Brainscape's Knowledge GenomeTM

Browse over 1 million classes created by top students, professors, publishers, and experts.


See full index

Anatomy > Chap 1-9 > Flashcards

Chap 1-9 Flashcards

1
Q

The structural and functional unit of all living organisms is the

A

cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
2
Q

When a cell is observed with a compound light microscope, which of the following structures will be seen?

A

cell membrane, cytoplasm, and nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
3
Q

The fluid mosaic model is a theory for the structure of

A

the plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
4
Q

Function of the cell membrane or plasma membrane?

A
  • separates the cell from its external environment
  • gives the cell a definite size and shape
  • controls the movement of molecules from one side of the cell to the other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
5
Q

Basic skeleton of the plasma membrane is formed by

A

bilayered phospholipid structure

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
6
Q

Proteins of the plasma membrane serve all of the following functions

A
  • Breaking down hormones
  • Serving as carriers for large molecule transportation
  • Binding to neurotransmitters
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
7
Q

In some tissues, cells are tightly packed and their cell membranes are connected by a structure known as

A

Intercellular junction
(anything in between or connecting cells are called junctions)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
8
Q

The fluid-mosaic model of the plasma membrane suggests that

A

the membrane has rigidity and flexibility
(cell membranes are adaptable to their environment)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
9
Q

Cell adhesion molecules (CAM) are

A

modified structure to function as sensory receptors
(cells can interact by protein molecules)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
10
Q

The plasma membrane is selectively permeable. This means that

A

Only certain substances can pass into or out of the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
11
Q

What are marker molecules?

A

primarily steroids
(markers are usually glycloproteins)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
12
Q

The second most abundant of the lipids in the plasma membrane is

A

cholesterol
(they could also be harmful as they clog arteries and increase blood pressure)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
13
Q

When a sperm cell comes into contact with an egg cell, there is a change in electrical charge across the plasma membrane and various channel proteins close. These channels would be called

A

voltage-gated channels
(voltage is associated with electrical signals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
14
Q

Osmosis is the diffusion of _____ across a selectively permeable membrane

A

water

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
15
Q

When molecules move from an area of lower concentration to the area of higher concentration and energy is used, it is called

A

active transport

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
16
Q

The aroma of cake baking in the kitchen and reaches the living room. The distribution of this odor throughout the house is an example of

A

simple diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
17
Q

An increase in _____ will increase the rate of diffusion

A

temperature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
18
Q

What change/s occur when red blood cells are placed in hypertonic solution

A

red blood cells lose water and shrink

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
19
Q

The movement of a solution across a plasma membrane because of a pressure gradient is called

A

filtration

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
20
Q

The movement of oxygen from a higher concentration in the lungs to a lower concentration in the blood stream is an example of

A

diffusion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
21
Q

The greater the concentration of a solute in a solution, the greater the

A

osmotic pressure of the solution
(osmotic pressure is directly proportional to concentration of a solution)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
22
Q

The sodium-potassium pump located in the plasma membrane

A

actively moves potassium into cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
23
Q

Cyanide stops the production of ATP. Which of the following process would be affected?

A

active transport
(active transport is dependent on ATP)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
24
Q

The process of pinocytosis

A

involves ingestion of liquids rather than particles

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
25
Q

What characteristic is shared by simple diffusion and facilitated diffusion

A

Both involve the movement of a substance from regions of a higher concentration to lower concentration without cellular energy.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
26
Q

In simple diffusion, the rate at which a solute passes through a membrane depends on all of the following

A
  • surface area of the membrane
  • temperature of the solution
  • concentration difference from one side of the membrane to the other
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
27
Q

If a carrier protein were to move both hydrogen and chloride ions from the inside of a cell to the extracellular fluid, and consume ATP in the process, it would be considered a(n)

A

symport system

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
28
Q

All of the following processes can move substances out of a cell

A
  • exocytosis
  • simple diffusion
  • active transport
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
29
Q

Many gland cells release their secretions by means of ___, a process somewhat like reverse endocytosis

A

exocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
30
Q

White blood cells engulf foreign particles by means of

A

phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
31
Q

Organelles are distinguished from inclusions in that organelles are ___, whereas inclusions are ___.

A

Functional structures; storage sites for chemical substances

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
32
Q

Which of the following cellular components in nonliving?

A
  • mitochondria
  • nucleus
  • cytoplasm
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
33
Q

Cells dispose of worn-out organelles by a process called

A

autophagy

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
34
Q

____ is enclosed in double membranes with cristae extending inward from the inner membrane

A

the mitochondrion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
35
Q

Endoplasmic reticulum with ribosomes attached to it is called

A

rough ER

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
36
Q

Which function is associated with the rough endoplasmic reticulum

A

protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
37
Q

Which organelle is most active in causing programmed cell death?

A

lysosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
38
Q

Muscle cells contain numerous ___ because of their high demand for ATP

A

mitochondria
(mitochondria are associated with the production of energy)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
39
Q

What function would immediately cease if the ribosomes of a cell were destroyed?

A

protein synthesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
40
Q

When a white blood cell engulfs a foreign particle with its pseudopods, it traps the particle in a bubble called a ___ in its cytoplasm

A

Vacuole

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
41
Q

The following statement about organelles is true

A
  • Depending on the particular cell function, organelles vary in number and type
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
42
Q

Vesicles are:

A

membrane sacs; contain various substances that recently entered or formed in the cell

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
43
Q

Microfilaments are:

A

tiny rods of proteins (actin); cause cellular movement

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
44
Q

Microtubules are:

A

long, slender tubes of globular protein

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
45
Q

The function of the golgi apparatus is

A

packaging and distribution of proteins and lipids

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
46
Q

If you compare a cell with a manufacturing plant that exports goods, the cells ___ could be compared to the manufacturing plants shipping department

A

golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
47
Q

The organelle that protects cells from damaging effects of medications and toxins is

A

smooth endoplasmic reticulum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
48
Q

A cell uses centrioles in the process of

A

cell division

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
49
Q

A cell with abundant peroxisomes would most likely be involved in

A

detoxification activitiesO

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
50
Q

Organelles in the cytoplasm are embedded in a semitransparent matrix called

A

cytosol

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
51
Q

Tay-Sachs disease involves a cellular defect in

A

lysosomal enzymes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
52
Q

___ are the only type of cells where flagella are found

A

Sperm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
53
Q

Cells of the small intestine and kidney tubule have a “brush border” composed of ___, which are cell extensions that increase the surface area

A

microvilli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
54
Q

Cilia and flagella are distinguished from each other on the basis of

A

length and numbers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
55
Q

The building blocks of DNA and RNA found in the nucleus of the cell are known as the

A

nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
56
Q

The “control center” of the cell is the

A

nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
57
Q

A structure of the nucleus can be described as

A

enclosed in a nuclear envelope

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
58
Q

In the nucleus, DNA is wrapped within proteins. This structure is known as

A

chromatin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
59
Q

One function of the nucleus in the cell is to

A

control and coordinate cellular activities

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
60
Q

Elements present in DNA and RNA are

A

C H O N P

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
61
Q

DNA is condensed to form a structure called a ___ in the nucleus

A

chromosome

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
62
Q

Nuceoli

A

produce ribosomal subunits

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
63
Q

Nuclear pores:

A

allow molecules to move between the nucleus and cytoplasm

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
64
Q

Arrange the following sequence:

A

1) initiated by the RNA, polypeptide chains are made by ribosomes on rough ER

2) Polypeptide chains move through rough ER and then carried in vesicles to Golgi apparatus

3) Golgi apparatus separates and modifies varieties of proteins then packages them into vesicles

4) Vesicles are pinched off from Golgi apparatus carrying newly formed proteins to plasma membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
65
Q

The transfer of information from DNA to messenger RNA (m-RNA) is known as

A

transcription

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
66
Q

Which of the following molecules contains the anticodon?

A

r-RNA

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
67
Q

The process of DNA replication is

A

semiconservative in nature

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
68
Q

DNA replication results in two new DNA molecules. Each of these new molecules has

A

one strand of nucleotides from the parent DNA and only one newly synthesized strand of nucleotides

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
69
Q

Cells undergo a series of changes during their life-span known as

A

cell cycle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
70
Q

What happens by the process of mitosis

A

new daughter cells with the same number of chromosomes and all other cellular components are produced

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
71
Q

DNA synthesis occurs during

A

the S phase of interphase

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
72
Q

Human somatic cells contain _______ chromosomes, while gametic cells contain _______ chromosomes.

A

46; 23

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
73
Q

The major phenomenon and changes during cell division starts within the

A

nucleus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
74
Q

The process by which cytoplasm divides during cell division is known as

A

cytokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
75
Q

Meiosis is the process of cell division that occurs in the

A

gametes (egg and sperm)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
76
Q

By the process of meiosis, a _________ number of chromosomes are produced in the gametes.

A

haploid

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
77
Q

Crossing over

A

increases the amount of genetic diversity

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
78
Q

How many divisional stages occur during meiosis?

A

2

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
79
Q

The process that divides the nucleus during cell division is known as

A

karyokinesis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
80
Q

Which is the longest and most complex phase during meiosis?

A

prophase I

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
81
Q

Which of the following is characteristic of aging cells?

A
  • golgi apparatus becomes fragmented
  • lipid inclusions accumulate
  • glycogen-containing structures decrease
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
82
Q

A tissue is formed by a group of ____ performing or associated with similar function

A

cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
83
Q

There are four primary types of tissues; they are

A

epithelial, connective, muscular, nervous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
84
Q

muscle tissue is characterized by its

A

contractility

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
85
Q

a tissue specialized for energy storage and thermal insulation is

A

adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
86
Q

which of the following is not one of the four primary classes of tissue

A

cartilaginous tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
87
Q

All permanent connective tissues originate with the ___ of the embryo

A

mesenchyme

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
88
Q

About 90% of all cancers originate from

A

epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
89
Q

When different varieties of tissues are associated to perform a function they form the structure known as ___

A

organ

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
90
Q

Epithelial tissue is characterized by

A

tightly packed cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
91
Q

The various types of epithelium are classified by the

A

shape of cells and number of cell layers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
92
Q

Epithelial tissue is distinguished from connective tissue, muscular, or nervous tissue by its

A

basement membrane

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
93
Q

Simple epithelium has one layer of cells on the basement membrane, ___ epithelium has more than one layer of cells

A

Stratified

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
94
Q

Which of the following cell organelles would be most important in secretory epithelial cells

A

Golgi apparatus

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
95
Q

Lining of blood capillaries supplying body cells with oxygen and nutrients, are expected to consist of

A

simple squamous epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
96
Q

Epithelial tissue that can stretch or is subjected to stress would have many

A

desmosomes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
97
Q

Glands whose ducts have few branches are called

A

simple

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
98
Q

In a(n) ___ gland, the entire cells break down to form the secretion

A

holocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
99
Q

According to their function, there are two major types of epithelial tissue, these are

A

covering and secretory epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
100
Q

Glands that produce thick, sticky secretion are called ___ glands

A

mucous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
101
Q

The epithelium that lines the stomach and intestines is

A

simple columnar

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
102
Q

The epithelium that lines the passages of the respiratory and reproductive system is called

A

pseudostratified columnar epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
103
Q

The secretions of endocrine glands are released directly

A

into the bloodstream

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
104
Q

What is the general function of glands

A

produce and secrete specialized compounds to control and maintain different body function

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
105
Q

A carcinoma is a cancer originating from

A

epithelium

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
106
Q

The following is a function of epithelium tissue

A

secretion and absorption of molecules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
107
Q

The tissue that forms the inner lining of the respiratory passages is

A
  • pseudostratified
  • ciliated
  • mucus-secreting
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
108
Q

Connective tissue exists in different forms (within the human body) from liquids to very hard solids of the presence of the ___

A

extracellular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
109
Q

Connective tissue fibers are produced by

A

fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
110
Q

Collagen, elastin, and reticular fibers in connective tissues are formed by

A

proteins

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
111
Q

Extracellular matrix in blood is

A

plasma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
112
Q

The gel of the extracellular matrix is composed mostly of water and

A

proteoglycans

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
113
Q

Macrophages almost as abundant as fibroblasts are specialized in

A

phagocytosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
114
Q

Bone cells are arranged in concentric circles around longitudinal tubes called

A

osteonic canals

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
115
Q

Extracellular matrix in bone is formed by

A

mineral salts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
116
Q

A general characteristic of connective tissue is that it

A

consists of cells with much intercellular material between them

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
117
Q

Cartilage tissues are likely to be slow in healing following an injury because

A

they lack direct blood supplies

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
118
Q

When cardiac muscle cells are damaged by a heart attack, they are usually replaced by

A

connective tissue cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
119
Q

Dense regular collagenous connective tissue would be found in

A

a ligament

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
120
Q

Blood cells are produced in hemopoietic tissue found in

A

red bone marrow

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
121
Q

The only type of cell seen in a tendon is

A

fibroblasts

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
122
Q

The shape of a person’s ear is due mainly to

A

elastic cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
123
Q

Which of these it NOT connective tissue

A

muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
124
Q

Tendons and ligaments contain the protein

A

collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
125
Q

The secretory cells of a gland are supported by a connective tissue framework called

A

stroma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
126
Q

The perichondrium is a layer of fibroconnective tissue surrounding

A

most cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
127
Q

Fetal skeleton in early stages is formed by

A

hyaline cartilage

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
128
Q

Loose connective tissue contains

A
  • collagen and elastin fibers
  • myosin and actin fibers
  • plasma
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
129
Q

Tendons and ligaments are composed primarily of

A

fibrous connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
130
Q

Which of the following types of connective tissue is MISMATCHED with its matrix?

A

cartilage—highly vascular matrix

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
131
Q

Muscle tissue cells are contractile, which means they

A

are specialized in contraction and relaxation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
132
Q

A muscle that is not consciously controlled and has a banded appearance would be described as

A

striated involuntary

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
133
Q

Movement of food through the digestive tract results from the action of

A

smooth muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
134
Q

The only type of muscle with multinucleated fibers is

A

skeletal muscle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
135
Q

The muscle tissue that can be consciously controlled is

A

skeletal

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
136
Q

Cardiac muscle is found in the wall of the

A

heart

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
137
Q

Which one among the following statement about smooth muscle is TRUE?

A
  • The smooth muscles are responsible for the movements of the internal organs.
  • The cells in the smooth muscles have actin, but no striations.
  • The muscular cells in the smooth muscles are shorter than the skeletal muscles.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
138
Q

The type of muscle found in the walls of blood vessels is

A

smooth

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
139
Q

A continuous supply of __________ is necessary for muscle contraction.

A

ATP

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
140
Q

Nervous tissue consists predominantly of two cell types:

A

neurons and neuroglia

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
141
Q

Which of the following is associated with nervous tissue?

A

axon

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
142
Q

A unipolar neuron is characterized by the presence of

A

no dendrites

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
143
Q

Which of the following is CORRECTLY matched?

A

axons—conduct action potentials away from the cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
144
Q

What is the function of neuroglial cells in nervous tissue?

A

support and bind nervous tissue together, and they provide nutrients to neurons

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
145
Q

What is the function of nervous tissue?

A

maintain and coordinate normal body functions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
146
Q

In patients suffering from multiple sclerosis, the _____________ of the neurons are destroyed.

A

myelin sheath

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
147
Q

Three essential components of most neurons are

A

axon, dendrites and cell body

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
148
Q

Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of nervous tissue?

A

Its intercellular space is filled with collagen.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
149
Q

Inflammatory reactions usually occur in

A

connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
150
Q

The formation of scar tissue is most directly caused by

A

granulation tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
151
Q

The abnormal death of a tissue is called

A

necrosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
152
Q

Membranes lining body cavities that lack openings to the outside are called

A

serous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
153
Q

Membranes lining body cavities that do not open to the outside are called

A

serous

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
154
Q

As cells are pushed from the deeper portion of the epidermis toward the surface they

A

are replaced by dividing cells from below

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
155
Q

By covering the whole body surface skin acts as a protective barrier and plays a role in

A

excretion

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
156
Q

Epidermis is characterized by being _______, whereas dermis is distinguished by being _______.

A

composed of stratified epithelial tissue; composed of connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
157
Q

The subcutaneous layer in the skin is

A

composed of loose connective tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
158
Q

The skin does not include the

A

hypodermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
159
Q

Adipose tissue in the hypodermis

A

varies in amount from one region to other body regions

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
160
Q

The integumentary system has many functions, one of which is

A
  • protection from cancer
  • detection of painful stimuli
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
161
Q

The outermost layer of epithelium that covers the skin is called the

A

epidermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
162
Q

Which of the following functions is associated with the skin?

A

protection against ultraviolet radiation of the sun

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
163
Q

The dermis

A

is responsible for most of the skin’s structural strength

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
164
Q

The layer of epidermis that undergoes mitosis and forms new epidermal cells is the stratum

A

basale

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
165
Q

Intact skin provides protection because

A
  • it forms a physical barrier against the entry of microbes
  • its secretions keep the skin slightly acidic
  • the skin is capable of excretion of certain waste products
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
166
Q

The sloughing off of older cells from the surface of the skin is called

A

desquamation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
167
Q

The outermost layer of the epithelium in the skin hardens due to deposition of a waterproof protein called

A

keratin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
168
Q

Which layer of the skin causes the formation of “fingerprints”?

A

Papillary layer of the dermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
169
Q

A plastic surgeon would most likely make a skin incision:

A

Parallel to the cleavage lines.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
170
Q

Which of the following epidermal cells functions in immunity?

A

Langerhans’ cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
171
Q

Which of the following acts as the foundation for the skin?

A

hypodermis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
172
Q

The subcutaneous layer in the skin is

A

a heat insulator layer which helps to conserve body heat

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
173
Q

The integumentary system has many functions, one of which is

A

detection of painful stimuli

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
174
Q

Intact skin provides protection because

A

it forms a physical barrier against the entry of microbes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
175
Q

Goose-bumps on the skin are due to the contraction of the muscle called

A

arrector pili muscle.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
176
Q

What is the difference between a hair and a hair follicle?

A

Dead epidermal cells exist in the hair, whereas a hair follicle is composed of living epidermal cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
177
Q

A hair receives its nutrition from

A

the dermal papilla.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
178
Q

The most superficial layer of the epidermis is

A

stratum corneum.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
179
Q

Which of the following layers of the epidermis has no nuclei in its cells?

A

Stratum corneum

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
180
Q

Which of the following is true concerning light and dark-skinned races?

A

Dark-skinned people have the same number of melanocytes as light-skinned people but there is greater melanin production in dark skinned-people.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
181
Q

The activity of apocrine sweat glands

A

sometimes leads to body odor

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
182
Q

Sweat contains

A

water, salts and wastes

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
183
Q

Which one among the following is not a skin gland?

A

salivary glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
184
Q

The glands most responsible for cooling the skin are

A

merocrine

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
185
Q

Eccrine sweat glands

A

respond primarily to elevated body temperature.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
186
Q

Eccrine sweat glands differ from sebaceous glands

A
  • in terms of what is secreted
  • in their location in the body
  • because sebaceous glands are associated with hair follicles, whereas sweat glands are not
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
187
Q

In which of the following regions of the body are apocrine sweat glands most numerous?

A

axilla and groin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
188
Q

Which of the following statements about the sebaceous gland is true?

A
  • They are associated with the hair follicle.
  • Sebaceous glands are also called holocrine glands.
  • Secretion from sebaceous gland is called sebum.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
189
Q

Which of the following structures in the hair would contain hard keratin?

A

Cuticle

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
190
Q

Which of the following is true concerning hair growth?

A

Hair grows for a period of time and then rests and grows again.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
191
Q

When the arrector pili muscle contracts, which of the following happens?

A
  • The hair shaft is pulled perpendicular to the skin surface.
  • Movement of the hair follicle causes “goose bumps”.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
192
Q

Which of the following glands produce sweat?

A
  • Apocrine
  • Merocrine
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
193
Q

Why is it not a good idea for nail technicians to “pull back the cuticles” (eponychium) when manicuring nails?

A

The cuticle acts as a barrier against infection.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
194
Q

The most active growing region of the nail is called

A

nail matrix.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
195
Q

Which one among the following statements about nails is true?

A

Nails protect the ends of fingers and toes.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
196
Q

The nail plate is produced by

A

specialized epithelial cells.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
197
Q

The primary means by which body heat is lost is

A

radiation

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
198
Q

The ways in which the skin promotes loss of excess body heat are

A
  • dilation of dermal blood vessels
  • activation of eccrine sweat glands to release more sweat to skin surface
  • loss of heat by radiation, conduction, and convection
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
199
Q

An increase in body temperature causes

A

sweating

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
200
Q

An abrasion of the skin results in which of the following?

A

portal of entry for microorganisms

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
201
Q

Which of the following will help cool the body?

A

evaporation of sweat from the skin’s surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
202
Q

In cold weather _______ may result from reduced blood circulation through the skin.

A

cyanosis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
203
Q

Due to the contraction of smooth muscle in the walls of dermal blood vessels

A

body heat is conserved

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
204
Q

By reducing body temperature during hot weather skin helps to maintain

A

body homeostasis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
205
Q

What determines the color of skin?

A

amount of melanin produced by melanocytes in the skin

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
206
Q

Exposure to ultraviolet light causes the skin to darken by stimulating the production of

A

melanin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
207
Q

All of the following substances can contribute to the color of skin. Of these, only ______ is of dietary origin.

A

carotene

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
208
Q

Which of the following layers of the epidermis consists of a single row of columnar cells that undergo mitosis and includes pigment-producing melanocytes?

A

stratum basale (germinativum)

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
209
Q

The melanocytes in very dark skin

A

contain single, large, pigment granules

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
210
Q

Skin color is the result of

A

heredity or genetic factors.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
211
Q

Which of the following hair colors is the result of a decrease in melanin?

A

white

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
212
Q

Albinism develops due to

A

inherited mutant gene for melanin.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
213
Q

Light-skinned races such as Caucasians have

A

approximately the same number of melanocytes as races with darker skins.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
214
Q

Melanin production can be influenced by

A
  • genetics
  • exposure to sunlight.
  • pregnancy
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
215
Q

The skin discoloration most likely to suggest physical trauma is

A

hematoma

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
216
Q

All of the following changes occur in aging skin except:

A

increased collagen

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
217
Q

Which of the following cause “age spots”?

A

increased melanocytes in certain areas of hands and face

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
218
Q

Which of the following groups of people are more likely to get skin cancer as they become older?

A
  • Those who have been frequently over-exposed to the sun.
  • Fair skinned blonds and redheads.
  • Those who have a pre-existing mole.
How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
219
Q

Which of the following skin changes is usually associated with aging?

A

there are additional sweat and sebaceous glands

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
220
Q

With aging, individuals tend to feel colder and usually need a higher temperature, especially in the winter because their body

A

experiences a decrease in the thickness of their subcutaneous fat layer

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
221
Q

Stretch marks result from

A

torn collagen fibers

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
222
Q

Elderly persons may become less able to maintain stable body temperatures because

A

their sweat glands are replaced by fibrous tissue and their activity decreases

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
223
Q

Some marrow of long bones is termed “yellow” marrow under normal conditions. The function of this is to

A

store adipose tissue

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
224
Q

Some marrow of long bones is termed “red” marrow. The function of this is to

A

manufacture blood cells

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
225
Q

One of the functions of bone is “electrolyte balance.” Which of the following best represents this role?

A

Bones store calcium and phosphorus and release them into the blood as needed.

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
226
Q

Which of the following best describes the role of a lacuna in a bone?

A

a cavity within a bone to house an osteocyte

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
227
Q

Cartilage grows by two mechanisms: interstitial growth and appositional growth. Which pair of terms best describes the two methods?

A

internal and on the surface

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
228
Q

The shaft of a bone is known as the

A

diaphysis

How well did you know this?
1
Not at all
2
3
4
5
Perfectly
229
Q

The growth zone of a long bone is referred to as the

A

epiphyseal plate

230
Q

A tissue that surrounds a long bone, made of a double layer of connective tissue, is referred to as the

A

periosteum

231
Q

What type of bone tissue surrounds a medullary cavity?

A

spongy bone

232
Q

Sharpey’s fibers, located on the periphery of a bone, are

A

collagen fibers from ligaments that attach to bone

233
Q

The lattice of spongy bone, consisting of plates, rods and spines, is called

A

trabeculae

234
Q

The end of a long bone is referred to as the

A

epiphysis

235
Q

Examples of bones that are “irregular” in shape are

A

vertebrae and some skull bones

236
Q

Which of the following is a squamous epithelium that lines the medullary cavity of a bone to begin the formation of marrow?

A

endosteum

237
Q

Passing through the periostum of bones are arteries, veins, and

A

nerves

238
Q

Which of the following bones is considered to be flat?

A

sternum

239
Q

Which of the following is classified as a long bone?

A

phalanx

240
Q

The epiphyseal plate is located in the

A

metaphysis

241
Q

Once an endochondral bone has completed its ossification, the bone now has a ___________ where the old epiphyseal plate existed.

A

epiphyseal line

242
Q

Bones are

A
  • cartilage
  • connective tissues
  • organs
243
Q

In compact bone, the Haversian canals go the length of the bone. What are the connectors from one Haversian canal to another?

A

Volkmann’s canals

244
Q

Cancellous bone is often referred to as _____________ bone.

A

spongy

245
Q

Cancellous bone has spaces within that are deigned for the housing of

A

marrow and blood vessels

246
Q

An osteon (Haversian system) is actually

A

a Haversian canal and its lamellae

247
Q

Since bone is a connective tissue, it has all the necessary features of a connective tissue including a matrix. What makes up the matrix of a bone?

A

collagen, proteins and hydroxyapatite

248
Q

If the collagen are removed from a bone, what happens to the bone?

A

it breaks apart into thousands of small pieces

249
Q

If the minerals are removed from a bone, what happens to the bone?

A

it becomes soft and rubbery

250
Q

Which of the following types of bone develops out of a non-cartilage connective tissue scaffold?

A

intramembranous

251
Q

Bone cells that manufacture new bone are known as

A

osteoblasts

252
Q

The center of an osteon is known as a Haversian canal. What passes through the center of the canal?

A

blood and nerves

253
Q

The inorganic portion of a bone structure, made primarily of calcium phosphate crystals, is known as

A

hydroxyapatite

254
Q

Which of the following types of cells puts calcium and phosphorus into bone as well as manufactures bone?

A

osteoblasts

255
Q

Osteocytes must have the ability to receive nutrients from the blood and an ability to return wastes to the blood. Connectors between the osteocytes and the blood vessels are known as

A

canaliculi

256
Q

Osteoclasts are active cells that tear down bone. They do this by secreting an enzyme that dissolves the collagen in the bone matrix. Which of the following is that enzyme?

A

acid phosphatase

257
Q

Normal formation of bone is known as osteogenesis. Another term for bone formation is

A

ossification

258
Q

Osteoprogenitor cells

A

are stem cells that become osteoblasts

259
Q

In the skull of a newborn baby, the space between the developing skull bones is known as a(n)

A

fontanel

260
Q

Endochondral ossification begins at what age?

A

during fetal development

261
Q

Endochondral ossification ends at what age?

A

adulthood

262
Q

The bone formed by endochondral ossification is called _____________ bone.

A

replacement

263
Q

Most of the peripheral skeleton of a 7-month-old fetus is primarily

A

cartilage tissue

264
Q

The term “appositional growth” refers to bone growth that occurs

A

on the surface of cartilage, bone or older bone

265
Q

The epiphyseal plate is the zone of

A

new growth for endochondral ossification

266
Q

The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where the bone grows longer is the zone of

A

hypotrophy

267
Q

The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where chondrocytes mature and enlarge is the zone of

A

proliferation

268
Q

The epiphyseal plate is divided into 4 zones. The region where the cartilage matrix is mineralized with calcium carbonate is the zone of

A

calcification

269
Q

Two of the primary hormones for bone growth and development are

A

human growth hormone and thyroid hormone.

270
Q

Intramembranous ossification results in the formation of bones that belong to which class of bones?

A

flat bones of the clavicle and skull

271
Q

Before the process of intramembranous ossification, which of the following type of tissue is found in the associated membranes of the skull and clavicles?

A

collagen fibers

272
Q

The process of intramembranous ossification begins when?

A

during embryonic development

273
Q

The type of cells that brings about intramembranous ossification are

A

osteoblasts

274
Q

The development of the fontanel is brought about by

A

the unossified fibrous membranes in the skull

275
Q

Woven bone is formed during which of the following situations?

A

fetal development and after fractures

276
Q

Lamellar bone is bone that

A

is mature and is organized into thin sheets or layers

277
Q

In regard to bone cell development, which of the following sequences is correct?

A

osteogenic → osteoblasts → osteocyte

278
Q

When a fracture begins to heal, one type of bone cell moves into the fracture site and tears down the damaged bone tissue. Which of the following tears down bone?

A

osteoclasts

279
Q

If a 12 year old were to fracture their epiphyseal plate, the result of the damage could be that the bone

A

may stop growing at the plate

280
Q

Which of the following is the most accurate definition of “bone remodeling”?

A

removal of old bone by osteoclasts and making of new bone by osteoblasts

281
Q

In the process of bone remodeling, old bone is removed by

A

osteoclasts

282
Q

Following a bone fracture a callus builds around the fracture site. Callus is a

A

collection of blood vessels and collagen at the fracture site.

283
Q

Which of the following fractures refers to a fracture of a bone in multiple pieces?

A

comminuted

284
Q

Which of the following fractures is often referred to as being a “greenstick” fracture?

A

incomplete

285
Q

Which of the following fractures goes all the way through a bone, but does not break it into multiple pieces?

A

complete

286
Q

Which of the following fractures is a fracture of the distal radius and/or ulna?

A

Colle’s

287
Q

Which of the following fractures is a fracture in a bone already weakened by disease?

A

Pathologic

288
Q

A spiral fracture of a bone most often is the result of a bone

A

that has been twisted

289
Q

An injury that occurs to vertebrae when they are flattened is known as a

A

compression fracture

290
Q

The term “calcium homeostasis” refers to which of the following?

A

balance of calcium between the blood and the bones

291
Q

Which of the following glands plays a major role in calcium homeostasis?

A

parathyroid

292
Q

If blood calcium levels decrease, which of the following hormones is released to take calcium out of bones and put it into the blood?

A

parathyroid hormone

293
Q

If blood calcium levels increase, which of the following hormones is released to take calcium from the blood and place in into the bones?

A

calcitonin

294
Q

Calcitrol is a(n)

A

activated form of vitamin D.

295
Q

The general function of calcitriol in relation to bone cell activity is that it

A

increases osteoclast activity.

296
Q

In old age, most of the yellow bone marrow is replaced by

A

gelatinous bone marrow

297
Q

Osteoporosis most often occurs in

A

older white women

298
Q

Most of the calcium taken in with the diet that is not absorbed is

A

excreted in the feces

299
Q

Insufficient vitamin D in a diet may result in a condition known as

A

rickets

300
Q

Insufficient vitamin C in a diet may result in a condition known as

A

scurvy

301
Q

A lack of vitamin D in the diet that may occur in adults with a digestive disorder is known as

A

osteomalacia

302
Q

Which of the following diseases of bones is a loss of bone mass and density?

A

osteoporosis

303
Q

Which of the following diseases is a bacterial infection of bone?

A

osteomyelitis

304
Q

Which of the following bone disorders is a deadly bone tumor?

A

osteosarcoma

305
Q

The most common bone disease is osteoporosis. The most common consequence of this disease is

A

fractures

306
Q

A developmental disorder in which the pituitary produces excess growth hormone and the patient grows abnormally large is known as

A

Paget’s disease of bone

307
Q

Which of the following combinations of treatments would be the most appropriate for treatment of osteoporosis?

A

walking, adding calcium to the diet and, perhaps, taking estrogen-replacement therapy

308
Q

The average adult skeleton consists of ____ bones, however this number ____ with age.

A

206, decreases

309
Q

Which of the following bone markings refers to a small, flat articular surface on a bone?

A

facet

310
Q

Which of the following bone features is a smooth, rounded knob on a bone?

A

condyle

311
Q

Which of the following bone extensions is massive and located on the femur?

A

trochanter

312
Q

What is the primary purpose of a bone process or projection?

A

points of attachment for ligaments or tendons

313
Q

Of the following depressions in bone, which one is a socket like that for teeth?

A

fossa

314
Q

Of the following holes in a bone, which one is a small pit located on the head of the femur?

A

fovea

315
Q

Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a tunnel like that of the inner ear?

A

meatus

316
Q

Of the following passages or openings in bones, which one is a hole that allows for the passage of blood vessels and/or nerves?

A

foramen

317
Q

Which of the following is a mucous membrane-lined air space within a bone?

A

sinus

318
Q

Which portion of the skeleton is the axial skeleton?

A

skull, vertebral column, hyoid bone and rib cage

319
Q

Which bone(s) of the skull would be considered to be the most superior?

A

parietal

320
Q

Which of the following bones are joined by squamosal suture?

A

temporal and parietal

321
Q

Which of the following bones are joined by the lambdoidal suture?

A

temporal and parietal

322
Q

Which of the following bones are joined by the coronal suture?

A

frontal and parietal

323
Q

Which of the following bones are joined by the saggital suture?

A

right and left parietal

324
Q

Of the bones of the head and neck, which one provides an attachment for the tongue and some neck muscles and does NOT directly articulate with another bone?

A

hyoid

325
Q

Which of the following bones does the supraorbital foramen pass through?

A

frontal

326
Q

The most superior portion of the ethmoid bones rise up into the cranium through which bone?

A

frontal

327
Q

The perpendicular plate is part of which bone?

A

ethmoid

328
Q

The sella turcica is part of which bone?

A

sphenoid

329
Q

The mastoid process is part of which bone?

A

temporal

330
Q

What anatomical structure lies within the sella turcica?

A

pituitary gland

331
Q

The crista galli is part of which bone?

A

ethmoid

332
Q

The external auditory meatus passes through which bone?

A

temporal

333
Q

The crista galli, perpendicular plate, and nasal concha are all part of which bone?

A

ethmoid

334
Q

Which of the following bones has greater and lesser wings?

A

sphenoid

335
Q

Which of the following bones has condyles that articulate with the vertebral column?

A

occipital

336
Q

Which bone(s) have/has the following foramina: ovale, rotundum, and spinosum?

A

sphenoid

337
Q

The jugular foramen lies between two bones. Which of the following pairs is correct?

A

temporal and occipital

338
Q

The foramen lacerum lies between two bones. Which of the following pairs is correct?

A

sphenoid and temporal

339
Q

Which of the following bones has the hypoglossal canal?

A

occipital

340
Q

Which of the following bones has a cribiform plate?

A

ethmoid

341
Q

What bone lies as a connecting bridge between the maxilla and the temporal bone?

A

zygomatic

342
Q

Of the following bones which one does NOT lie in the orbit?

A

parietal

343
Q

Which bone lies directly inferior to the perpendicular plate?

A

vomer

344
Q

Which of the following bones of the orbit houses a foramen for a tear duct?

A

lacrimal

345
Q

The mandible articulates, via a highly moveable joint, with which of the following bones?

A

temporal

346
Q

Which of the following pairs of foramina are in the mandible?

A

mental and mandibular

347
Q

The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is known as the

A

petrous portion

348
Q

The thickened bony ridge that houses the middle and inner ear is part of which of the following bones?

A

temporal

349
Q

The optic foramen passes through which of the following bones?

A

sphenoid

350
Q

Which of the following pairs of bones form the roof of the mouth?

A

palatine and maxilla

351
Q

Which of the following sets is the correct listing of paranasal sinuses?

A

ethmoid, sphenoid, frontal, and maxillary

352
Q

Which of the following bones houses the foramen magnum?

A

occipital

353
Q

The superior most portion of the ethmoid bone rises up through which of the following bones?

A

frontal

354
Q

The middle and superior nasal conchae are projections of which bone?

A

ethmoid

355
Q

The inferior most portion of the sphenoid bone is the

A

pterygoid processes

356
Q

Which of the following bones has wings?

A

sphenoid

357
Q

The nasal septum is made up of which of the following pairs of bones?

A

vomer and maxilla

358
Q

The ramus and the angle are parts of which of the following bones?

A

mandible

359
Q

Which of the following groups correctly lists the auditory ossicles?

A

stapes, malleus, and incus

360
Q

Which two bones of the skull contribute to both the neurocranium and the viscerocranium?

A

ethmoid and frontal

361
Q

Nuchal lines and the mastoid process both provide points of attachment for muscles of

A

the neck

362
Q

Temporal lines and the coronoid process provide points of attachment for muscles of

A

mastication

363
Q

How many cervical vertebrae are there?

A

7

364
Q

How many thoracic vertebrae are there?

A

12

365
Q

How many lumbar vertebrae are there?

A

5

366
Q

The first cervical vertebrae is known as the

A

atlas

367
Q

The second cervical vertebrae is known as the

A

axis

368
Q

The opening in the middle of a vertebra for the spinal cord is known as the

A

vertebral foramen

369
Q

Two of the bony ridges that surround the spinal cord are the

A

pedicle and lamina

370
Q

How many pairs of vertebrosternal ribs are there?

A

7

371
Q

The sacrum is composed of how many fused bones?

A

5

372
Q

The most inferior portion of the sternum is the

A

xiphoid process

373
Q

The most superior portion of the sternum is the

A

manubrium

374
Q

How many pairs of vertebral ribs are there?

A

2

375
Q

How many pairs of vertebrochondral ribs are there?

A

3

376
Q

The openings between vertebrae that allow for the spinal nerves to enter and exit are known as

A

intervertebral foramen

377
Q

Which of the following are the cartilages that attach the ribs to the sternum?

A

costal cartilages

378
Q

The spinous processes of the first four sacral vertebrae partially fuse to form which structure?

A

medial sacral crest

379
Q

Which two parts of a rib articulate with the vertebrae?

A

head and tubercle

380
Q

A distinctive feature of the first cervical vertebrae is that it

A

does not have a body

381
Q

A distinctive feature of the second cervical vertebrae is that it

A

has a dens

382
Q

A distinctive feature of all cervical vertebrae is that they

A

all have transverse foramina

383
Q

A distinctive feature of all thoracic vertebrae is that they

A

all have facets for ribs

384
Q

What is the most posterior portion of a vertebra?

A

spinous processes

385
Q

Which of the following serve as points of articulation between adjacent vertebrae?

A

articular facets

386
Q

What attaches to spinous processes and transverse processes?

A

muscles

387
Q

What passes through the foramen magnum?

A

the spinal cord

388
Q

An abnormal lateral curvature of the spine is known as

A

scoliosis

389
Q

An abnormal curvature of the lumbar spine that results in an exaggeration of the convex curve of the lumbar region is known as

A

lordosis

390
Q

Coronoid processes are found on which pair of bones?

A

mandible and ulna

391
Q

Which of the following bone extensions is a rough surface found on the tibia?

A

tubercle

392
Q

The pectoral girdle is composed of which of the following sets of bones?

A

sternum and clavicle

393
Q

The head of the humerus articulates with the

A

glenoid cavity

394
Q

The glenohumeral joint is between which of the following pairs of bones?

A

scapula and humerus

395
Q

The two bones most inferior to the humerus are the

A

radius and ulna

396
Q

Medially the clavicle articulates with the

A

sternum

397
Q

Laterally the clavicle articulates with the

A

scapula

398
Q

The two processes on the superior - lateral portion of the scapula are the

A

coracoid and acromion

399
Q

Which of the following bones is immediately proximal to the radius?

A

humerus

400
Q

How many carpal bones are there in one hand?

A

8

401
Q

How many phalanges are there in one hand?

A

14

402
Q

How many phalanges does one thumb have?

A

2

403
Q

The carpal bones are arranged in which of the following patterns?

A

two rows of 4

404
Q

The end of the first finger (the one used for pointing) has a phalanx in it identified as which of the following?

A

second distal phalanx

405
Q

On the “pinky”, the last digit is referred to as the

A

5th distal phalanx

406
Q

Styloid processes are found on which bones?

A

temporal, radius, and ulna

407
Q

What is the structure commonly referred to as the elbow?

A

olecranon process of the humerus

408
Q

Which of the following bones is NOT found in the proximal row of carpals?

A

hamate

409
Q

Which of the following bones is NOT found in the distal row of carpals?

A

capitate

410
Q

The first groove beneath the head of the humerus is the

A

anatomical head

411
Q

Of the following bony parts, which one has the deltoid muscle attachment?

A

deltoid tuberosity

412
Q

Where is the olecranon fossa located?

A

posterior and distal portion of the humerus

413
Q

The structure that articulates with the olecranon fossa is the olecranon process of the

A

ulna

414
Q

The structure that articulates with the coronoid fossa of the humerus is the coronoid process of the

A

ulna

415
Q

When resting our elbows upon the table, the bony projection on the back of our arms, that rests on the table, is the

A

olecranon process

416
Q

The distal most bony projections of the radius and the ulna are the __________ processes.

A

styloid

417
Q

The ulna rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?

A

trochlea

418
Q

The head of the radius rotates on the humerus on which of the following anatomical parts?

A

capitulum

419
Q

An accessory bone often found in the palm of the hand, is known as a(n) _______ bone.

A

sesamoid

420
Q

The term “phalanges” is the plural of which of the following?

A

phalanx

421
Q

The structure that articulates with the glenoid cavity is the head of the

A

humerus

422
Q

Which of the following rotates on the capitulum?

A

radius

423
Q

The joint between a coxal bone and the sacrum is known as the

A

sacroiliac joint

424
Q

The joint between the pubic bones is known as the

A

symphysis pubic

425
Q

Which of the following is a large sesamoid bone in the leg?

A

patella

426
Q

The fibula in relation to the tibia is

A

lateral to the tibia

427
Q

The upper (superior) most portion of the ilium, where we rest our hands on hips, is the

A

iliac crest

428
Q

The visible anterior protrusions of the ilium are which of the following?

A

anterior superior iliac spine

429
Q

The head of the femur articulates in which of the following?

A

acetabulum

430
Q

Which of the following is the large opening in the bones between the ilium and ischium?

A

obturator

431
Q

In general, the female pelvis differs from the male pelvis by which of the following?

A

Females have a broader and more shallow pelvic outlet.

432
Q

The tarsal region of the body is which of the following?

A

ankle to the foot

433
Q

Which of the following is a long line down the posterior side of the femur for attachment of muscles?

A

linea aspera

434
Q

Which of the following is a large bony ridge along the side of the femur?

A

greater trochanter

435
Q

The most superior portion of the tibia is the

A

intercondylar eminence

436
Q

Which of the following is the large bump on the medial side of the ankle?

A

malleolus of the tibia

437
Q

The distal most portion of the tibia lies on which of the following bones?

A

talus

438
Q

Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most posterior?

A

calcaneus

439
Q

Of the following tarsal bones, which one is the most distal and lateral?

A

cuboid

440
Q

There are three tarsal bones of the same name. Which of the following are the three?

A

cuneiforms

441
Q

What bones are frequently beneath the distal end of the first metatarsal?

A

sesamoid

442
Q

The last digit of the little toe is known as the

A

5th distal phalanx

443
Q

Of the following anatomical parts, the head of the _________articulates in the acetabulum?

A

femur

444
Q

Which structure(s) of the femur articulate(s) with the tibia?

A

lateral and medial epicondyles

445
Q

Which of the following projections of the femur does NOT provide for muscular attachment?

A

medial condyle

446
Q

Which of the following does NOT articulate with the femur?

A

fibula

447
Q

Which of the following is the correct term for a freely moveable joint?

A

diarthrosis

448
Q

Which of the following is a joint that has little or no movement?

A

synarthrosis

449
Q

Which of the following is a joint that is slightly moveable?

A

amphiarthrosis

450
Q

In a structural classification of joints, which of the following is a joint that has a cavity filled with fluid enclosed in a capsule?

A

synovial

451
Q

Which of the following joints is held together with collagenous fibers?

A

fibrous

452
Q

Which of the following joints is held together with cartilage?

A

cartilaginous

453
Q

The sutures of the skull and the teeth in their sockets are examples of which of the following?

A

synarthrosis

454
Q

Intervertebral discs, the pubic symphysis, and the tibio-fibular joints are examples of which of the following types of joints?

A

amphiarthrosis

455
Q

The shoulder, elbow, and knee are examples of which of the following types of joints?

A

diarthrosis

456
Q

Of the following fibrous joints, which one forms the joints between the skull bones?

A

sutures

457
Q

Which of the following fibrous joints attaches the teeth into their sockets?

A

gomphoses

458
Q

Which of the following types of joints holds two bones tightly together with a ligament?

A

syndesmoses

459
Q

Which of the following types of fibrous joints is the joint between the radius and ulna and also between the tibia and fibula?

A

syndesmoses

460
Q

Of the following types of cartilaginous joints, which one is a joint of hyaline cartilage found in the epiphyseal joints?

A

synchondrosis

461
Q

Sometimes a joint has become fused and now is one bone. Which of the following is the correct term for this type of bone?

A

synostosis

462
Q

Another term for ellipsoidal joints is _________ joints.

A

ball-and-socket

463
Q

Which of the following is a fluid-filled sac found in a synovial joint?

A

bursa

464
Q

Which of the following is a cartilage pad found in some synovial joints?

A

articular disks

465
Q

Synovial joints may be classified according to the plane of movement. Which of the following represents a movement that is in two planes?

A

biaxial

466
Q

Which of the following types of synovial joints is the most freely moveable?

A

ball and socket

467
Q

Which of the following types of synovial joints is found between the metacarpal bones and the carpal bones?

A

condyloid

468
Q

In which of the following types of synovial joints does one bone have a projection that fits into a ring-like ligament on the other, enabling one bone to revolve on the other?

A

pivot

469
Q

Which of the following synovial joints is the trapeziometacarpal joint at the base of the thumb?

A

saddle

470
Q

Of the following types of diarthrotic movements, which one is a simple moving of the lower arm up and down?

A

flexion and extension

471
Q

Of the following types of diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement away from the midsagital line (as in standing spread legged)?

A

abduction

472
Q

Of the following types of diarthrotic movements, which one is the movement of spreading the fingers?

A

abduction

473
Q

Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of a bone anteriorly in a gliding motion?

A

protraction

474
Q

Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement in which one limb makes circular movements?

A

circumduction

475
Q

Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one occurs when one grinds the teeth?

A

lateral and medial excursion

476
Q

Of the following diarthrotic movements, which ones are movements of the thumb against the fingers and then away from the fingers?

A

opposition and reposition

477
Q

Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of rotating the palm up and down?

A

supination and pronation

478
Q

Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of a bone anteriorly on a horizontal plane and then pulling it back (as in sticking out one’s jaw)?

A

protraction and retraction

479
Q

Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of tilting the soles of the feet inward and then outward?

A

inversion and eversion

480
Q

Of the following diarthrotic movements, which one is a movement of raising and lowering the toes?

A

dorsiflexion and plantar flexion

481
Q

Which one of the following diarthrotic movements moves a bone superiorly?

A

elevation

482
Q

Which of the following diarthrotic movements is shrugging the shoulders?

A

elevation

483
Q

Which of the following diarthrotic movements is the pitcher’s arm in a baseball game?

A

circumduction

484
Q

Which of the following movements occurs in ballet, when dancers point their toes?

A

plantar flexion

485
Q

Which of the following movements occurs when turning a doorknob clockwise or driving a screw into a piece of wood?

A

supination

486
Q

Where is the talocrural joint?

A

ankle

487
Q

The rotator cuff is located in which of the following joints?

A

shoulder

488
Q

The collateral and cruciate ligaments are found in which of the following joints?

A

knee

489
Q

The ulnar collateral ligament and the radial collateral ligament are found in which of the following joints?

A

elbow

490
Q

The iliofemoral ligament is found in which joint?

A

hip

491
Q

Which of the following is a torn ligament or tendon?

A

sprain

492
Q

The classic ACL injury that occurs in sports involves which joint?

A

knee

493
Q

Which of the following conditions is a hereditary disease in which uric acid crystals build up in the joint space and cause pain?

A

gout

494
Q

Which of the following conditions is the most common form of arthritis referred to as “wear-and-tear” arthritis?

A

osteoarthritis

495
Q

Which of the following conditions is a severe form of arthritis that is an autoimmune attack against the joint tissue?

A

rheumatoid arthritis

496
Q

Which of the following is an inflammation of the bursa within a synovial capsule?

A

bursitis

497
Q

Which of the following types of synovial joints is monaxial, in which one bone has a projection that fits into a ring like ligament on the other so that one bone revolves on the other?

A

pivot

498
Q

Anatomy deals with the

A

structure of the human body

499
Q

Physiology deals with the

A

functions of the human body

500
Q

Which of the following statements about anatomy and physiology is true?

A
  • are ancient fields of study.
  • required to understand the body system.
  • Research still expands the concepts of physiology.
501
Q

Most of the terms used in anatomy and physiology originated from which of the following languages?

A

Greek and Latin

502
Q

A scientific method used to avoid psychological bias in medical research is known as

A

the double-blind method

503
Q

Biochemical and molecular explanations provide a better understanding of

A

physiology of organs

504
Q

Knowledge of the structure of body parts helps in understanding their function. Which of the following is an accurate example of that principle?

A

The hand is adapted for grasping.

505
Q

An investigator who conducts an experiment to determine how changes in pH affect the function of enzymes on digestion is most likely to be a(n)

A

physiologist

506
Q

Which of the following statements about physiology is true?

A

Some human body functions are still not clearly understood.

507
Q

Which subdivision of anatomy involves the study of organs that function together?

A

systemic

508
Q

Visual inspection of the liver and stomach during surgery is an example of

A

gross anatomy

509
Q

The study of the microscopic structure of the tissues and organs is called

A

histology

510
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging makes use of

A

radio waves

511
Q

Magnetic resonance imaging might be used to

A
  • distinguish between normal and cancerous tissue
  • assess damage sustained by the heart
  • obtain a sectional view of the brain
512
Q

The smallest structures that are considered to be alive are

A

cells

513
Q

Cells contain structures called _________, which can perform specific activities like energy production, and digestion.

A

organelles

514
Q

To understand the structure and function of an organism we also need to understand the structure and properties of

A

atoms and molecules

515
Q

To understand the structure of complex body systems we start from the structure of the atom and progress to the structure of the organ systems. This concept is called

A

levels of organization

516
Q

Which of the following lists is in the order of increasing levels of complexity?

A

organelles - cells - tissues - organs - organ systems

517
Q

Tissues are formed by a group of ________ that perform similar functions.

A

cells

518
Q

The skin is an example of a(n)

A

organ

519
Q

To maintain life all living organisms depend on

A

food

520
Q

Once digested, food compounds must be

A

absorbed and assimilated

521
Q

Which of the following activities is necessary to maintain life?

A
  • production of energy
  • intake of food compounds
  • growth
522
Q

To avoid extinction of a species, living organisms need to

A

reproduce

523
Q

Which of the following carries necessary compounds like nutrients and hormones throughout the body?

A

blood

524
Q

What organ system is responsible for the production of blood cells?

A

skeletal

525
Q

The ability of an organism to sense changes that take place within its body is an example of

A

responsiveness

526
Q

Homeostasis is defined as the

A

capability of the body to maintain a relatively constant internal environment

527
Q

A blood clot stimulating formation of more blood clotting is an example of

A

positive feedback

528
Q

In a negative feedback mechanism, the response of the effector

A

reverses the activity of the original stimulus

529
Q

Which of the following is most similar to the negative feedback mechanism in human physiology?

A

A toilet tank refills itself after a flush.

530
Q

A ______ section separates the body into right and left portions.

A

sagittal

531
Q

Which of the following is most inferior in location?

A

pelvic cavity

532
Q

The thoracic cavity is separated from the abdominal cavity by the

A

diaphragm

533
Q

Amputation of a foot at the ankle would involve a cut in the ___________ plane.

A

transverse

534
Q

The anatomical arm refers to the part of the upper limb from the

A

shoulder to the elbow.

535
Q

The cavity of the body immediately inferior to the diaphragm is the ______ cavity.

A

abdominal

536
Q

Which of the following organs is retroperitoneal in location?

A

kidney

537
Q

The term “dorsal” means

A

toward the back of the body

538
Q

Which of the following sets of directional terms are most appropriately referred to as opposite?

A

distal and proximal

539
Q

The anatomical term that means “away from the midline of the body” is

A

lateral

540
Q

The shoulder is ________ to the elbow.

A

proximal

541
Q

The three major anatomical planes are

A

sagittal, frontal, and transverse

542
Q

Which of the followings belong to the axial part of the body?

A
  • neck
  • left upper quadrant
  • thoracic region
543
Q

The anterior medial thoracic region is called the _____ region.

A

sternal

544
Q

The groin is also known as the ______ region.

A

inguinal

545
Q

The spleen is in the _______ of the abdomen.

A

left upper quadrant

546
Q

A view of the heart showing the interior of all four chambers would be a ______ section.

A

coronal

547
Q

A ______ plane passes through the breast, hip, and knee on only one side of the body.

A

parasagittal

548
Q

The anterior cubital (cubital fossa) region of the body most resembles what other body region?

A

popliteal

549
Q

The cranial cavity is _______ to the thoracic cavity.

A

superior

550
Q

Most of the esophagus is in the

A

thoracic cavity

551
Q

The axial portion of the body includes

A

the dorsal cavity and the ventral cavity

552
Q

The upper midportion of the abdomen is called the ______ region.

A

epigastric

553
Q

When the body is placed in the anatomical position, which of the following is NOT true?

A

The palms are facing backward.

554
Q

A parietal membrane _______, whereas a visceral membrane _______.

A

lines cavities; covers organs

555
Q

Which of the following organs is located in the thoracic cavity?

A
  • heart
  • trachea
  • thymus gland
556
Q

The thoracic cavity lies where in relationship to the abdominopelvic cavity?

A

superior

557
Q

The membrane on the surface of a lung is called the

A

visceral pleura

558
Q

The dorsal cavity includes which of the following smaller cavities?

A

spinal and cranial

559
Q

The ankle is _______ to the knee.

A

distal

560
Q

The acromial region is the

A

point of the shoulder

561
Q

The _______ contains a portion of the inguinal region.

A

left lower quadrant

562
Q

The urinary bladder is in the ________ region.

A

hypogastric

563
Q

The intertubercular line is the superior border of the ____ region.

A

hypogastric

564
Q

All of the following are retroperitoneal:

A
  • pancreas
  • kidneys
  • adrenal glands
565
Q

The anus is in the ____ region.

A

perineal

566
Q

The carpus is distal to the

A

acromion

567
Q

The concept of anatomical position stipulates all of the following EXCEPT the

A

mouth is closed

568
Q

The breast is in the ______ region.

A

pectoral

569
Q

All of the following are found in the thoracic cavity EXCEPT the

A

meninges

570
Q

Which of the following is the name of an organ system?

A
  • lymphatic
  • circulatory
  • muscular

Anatomy (7 decks)

Brainscape helps you reach your goals faster, through stronger study habits.
© 2024 Bold Learning Solutions. Terms and Conditions