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Anatomy > Exam 1 > Flashcards

Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

The adductor muscles are innervated by the?

A

obturator nerve

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2
Q

What innervates the posterior aspect of the leg (except: short head of biceps femoris)?

A

tibial nerve

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3
Q

What divides into medial and lateral plantar nerves which innervates the plantar aspect of the foot (sole)?

A

tibial nerve

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4
Q

What innervates the anterior lower leg and the dorsum of the foot?

A

deep peroneal nerve

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5
Q

What innervates the lateral aspect of the lower leg (peroneus muscle/tibialis muscle)?

A

superficial peroneal nerve (Fibular nerve)

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6
Q

What innervates the muscle of the anterior aspect of the thigh?

A

femoral nerve

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7
Q

What innervates the adductor muscles of the leg?

A

obturator nerve

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8
Q

Pectinous is innervated by what?

A

femoral and obturator nerves

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9
Q

Adductor Magnus is innervated by what?

A

Tibial and obturator nerves

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10
Q

Gluteus Maximus’ function?

A

chief extensor of the hip joint

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11
Q

Iliopsoas muscle’s function?

A

chief flexor of the hip joint.

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12
Q

How much of the vertebral column is the vertebral disc?

A

20% to25%

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13
Q

Thoracic and sacral are what?

A

Kyphotic

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14
Q

Cervical (3 months) and Lumbar (9-10 months) are what?

A

Lordotic

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15
Q

There are how many cervical spinal segments?

A

8

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16
Q

How many cervical vertebra?

A

7

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17
Q

There are not a vertebral discs between occipital bone - C1, and C1 - C2, what is?

A

hyaline cartilage.

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18
Q

Cervical vertebrae has what?

A

Transverse foramen (only present on cervical vertebrae).

Bifid spinous process.

Larger vertebral foramen.

Smaller bodies.

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19
Q

Thoracic vertebrae have what?

A

Long spinous process with a posteroinferior slope.

Costal facet is a prominent distinction of the body.

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20
Q

Lumbar vertebrae have what?

A

Large, kidney shape bodies.

Small vertebral foramen.

Short spinous processes.

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21
Q

spinal cord terminates in a tip called?

A

Conus Medullaris

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22
Q

Cauda Equina in babys?

A

L3

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23
Q

Cauda Equina in adults

A

L1

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24
Q

Dura mater ends?

A

S2

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25
Q

Formed after the spinal cord ends?

A

Lumbar cistern / dural sac

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26
Q

What is the condensation of the pia mater and the end of the spinal cord?

A

Filum terminate

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27
Q

Iliac Crests are level with?

A

L4

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28
Q

The head of the femur is oriented?

A

medially

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29
Q

Semitendinosus &Semimembranosus:

Origin?

A

Ischial tuberosity.

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30
Q

Semitendinosus & Semimembranosus:

Insertion?

A

Medial to the Tibial Tuberosity in the Pes Anserinus.

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31
Q

Semitendinosus & Semimembranosus:

Innervation?

A

Tibial Nerve.

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32
Q

Semitendinosus & Semimembranosus:

Action?

A

Knee flexion and internal rotation / Hip extensor.

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33
Q

Biceps Femoris:

Origin:

A
  • Short head: Lateral lip of the linea aspera.

* Long head: Ischial tuberosity.

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34
Q

Biceps Femoris:

Insertion:

A

Head of the Fibula (Both heads).

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35
Q

Biceps Femoris:

Innervation:

A

Short Head: Common Peroneal / Fibular Nerve.

Long Head: Tibial Nerve.

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36
Q

Biceps Femoris:

Action:

A

Short Head: Knee flexion and internal rotation.

Long Head: Hip extension / Knee flexion and internal rotation.

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37
Q

The is the largest nerve in the body?

A

The sciatic nerve

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38
Q

Sciatic nerve turns into?

A

tibial and common peroneal nerve

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39
Q

Intermembranous

A

directly from mesenchyme, not from cartilage

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40
Q

Endochondrial

A

from cartilage (Mainly Hyaline).

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41
Q

Vertebral canal has what?

A

Spinal Cord, Meninges, CSF, Correlated vessels.

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42
Q

Intervertebral Foramen has what?

A

Nerve Roots, Dorsal Root Ganglion, Blood Vessels.

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43
Q

Transverse Foramen has what?

A

Vertebral Artery (C6 to Atlas)

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44
Q

Greater Sciatic Foramen has what?

A

Suprapiriformis hiatus, Superior gluteal vessels (Artery and Vein), Superior gluteal nerve.

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45
Q

Infrapiriformis hiatus:

A

Inferior gluteal vessels (Artery and Vein), Inferior gluteal nerve, Internal pudendal Artery and Vein, Pudendal nerve, Sciatic nerve, Posterior femoral cutaneous nerve.

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46
Q

Lesser Sciatic Foramen:

A

Internal pudendal artery and vein, Pudendal nerve, Obturator internus with tendon.

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47
Q

Obturator Foramen:

A

Obturator membrane (covers it), Obturator nerve and vessels.

Acetabular notch → (Obturator Canal)

Acetabular branch of the obturator artery pass through the teres ligament to supply the femur with blood.

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48
Q

Femoral ring:

A 
(Femoral Sheath): 
Femoral artery and vein.
Genitofemoral nerve (femoral branch).
Lymph nodes.
Femoral nerve.
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49
Q

Adductor hiatus:

A

Popliteal artery and vein (previously the femoral artery and vein).

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50
Q

Popliteal Fossa:

A

Popliteal artery and vein, Tibial nerve, Common peroneal nerve (seen laterally / superficial), Popliteal lymph nodes, Genicular Arteries and veins (branches from popliteal artery and vein).

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51
Q

MRI shows white?

A

soft tissue

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52
Q

CT scans and X-rays shows white?

A

bones

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53
Q

CSF is removed from subarachnoid space by puncturing at the level of L3-L4 or L4-L5 (adults; L4-L5 in kids always) in order to enter the lumbar cistern?

A

lumbar puncture

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54
Q

CSF is cloudy with decreased glucose and increased protein, it may indicates?

A

bacterial meningitis

55
Q

Cervical Rib shows triad of disorders like?

A
  • Ischemic muscle pain—due to compression of subclavian artery.
  • Pain in ulnar side of forearm and hand.
  • Palpable mass over the clavicle.
  • May or may not have an additional rib (May or may not be symptomatic).
56
Q

Can’t lift arm above 90 degree?

A

Damage to dorsal scapular nerve (rhomboideus major/minor)

57
Q

Can lift arm above 90 degrees?

A

Damage to long thoracic nerve (serratus anterior).

58
Q

What often happens from radical mastectomy?

A

Damage to long thoracic nerve, can lift arm about 90

59
Q

No pulse in Dorsalis pedis artery can indicate?

A

burger’s disease or diabetes mellitus

60
Q

Synovial fluid can be removed from the _____ joint for diagnostic purposes?

A

bursa of knee

61
Q

______ conjugate can help determine whether not the delivery will be difficult?

A

Diagonal

62
Q

Caudal epidural anesthesia through the where?

A

Sacral haitus

63
Q

Where does caudal epidural for childbirth anesthetized up to?

A

S2

64
Q

______same as lumbar puncture except that sometimes is put in (drugs), instead of taken out (CSF)?

A

Spinal Block

65
Q

IM injections in gluteus maximus are placed in the _____ quadrant?

A

lateral superior

66
Q

Bone marrow can be taken from the_____ of the Inonimate bone?

A

iliac crest

67
Q

_______ can be used as a graft for nerve damage?

A

Sural nerve

68
Q

______ can be used as a graft for coronary bypass surgery?

A

Greater saphenous vein

69
Q

_______ can be used as a graft for tendon reconstrctions?

A

Plantaris muscle and tendon

70
Q

Ricket’s disease is caused by _______ deficiency in children and disturbs the angle of the head of the femur. It is called osteomalasia in adults?

A

vitamin D and calcium

71
Q

________ (vertebral) is when tilting head back, compression of vertebral (basilar) artery leads to fainting.

A

Basilar syndrome

72
Q

_________ (failure of fusion of neural crest / vertebral arches) is caused by folic acid deficiency?

A

Spina Bifida

73
Q

Herniated Disc (nucleus pulposus moves into the vertebral foramen or intervertebral foramen) normally occurs _________ and pinches spinal cord or nerves; this occurs because the intervertebral disc is weaker posteriorly and the posterior longitudinal ligament is thin.

A

posteriolateral

74
Q

_________ of the vertebra causes uncovertebral joints to form tears/herniation in the disc

A

Osteoarthritis

75
Q

_______ is connected to the cervical vertebrae.

A

Cervical rib

76
Q

________ is connected to the lumbar vertebrae.

A

Lumbar rib

77
Q

________ (loss of bone density due to calcium deficiency) can cause hip fracture in elderly people

A

Osteoporosis

78
Q

________ (periotitis and sometimes avulsion of tibial tuberosity) is caused by overextension of the Knee-quadriceps femoris

A

Osgood schlatter disease

79
Q

A fibular fracture can damage the common peroneal nerve which causes foot drop/no dorsiflexion?

A 
common peroneal nerve
deep peroneal nerve
anterior muscle of the lower leg
and no eversion of foot?
(superficial peroneal nerve—peroneus longus and brevis)
80
Q

Positive waddle gait/positive trendelenberg is caused by the damage to the ______.

A

superior gluteal nerve (gluteus medius and gluteus minumus, which keep pelvis level)

81
Q

________ of the hip is common in newborns (especially females) and can be fixed with a splint/harness

A

Congenital dislocation

82
Q

Mid-shaft fractures to the tibia/fibula are common in ______

A

skiers (skier’s fracture)

83
Q

_________ injuries causes a weakened flexion at the hip and extension of the leg (becauses quadriceps femoris and Sartorius).

A

Femoral nerve

84
Q

_________ injuries causes weakened adduction of the leg

A

Obturator nerve

85
Q

________ (rhomboid and serratus muscles) causes the muscles to buldge out resulting in a condition called Winged Scapula.

A

Dorsal scapular nerve injuries

86
Q

Sciatic nerve injuries (complete)?

A

it causes loss of flexion of the leg because the hip is impared, and foot/ankle movements are lost

87
Q

Injuries to the medial aspect of the gluteus maximus can cause damage to?

A

the branches of the tibial nerve that innervates the hamstrings

88
Q

Tibial nerve injuries causes?

A

paralysis of the flexors of the leg and intrinsic muscles of the foot (loss of plantar flexion and toe flexion).

89
Q

Greater sciatic foramen contains?

A

Sciatic nerve, piriformis muscle

90
Q

Lesser Sciatic foramen contains?

A

Pudental nerve, int. pudendal artery, int. pudendal artery, nerve to the obturator internus

91
Q

Flexion of halus longs requires?

A

Deep perineal nerve

92
Q

extension is what part of foot?

A

Dorsal

93
Q

CT is?

A

3D X ray

94
Q

Functional MRI measures?

A

blood oxygen in specific areas of the brain

95
Q

Diffusion-weighted MRI (DWI)?

A

thermally driven translational movement of water and small molecules within tissues

96
Q

Perfusion-weighted MRI (PWI)?

A

the arrival of an injected contrast medium

97
Q

PET?

A

assess functional blood flow to tissues

98
Q

Color-coded duplex (CCD)?

A

uses color-coding to superimpose flow velocities

99
Q

Cleidocranial dysostosis/dysplasia (CCD)?

A

rare autosomal inherited disorder, RUNX2(CBFA1) is the only gene associated with CCD

100
Q

Pagets disease?

A

disorder that involves abnormal bone destruction and regrowth, which results in deformit

101
Q

Achondroplasia?

A

disorder of bone growth that causes the most common type of dwarfism

102
Q

Osteophyte?

A

as bone spurs or parrot beak

103
Q

Contents of sub-occipital triangle?

A

vertebral artery, suboccipital nerve (dorsal rami of C1), suboccipital plexus of veins

104
Q

Longest Diameter?

A

Transverse

105
Q

True conjugate?

A

diagonal -1.5

106
Q

Diagonal?

A

determines birth route

107
Q

Straight conjugate?

A

9.5-10

108
Q

dorsi flexion?

A

deep perineal

109
Q

Lumbar Plexus?

A

T12-L4, femoral and obbutator nerve

110
Q

Sacral Plexus?

A

L4-S3, posterior lower leg

111
Q

Adductor magnus innervation?

A

Obturator and Tibial nerve

112
Q

Plantar Flexion?

A

Tibial nerve, and plantar nerve

113
Q

The skin of the anterior leg region is innervated by the?

A

Saphenous nerve medially and by the aural nerve laterally

114
Q

Patients with obturator nerve injury have possible numbness and pain radiating to their inner thigh. Adduction thigh weakness can occur

A

obturator nerve injury

115
Q

Weakness of the knee or leg

A

femoral nerve injury

116
Q

Last rib connected to?

A

T12

117
Q

Osteoblast (bone cells)

Osteoblast becomes?

A

Osteocyte

118
Q

Ligamenta flava-

A

yellow in color

119
Q

Day 18 of embryonic life

A

notochord gives signal to ectorderm to form neopore

120
Q

Cranial neupord-24 day

A

if not babe born with no head (top part)

121
Q

Caudal neupord-26 day

A

if not baby is born with spina bifida occulta (vertebral arches do not come together) folic acid deficiency in mother might be linked to this birth defect

122
Q

L3-L4=

A

L4 nerve pinched

123
Q

C1-C2=

A

C1

124
Q

T8-T9=

A

T9

125
Q

Breech position?

A

not by head, by but

126
Q

Locking the knee?

A

5-10% medial rotation

127
Q

Tensor fascia lata inn.

A

superior gluteal nerve (L4-L5).

128
Q

Tensor fascia lata function

A

Abduction, medial rotation and flexion

of the thigh, protects the knee joint.

129
Q

they are strongest pronator of the foot.

A

Peroneus brevis

130
Q

pectineus is the only adductor muscle that is innervated by the ________.

A

femoral nerve

131
Q

Retina oppathy-

Nerphorpety-

A

diatbetes, eye, kidney

132
Q

Psoas innveration

A

lumbar plexus (L1-L3)

133
Q

Iliacus innveration

A

femoral nerve (L2-L4)

134
Q

Foot drop** anterior leg innervated by

A

deep peroneal Nerve

Anatomy (13 decks)

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