the bone. What are the connectors from one Haversian canal to another?
Volkmann’s canals
Cancellous bone is often referred to as _____________ bone.
spongy
Cancellous bone has spaces within that are deigned for the housing of
marrow and blood vessels
An osteon (Haversian system) is actually
a Haversian canal and its lamellae
Since bone is a connective tissue, it has all the necessary features of a connective tissue including a matrix. What makes up the matrix of a bone?
collagen, proteins and hydroxyapatite
If the collagen are removed from a bone, what happens to the bone?
it breaks apart into thousands of small pieces
If the minerals are removed from a bone, what happens to the bone?
it becomes soft and rubbery
Which of the following types of bone develops out of a non-cartilage connective tissue scaffold?
intramembranous
Bone cells that manufacture new bone are known as
osteoblasts
The center of an osteon is known as a Haversian canal. What passes through the center of the canal?
blood and nerves
The inorganic portion of a bone structure, made primarily of calcium phosphate crystals, is known as
hydroxyapatite
Which of the following types of cells puts calcium and phosphorus into bone as well as manufactures bone?
osteoblasts
Osteocytes must have the ability to receive nutrients from the blood and an ability to return wastes to the blood. Connectors between the osteocytes and the blood vessels are known as
canaliculi
Osteoclasts are active cells that tear down bone. They do this by secreting an enzyme that dissolves the collagen in the bone matrix. Which of the following is that enzyme?
acid phosphatase
Normal formation of bone is known as osteogenesis. Another term for bone formation is
ossification
Osteoprogenitor cells
are stem cells that become osteoblasts
In the skull of a newborn baby, the space between the developing skull bones is known as a(n)
fontanel
Endochondral ossification begins at what age?
during fetal development
Endochondral ossification ends at what age?
adulthood
The bone formed by endochondral ossification is called _____________ bone.
replacement
Most of the peripheral skeleton of a 7-month-old fetus is primarily
cartilage tissue
The term “appositional growth” refers to bone growth that occurs
on the surface of cartilage, bone or older bone
The epiphyseal plate is the zone of
new growth for endochondral ossification
The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where the bone grows longer is the zone of
hypotrophy
The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where chondrocytes mature and enlarge is the zone of
proliferation
The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where the cartilage matrix is mineralized with calcium carbonate is the zone of
calcification
Two of the primary hormones for bone growth and development are
human growth hormone and thyroid hormone.
Intramembranous ossification results in the formation of bones that belong to which class of bones?
flat bones of the clavicle and skull
Before the process of intramembranous ossification, which of the following type of tissue is found in the associated membranes of the skull and clavicles?
collagen fibers
The process of intramembranous ossification begins when?
during embryonic development
The type of cells that brings about intramembranous ossification are
osteoblasts
The development of the fontanel is brought about by
the unossified fibrous membranes in the skull
Woven bone is formed during which of the following situations?
fetal development and after fractures
Lamellar bone is bone that
is mature and is organized into thin sheets or layers
In regard to bone cell development, which of the following sequences is correct?
osteogenic → osteoblasts → osteocyte
When a fracture begins to heal, one type of bone cell moves into the fracture site and tears down the damaged bone tissue. Which of the following tears down bone?
osteoclasts
If a 12 year old were to fracture their epiphyseal plate, the result of the damage could be that the bone
may stop growing at the plate
Which of the following is the most accurate definition of “bone remodeling”?
removal of old bone by osteoclasts and making of new bone by osteoblasts
In the process of bone remodeling, old bone is removed by
osteoclasts
Following a bone fracture a callus builds around the fracture site. Callus is a
collection of blood vessels and collagen at the fracture site.
Which of the following fractures refers to a fracture of a bone in multiple pieces?
comminuted
Which of the following fractures is often referred to as being a “greenstick” fracture?
incomplete
Which of the following fractures goes all the way through a bone, but does not break it into multiple pieces?
complete
Which of the following fractures is a fracture of the distal radius and/or ulna?
Colle’s
Which of the following fractures is a fracture in a bone already weakened by disease?
Pathologic
A spiral fracture of a bone most often is the result of a bone
that has been twisted
An injury that occurs to vertebrae when they are flattened is known as a
compression fracture
The term “calcium homeostasis” refers to which of the following?
balance of calcium between the blood and the bones
Which of the following glands plays a major role in calcium homeostasis?
parathyroid
If blood calcium levels decrease, which of the following hormones is released to take calcium out of bones and put it into the blood?
parathyroid hormone
If blood calcium levels increase, which of the following hormones is released to take calcium from the blood and place in into the bones?
calcitonin
Calcitrol is a(n)
activated form of vitamin D.
The general function of calcitriol in relation to bone cell activity is that it
increases osteoclast activity.
In old age, most of the yellow bone marrow is replaced by
gelatinous bone marrow
Osteoporosis most often occurs in
older white women
Most of the calcium taken in with the diet that is not absorbed is
excreted in the feces
Insufficient vitamin D in a diet may result in a condition known as
rickets
Insufficient vitamin C in a diet may result in a condition known as
scurvy
A lack of vitamin D in the diet that may occur in adults with a digestive disorder is known as
osteomalacia
Which of the following diseases of bones is a loss of bone mass and density?
osteoporosis
Which of the following diseases is a bacterial infection of bone?
osteomyelitis
Which of the following bone disorders is a deadly bone tumor?
osteosarcoma
The most common bone disease is osteoporosis. The most common consequence of this disease is
fractures
A developmental disorder in which the pituitary produces excess growth hormone and the patient grows abnormally large is known as
Paget’s disease of bone
Which of the following combinations of treatments would be the most appropriate for treatment of osteoporosis?
walking, adding calcium to the diet and, perhaps, taking estrogen-replacement therapy
The average adult skeleton consists of ____ bones, however this number ____ with age.
206, decreases
Which of the following bone markings refers to a small, flat articular surface on a bone?
facet
Which of the following bone features is a smooth, rounded knob on a bone?
condyle
Which of the following bone extensions is massive and located on the femur?
trochanter
What is the primary purpose of a bone process or projection?
points of attachment for ligaments or tendons
Of the following depressions in bone, which one is a socket like that for teeth?
fossa
Of the following holes in a bone, which one is a small pit located on the head of the femur?
fovea
Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a tunnel like that of the inner ear?
meatus
Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a hole that allows for the passage of blood vessels and/or nerves?
foramen
Which of the following is a mucous membrane-lined air space within a bone?
sinus
Which portion of the skeleton is the axial skeleton?
skull, vertebral column, hyoid bone and rib cage
Which bone(s) of the skull would be considered to be the most superior?
parietal
Which of the following bones are joined by squamosal suture?
temporal and parietal
Which of the following bones are joined by the lambdoidal suture?
temporal and parietal
Which of the following bones are joined by the coronal suture?
frontal and parietal
Which of the following bones are joined by the saggital suture?
right and left parietal
Of the bones of the head and neck, which one provides an attachment for the tongue and some neck muscles and does NOT directly articulate with another bone?
hyoid
Which of the following bones does the supraorbital foramen pass through?
frontal
The most superior portion of the ethmoid bones rise up into the cranium through which bone?
frontal
The perpendicular plate is part of which bone?
ethmoid
The sella turcica is part of which bone?
sphenoid
The mastoid process is part of which bone?
temporal
What anatomical structure lies within the sella turcica?
pituitary gland
The crista galli is part of which bone?
ethmoid
The external auditory meatus passes through which bone?
temporal
The crista galli, perpendicular plate, and nasal concha are all part of which bone?
ethmoid
Which of the following bones has greater and lesser wings?
sphenoid
Which of the following bones has condyles that articulate with the vertebral column?
occipital
Which bone(s) have/has the following foramina: ovale, rotundum, and spinosum?
sphenoid
The jugular foramen lies between two bones. Which of the following pairs is correct?
temporal and occipital
The foramen lacerum lies between two bones. Which of the following pairs is correct?
sphenoid and temporal
Which of the following bones has the hypoglossal canal?
occipital
Which of the following bones has a cribiform plate?
ethmoid
What bone lies as a connecting bridge between the maxilla and the temporal bone?
zygomatic
Of the following bones which one does NOT lie in the orbit?
parietal
Which bone lies directly inferior to the perpendicular plate?
vomer
Which of the following bones of the orbit houses a foramen for a tear duct?
lacrimal
The mandible articulates, via a highly moveable joint, with which of the following bones?
temporal
Which of the following pairs of foramina are in the mandible?
mental and mandibular
The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is known as the
petrous portion
The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is part of which of the following bones?
temporal
The optic foramen passes through which of the following bones?
sphenoid
Which of the following pairs of bones form the roof of the mouth?
palatine and maxilla
Which of the following sets is the correct listing of paranasal sinuses?
ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary
Which of the following bones houses the foramen magnum?
occipital
The superior most portion of the ethmoid bone rises up through which of the following bones?
frontal
The middle and superior nasal conchae are projections of which bone?
ethmoid
The inferior most portion of the sphenoid bone is the
pterygoid processes
Which of the following bones has wings?
sphenoid
The nasal septum is made up of which of the following pairs of bones?
vomer and maxilla
The ramus and the angle are parts of which of the following bones?
mandible
Which of the following groups correctly lists the auditory ossicles?
stapes, malleus, and incus
Which two bones of the skull contribute to both the neurocranium and the viscerocranium?
ethmoid and frontal
Nuchal lines and the mastoid process both provide points of attachment for muscles of
the neck
Temporal lines and the coronoid process provide points of attachment for muscles of
mastication
How many cervical vertebrae are there?
7
How many thoracic vertebrae are there?
12
How many lumbar vertebrae are there?
5
The first cervical vertebrae is known as the
atlas
The second cervical vertebrae is known as the
axis
The opening in the middle of a vertebra for the spinal cord is known as the
vertebral foramen
Two of the bony ridges that surround the spinal cord are the
pedicle and lamina
How many pairs of vertebrosternal ribs are there?
7
The sacrum is composed of how many fused bones?
5
The most inferior portion of the sternum is the
xiphoid process
The most superior portion of the sternum is the
manubrium
How many pairs of vertebral ribs are there?
2
How many pairs of vertebrochondral ribs are there?
3
The openings between vertebrae that allow for the spinal nerves to enter and exit are known as
intervertebral foramen
Which of the following are the cartilages that attach the ribs to the sternum?
costal cartilages
The spinous processes of the first four sacral vertebrae partially fuse to form which structure?
medial sacral crest
Which two parts of a rib articulate with the vertebrae?
head and tubercle
A distinctive feature of the first cervical vertebrae is that it
does not have a body
A distinctive feature of the second cervical vertebrae is that it
has a dens
A distinctive feature of all cervical vertebrae is that they
all have transverse foramina
A distinctive feature of all thoracic vertebrae is that they
all have facets for ribs
What is the most posterior portion of a vertebra?
spinous processes
Which of the following serve as points of articulation between adjacent vertebrae?
articular facets
What attaches to spinous processes and transverse processes?
muscles
What passes through the foramen magnum?
the spinal cord
An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as
scoliosis
An abnormal curvature of the lumbar spine that results in an exaggeration of the convex curve of the lumbar region is known as
lordosis
Coronoid processes are found on which pair of bones?
mandible and ulna
Which of the following bone extensions is a rough surface found on the tibia?
tubercle
The pectoral girdle is composed of which of the following sets of bones?
sternum and clavicle
The head of the humerus articulates with the
glenoid cavity
The glenohumeral joint is between which of the following pairs of bones?
scapula and humerus
The two bones most inferior to the humerus are the
radius and ulna
Medially the clavicle articulates with the
sternum
Laterally the clavicle articulates with the
scapula
The two processes on the superior - lateral portion of the scapula are the
coracoid and acromion
Which of the following bones is immediately proximal to the radius?
humerus
How many carpal bones are there in one hand?
8
How many phalanges are there in one hand?
14
How many phalanges does one thumb have?
2
The carpal bones are arranged in which of the following patterns?
two rows of 4
The end of the first finger (the one used for pointing) has a phalanx in it identified as which of the following?
second distal phalanx
On the “pinky”, the last digit is referred to as the
5th distal phalanx
Styloid processes are found on which bones?
temporal, radius, and ulna
What is the structure commonly referred to as the elbow?
olecranon process of the humerus
Which of the following bones is NOT found in the proximal row of carpals?
hamate
Which of the following bones is NOT found in the distal row of carpals?
capitate
The first groove beneath the head of the humerus is the
anatomical head
Of the following bony parts, which one has the deltoid muscle attachment?
deltoid tuberosity
Where is the olecranon fossa located?
posterior and distal portion of the humerus
The structure that articulates with the olecranon fossa is the olecranon process of the
ulna
The structure that articulates with the coronoid fossa of the humerus is the coronoid process of the
ulna
When resting our elbows upon the table, the bony projection on the back of our arms, that rests on the table, is the
olecranon process
The distal most bony projections of the radius and the ulna are the __________ processes.
styloid
The ulna rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?
trochlea
The head of the radius rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?
capitulum
An accessory bone often found in the palm of the hand, is known as a(n) _______ bone.
sesamoid
The term “phalanges” is the plural of which of the following?
phalanx
The structure that articulates with the glenoid cavity is the head of the
humerus
Which of the following rotates on the capitulum?
radius
The joint between a coxal bone and the sacrum is known as the
sacroiliac joint
The joint between the pubic bones is known as the
symphysis pubic
Which of the following is a large sesamoid bone in the leg?
patella
The fibula in relation to the tibia is
lateral to the tibia
The upper (superior) most portion of the ilium, where we rest our hands on hips, is the
iliac crest
The visible anterior protrusions of the ilium are which of the following?
anterior superior iliac spine
The head of the femur articulates in which of the following?
acetabulum
Which of the following is the large opening in the bones between the ilium and ischium?
obturator
In general, the female pelvis differs from the male pelvis by which of the following?
Females have a broader and more shallow pelvic outlet.
The tarsal region of the body is which of the following?
ankle to the foot
Which of the following is a long line down the posterior side of the femur for attachment of muscles?
linea aspera
Which of the following is a large bony ridge along the side of the femur?
greater trochanter
The most superior portion of the tibia is the
intercondylar eminence
Which of the following is the large bump on the medial side of the ankle?
malleolus of the tibia
The distal most portion of the tibia lies on which of the following bones?
talus
Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most posterior?
calcaneus
Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most distal and lateral?
cuboid
There are three tarsal bones of the same name. Which of the following are the three?
cuneiforms
What bones are frequently beneath the distal end of the first metatarsal?
sesamoid
The last digit of the little toe is known as the
5th distal phalanx
Of the following anatomical parts, the head of the _________articulates in the acetabulum?
femur
Which structure(s) of the femur articulate(s) with the tibia?
lateral and medial epicondyles
Which of the following projections of the femur does NOT provide for muscular attachment?
medial condyle
Which of the following does NOT articulate with the femur?
fibula
Which of the following is the correct term for a freely moveable joint?
diarthrosis
Which of the following is a joint that has little or no movement?
synarthrosis
Which of the following is a joint that is slightly moveable?
amphiarthrosis
In a structural classification of joints, which of the following is a joint that has a cavity filled with fluid enclosed in a capsule?
synovial
Which of the following joints is held together with collagenous fibers?
fibrous
Which of the following joints is held together with cartilage?
cartilaginous
The sutures of the skull and the teeth in their sockets are examples of which of the following?
synarthrosis
Intervertebral discs, the pubic symphysis, and the tibio-fibular joints are examples of which of the following types of joints?
amphiarthrosis
The shoulder, elbow, and knee are examples of which of the following types of joints?
diarthrosis
Of the following fibrous joints, which one forms the joints between the skull bones?
sutures
Which of the following fibrous joints attaches the teeth into their sockets?
gomphoses
Which of the following types of joints holds two bones tightly together with a ligament?
syndesmoses
Which of the following types of fibrous joints is the joint between the radius and ulna and also between the tibia and fibula?
syndesmoses
Of the following types of cartilaginous joints, which one is a joint of hyaline cartilage found in the epiphyseal joints?
synchondrosis
Sometimes a joint has become fused and now is one bone. Which of the following is the correct term for this type of bone?
synostosis
Another term for ellipsoidal joints is _________ joints.
ball-and-socket
Which of the following is a fluid-filled sac found in a synovial joint?
bursa
Which of the following is a cartilage pad found in some synovial joints?
articular disks
Synovial joints may be classified according to the plane of movement. Which of the following represents a movement that is in two planes?
biaxial
Which of the following types of synovial joints is the most freely moveable?
ball and socket
Which of the following types of synovial joints is found between the metacarpal bones and the carpal bones?
condyloid
In which of the following types of synovial joints does one bone have a projection that fits into a ring-like ligament on the other, enabling one bone to revolve on the other?
pivot
Which of the following synovial joints is the trapeziometacarpal joint at the base of the thumb?
saddle
Of the following types of diarthrotic movements, which one is a simple moving of the lower arm up and down?
flexion and extension
Of the following types of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement away from the midsagital line (as in standing spread legged)?
abduction
Of the following types of diarthrotic movements, which one is the movement of spreading the fingers?
abduction
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of a bone anteriorly in a gliding motion?
protraction
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement in which one limb makes circular movements?
circumduction
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one occurs when one grinds the teeth?
lateral and medial excursion
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which ones are movements of the thumb against the fingers and then away from the fingers?
opposition and reposition
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of rotating the palm up and down?
supination and pronation
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of a bone anteriorly on a horizontal plane and then pulling it back (as in sticking out one’s jaw)?
protraction and retraction
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of tilting the soles of the feet inward and then outward?
inversion and eversion
Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of raising and lowering the toes?
dorsiflexion and plantar flexion
Which one of the following diarthrotic movements moves a bone superiorly?
elevation
Which of the following diarthrotic movements is shrugging the shoulders?
elevation
Which of the following diarthrotic movements is the pitcher’s arm in a baseball game?
circumduction
Which of the following movements occurs in ballet, when dancers point their toes?
plantar flexion
Which of the following movements occurs when turning a doorknob clockwise or driving a screw into a piece of wood?
supination
Where is the talocrural joint?
ankle
The rotator cuff is located in which of the following joints?
shoulder
The collateral and cruciate ligaments are found in which of the following joints?
knee
The ulnar collateral ligament and the radial collateral ligament are found in which of the following joints?
elbow
The iliofemoral ligament is found in which joint?
hip
Which of the following is a torn ligament or tendon?
sprain
The classic ACL injury that occurs in sports involves which joint?
knee
Which of the following conditions is a hereditary disease in which uric acid crystals build up in the joint space and cause pain?
gout
Which of the following conditions is the most common form of arthritis referred to as “wear-and-tear” arthritis?
osteoarthritis
Which of the following conditions is a severe form of arthritis that is an autoimmune attack against the joint tissue?
rheumatoid arthritis
Which of the following is an inflammation of the bursa within a synovial capsule?
bursitis
Which of the following types of synovial joints is monaxial, in which one bone has a projection that fits into a ring like ligament on the other so that one bone revolves on the other?
pivot
Anatomy deals with the
structure of the human body
Physiology deals with the
functions of the human body
Which of the following statements about anatomy and physiology is true?
- are ancient fields of study.
- required to understand the body system.
- Research still expands the concepts of physiology.
Most of the terms used in anatomy and physiology originated from which of the following languages?
Greek and Latin
A scientific method used to avoid psychological bias in medical research is known as
the double-blind method
Biochemical and molecular explanations provide a better understanding of
physiology of organs
Knowledge of the structure of body parts helps in understanding their function. Which of the following is an accurate example of that principle?
The hand is adapted for grasping.
An investigator who conducts an experiment to determine how changes in pH affect the function of enzymes on digestion is most likely to be a(n)
physiologist
Which of the following statements about physiology is true?
Some human body functions are still not clearly understood.
Which subdivision of anatomy involves the study of organs that function together?
systemic
Visual inspection of the liver and stomach during surgery is an example of
gross anatomy
The study of the microscopic structure of the tissues and organs is called
histology
Magnetic resonance imaging makes use of
radio waves
Magnetic resonance imaging might be used to
- distinguish between normal and cancerous tissue
- assess damage sustained by the heart
- obtain a sectional view of the brain
The smallest structures that are considered to be alive are
cells
Cells contain structures called _________, which can perform specific activities like energy production, and digestion.
organelles
To understand the structure and function of an organism we also need to understand the structure and properties of
atoms and molecules
To understand the structure of complex body systems we start from the structure of the atom and progress to the structure of the organ systems. This concept is called
levels of organization
Which of the following lists is in the order of increasing levels of complexity?
organelles - cells - tissues - organs - organ systems
Tissues are formed by a group of ________ that perform similar functions.
cells
The skin is an example of a(n)
organ
To maintain life all living organisms depend on
food
Once digested, food compounds must be
absorbed and assimilated
Which of the following activities is necessary to maintain life?
- production of energy
- intake of food compounds
- growth
To avoid extinction of a species, living organisms need to
reproduce
Which of the following carries necessary compounds like nutrients and hormones throughout the body?
blood
What organ system is responsible for the production of blood cells?
skeletal
The ability of an organism to sense changes that take place within its body is an example of
responsiveness
Homeostasis is defined as the
capability of the body to maintain a relatively constant internal environment
A blood clot stimulating formation of more blood clotting is an example of
positive feedback
In a negative feedback mechanism, the response of the effector
reverses the activity of the original stimulus
Which of the following is most similar to the negative feedback mechanism in human physiology?
A toilet tank refills itself after a flush.
A ______ section separates the body into right and left portions.
sagittal
Which of the following is most inferior in location?
pelvic cavity
The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the
diaphragm
Amputation of a foot at the ankle would involve a cut in the ___________ plane.
transverse
The anatomical arm refers to the part of the upper limb from the
shoulder to the elbow.
The cavity of the body immediately inferior to the diaphragm is the ______ cavity.
abdominal
Which of the following organs is retroperitoneal in location?
kidney
The term “dorsal” means
toward the back of the body
Which of the following sets of directional terms are most appropriately referred to as opposite?
distal and proximal
The anatomical term that means “away from the midline of the body” is
lateral
The shoulder is ________ to the elbow.
proximal
The three major anatomical planes are
sagittal, frontal, and transverse
Which of the followings belong to the axial part of the body?
- neck
- left upper quadrant
- thoracic region
The anterior medial thoracic region is called the _____ region.
sternal
The groin is also known as the ______ region.
inguinal
The spleen is in the _______ of the abdomen.
left upper quadrant
A view of the heart showing the interior of all four chambers would be a ______ section.
coronal
A ______ plane passes through the breast, hip, and knee on only one side of the body.
parasagittal
The anterior cubital (cubital fossa) region of the body most resembles what other body region?
popliteal
The cranial cavity is _______ to the thoracic cavity.
superior
Most of the esophagus is in the
thoracic cavity
The axial portion of the body includes
the dorsal cavity and the ventral cavity
The upper midportion of the abdomen is called the ______ region.
epigastric
When the body is placed in the anatomical position, which of the following is NOT true?
The palms are facing backward.
A parietal membrane _______, whereas a visceral membrane _______.
lines cavities; covers organs
Which of the following organs is located in the thoracic cavity?
- heart
- trachea
- thymus gland
The thoracic cavity lies where in relationship to the abdominopelvic cavity?
superior
The membrane on the surface of a lung is called the
visceral pleura
The dorsal cavity includes which of the following smaller cavities?
spinal and cranial
The ankle is _______ to the knee.
distal
The acromial region is the
point of the shoulder
The _______ contains a portion of the inguinal region.
left lower quadrant
The urinary bladder is in the ________ region.
hypogastric
The intertubercular line is the superior border of the ____ region.
hypogastric
All of the following are retroperitoneal:
- pancreas
- kidneys
- adrenal glands
The anus is in the ____ region.
perineal
The carpus is distal to the
acromion
The concept of anatomical position stipulates all of the following EXCEPT the
mouth is closed
The breast is in the ______ region.
pectoral
All of the following are found in the thoracic cavity EXCEPT the
meninges
Which of the following is the name of an organ system?
- lymphatic
- circulatory
- muscular
