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Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

what is rational antimicrobial use?

A

the use of antimicrobial agents aimed at maximizing therapeutic efficacy while minimizing risks associated with development of resistance

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2
Q

what are the 3 ways to optimize dosage regimens?

A
  1. shoot high
  2. shoot regular
  3. shoot fast
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3
Q

what does it mean to shoot high

A

use the highest possible dose, to enhance therapeutic efficacy and prevent resistant mutants

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4
Q

what does it mean to shoot regular?

A

administer the drug at regular intervals

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5
Q

what does it mean to shoot fast?

A

treat the earliest and for the shortest time possible

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6
Q

what is antimicrobial stewardship?

A

coordinated interventions designed to improve and measure the appropriate use of antimicrobials by promoting the selection of the optimal antimicrobial drug regimen, dose, duration of therapy, and route of administration.

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7
Q

the discipline concerned with preventing nosocomial or healthcare-associated infection

A

Hospital infection control

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8
Q

what are 3 management tools every veterinary clinic should posses?

A
  1. formal infection control program
  2. written manual
  3. infection control practitioner
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9
Q

how long should soap be in contact with your hand before rinsing?

A

minimum 20s

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10
Q

what does AST stand for

A

antimicrobial susceptibility testing

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11
Q

why do we need AST

A
  1. guidance to antimicrobial therapy
  2. surveillance of antimicrobial resistance
  3. antimicrobial drug discovery
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12
Q

what are the 2 methods for AST

A
  1. Dilution method

2. agar diffusion method

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13
Q

what are thession E-test 2 dillution methods for AST

A
  1. broth dilution tests (quantitative)

2. agar dilution tests (quantitative)

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14
Q

what are the 2 agar diffusion methods of AST

A
  1. disk/tablet diffusion test

2. gradient difffu

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15
Q

Explain what MIC is

A

Minimum inhibitory concentration

the lowest concentration that inhibits complete

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16
Q

Explain what MBC is

A

Minimum bactericidal concentration.

the lowest concentration that kills the test strain

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17
Q

when is agar dilution primarily used

A

research purposes like when many strains have to be tested with one drug

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18
Q

What is a breakpoint?

A

a drug specific value to interpret the results of susceptibility testing and determine if an antibacterial is potentiall useful in the treatment of bacterial infection

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19
Q

what is the susceptible strain in AST

A

the strain is inhibited at blood concentrations achieved by standard dosage of the drug

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20
Q

what is the intermediate strain in AST

A

clinical efficacy is possible if the strain infects body sites where the drug concentrates or if the dosage can be increased compared to standard dosage

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21
Q

what is the resistant strain in AST

A

the strain is not inhibited at blood concentrations achieved by standard dosage of the drug

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22
Q

what are the 3 most frequent bacterial contaminants in AST

A

coagulase-negative staphyilococci, bacillus spp., Enterococci

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23
Q

why are surrogate antimicrobials used in AST

A

to predict susceptibility to other drugs belonging to the same class.

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24
Q

what are the two drugs used for detection of MRSA/MRSP

A

oxacillin and cefoxitin

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25
Q

what is the MRSA expert rule?

A

strains resistant to oxacillin/cefoxitin should be regarded as resistant to all B-lactams irrespective of their susceptibility to penicillins and cephalosporins in the report

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26
Q

why are oxacillin and cefoxitin used for the detection of MRSA/MRSP

A

because the methicillin resistance gene mecA is poorly expressed in laboratory media

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27
Q

ESBLs confer resistance to third generation cephalosporins shuch as ______, ______, and ______

A

cefpodoxime, cefotaxime, ceftazidime

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28
Q

name the 2 superbugs that infect both hospitals and the cummunity

A

Meticillin-resistant S. aureus (MRSA) and ESBL-producing E.coli

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29
Q

What is intrinsic resistance

A

resistance due to structural or functional traits present in all members of a given bacterial species or group

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30
Q

name the two ways bacteria acquire resistance?

A

mutation and horizontal gene transfer

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31
Q

what are the 3 mechanisms in which horizontal gene transfer occures in bacteria

A
  1. transformation (uptake of free DNA)
  2. transduction (transfer mediated by phage delivery)
  3. conjugation (transfer cell to cell contact)
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32
Q

what is the resistant gene in MRSA

A

mecA

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33
Q

what is the penicillin binding protein of mecA

A

PBP2A

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34
Q

which type of antibiotics does MRSA have a low affinity for

A

B-lactams (penicilins and cephalosporins)

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35
Q

most common strain of MRSA in companion animals

A

CC22

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36
Q

Most common strain of MRSA in horses and pigs

A

CC398

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37
Q

Most common strain of MRSAQ in just horse=

A

cc8

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38
Q

Most common strain of MRSA in just swine

A

CC9

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39
Q

what is MRSP

A

Methicillin Resistant Staphylococcus Pseudintermedius; it is a S. Pseudintermedius that has acquired mecA

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40
Q

what is ESBL

A

Extended Spectrum Beta Lactamase; it is an enzyme hydrolizing/inactivating most B-lactams produced by Gram Negative Bacteria

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41
Q

what are teh 3 main classes of ESBLs

A

CTX-M
SHV
TEM

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42
Q

what is the most common type of ESBL in animals

A

CTX-M-1

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43
Q

Name a common false ESBL found in europe

A

CMY-2

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44
Q

what is virology

A

the study of viruses and viral diseases

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45
Q

what is a virologist

A

someone who studies viruses

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46
Q

T/F viruses are living entities

A

F

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47
Q

Viruses contain a _____ Genome surrounded by a _______ coat

A 
Nucleic acid (DNA or RNA); 
Proteiin coat (Capsid)
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48
Q

T/F Viruses contain mitochondria but do not have golgi apparatuses

A

F, no organelles

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49
Q

Where do viruses get their proteins and energy

A

host cell, cannot make on own

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50
Q

T/F viruses are facultative intracellular parasites

A

F obligate intracellular parasites

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51
Q

T/F viruses do not have the genetic capability to multiply by Division

A

T

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52
Q

What is a capsid

A

the protein shell of a virus that envelopes the viral nucleic acid/genome

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53
Q

what is the capsid of a virus made of

A

capsomeres held together by non-covalent bonds

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54
Q

what is a nucleocapsid?

A

capsid+DNA/RNA

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55
Q

some viruses have an additional layer that covers the capsid known as

A

The Lipid Envelope

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56
Q

what is the lipid envelope made of?

A

lipid bilayer from host cell

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57
Q

what are present on the surface of the envelope that often have spike like appearance

A

Glycoproteins

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58
Q

Term for virus that have only a protein capsid enclosing nucleic acid, no lipid envelope present:

A

Naked Viruses/ Non-Enclosed Viruses

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59
Q

term for viruses that have an additional lipid layer enclosing the protein capsid enclosing Nucleic Acid

A

Enveloped Viruses

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60
Q

what is pleomorphism

A

the ability of some viruses to alter their shape and size

61
Q

what are the 6 stages of virus replication

A
  1. Attachment
  2. penetration
  3. uncoating
  4. synthesis of viral nucleic acid and protein
  5. Assembly and maturation
  6. release in large numbers
62
Q

what are the 4 outcomes of the host cell after viral infection

A
  1. cell death
  2. No apparent change
  3. transformation of cell to malignant cell
  4. fusion of cells
63
Q

what are the 3 types of cell death

A
  1. lysis
  2. alteration cell membrane
  3. apoptosis
64
Q

what is the name of the body charged with the task of developing, refining, and maintaining a universal virus taxonomy

A

The international committee on taxonomy of viruses (ICTV)

65
Q

what are the 7 types of viral transmission

A
  1. direct contact
  2. indirect contact
  3. common vehicle
  4. Airborne Transmission
  5. Vector borne transmission
  6. zoonotic transmission
  7. vertical transmission
66
Q

type of viral transmission where animal becomes infected by physical contact with host

A

direct contact transmission

67
Q

tye of viral transmission where animal becomes infected by fomites

A

indirect contact transmission

68
Q

type of viral transmission where animal becomes infected by eating or drinking contaminated food

A

common-Vehicle transmission

69
Q

type of viral transmission where infection if transferred from mother to embryo, fetus, or newborn before, during, or after parturition

A

vertical transmission

70
Q

3 ways we can grossly diagnose viral infections

A
  1. clinical sighns
  2. necropsy
  3. histopathology
71
Q

2 ways we can diagnose viral infections by cultivation

A
  1. isolation of viruses in cells/tissue culture

2. inoculation in eggs

72
Q

the detection of viral antigen or host antibody against virus is known as

A

serology

73
Q

what does ELISA stand for

A

Enzyme linked immunosorbent assay

74
Q

name the 2 serologic techniques use dto detect a virus

A
  1. fluorescent antibody staininog

2. immunohistochemical staining

75
Q

what technique do we use to detect the nucleic acids of viruses

A

PCR

76
Q

what are the 3 ways we can treat viruses

A
  1. antiviral drugs
  2. immune system stimulation
  3. synthesize antibodies or administration of natural antiserum
77
Q

_______ are a class of proteins that have antiviral effects and modulate functions of the immune system

A

interferons

78
Q

how do we prevent viral infections

A
  1. vaccinate
  2. proper hygiene/sanitation
  3. eliminate arthropod vectors
  4. quarantine and culling
79
Q

what are the 3 types of vaccines we use to vaccinate against viruses

A
  1. live-attenuated viruses vaccines
  2. Non-Replicating virus vaccines
  3. vaccines produced by recombinant DNA and related technologies
80
Q

Type of management system where animal houses are cleaned between batches of animals

A

all in, all out

81
Q

Name one type of biological control used to eliminate viruses

A

predatory fish

82
Q

name one type of chemical control used to eliminate vioruses

A

use of insecticides

83
Q

what is pathogenicity

A

the ability of a virus to cause disease in a host

84
Q

what is a pathogen

A

virus that causes disease

85
Q

what is pathogenesis

A

the mechanism of development of a disease

86
Q

what is virulence?

A

relative measure of the degree of pathogenicity of the infecting virus

87
Q

what is avirulent?

A

not virulent/ not harmful to host

88
Q

T/F virulence is an absolute property

A

F, Is not absolute

89
Q

5 Virulence factors related to virus

A
  1. genetic variation of virus
  2. route of entry of virus in host
  3. affinity of virus to host organs
  4. dose of infection
    immuno evasion
90
Q

4 Virulence Factors related to host

A
  1. host species
  2. host immunity
  3. host physiological factors
  4. fever
91
Q

2 virulence factors related to the outcome of tug of war

A

environment and dual infections

92
Q

how do we measure virulence

A

lethal dose 50 (LD50)

93
Q

what is LD50

A

the dose of the virus required to cause deathin 50% of animals

94
Q

Name some routs of entry for viruses to enter animal

A
  1. cut in skin
  2. Mucous membrane
  3. GI tract
  4. Respiratory tract
95
Q

how does a virus spread once inside the host

A
  1. local spread of virus on epithelial surface
  2. from local infection of epithelia to subepithelial invasion and lymphatic spread
  3. to blood stream and then spread via blood
96
Q

what does viremia mean

A

presence of virus in blood

97
Q

what is the difference between primary and secondary viremia?

A

Primary= initial entry of virus into blood

Secondary= virus has replicated in organs and once more entered into circulation

98
Q

what is a disseminated infection?

A

infection spreads beyond the primary site of infection

99
Q

what is systemic infection

A

if a number of organs or tissues are infected

100
Q

what are the 3 ways viruses are spread through nerves

A
  1. through peripheral nerves
  2. through receptor neurons in the nasal epithelium
  3. BBB and infect CNS
101
Q

what is a neurotropic virus

A

viruses that can infect neural cells. infection may occur by neural or hematogenous sporead

102
Q

what is a neuroinvasive virus

A

viruses that enter the CNS after infection

103
Q

what is a neurovirulent virus

A

viruses that cause disease of nervous tissue, manifested by neurological symptoms and often death

104
Q

what is tropism

A

the specificity of a virus for a particular host tissue

105
Q

what are pantropic viruses

A

can replicate in more than one host organ

106
Q

what are the 5 ways that viruses interact with the host cell

A
  1. inhibition of host cell nucleic acid synthesis
  2. inhibition fo host cell RNA synthesis
  3. inhibition of host cell protein synthesis
  4. cytopathic effects of toxic viral proteins
  5. interference with cellular membrane function
107
Q

what is an oncoviruse

A

a virus that can cause cancer

108
Q

type of infection usually characterized by intensive shedding over a short period of time

A

acute infection

109
Q

type of infection characterized by shedding at lower titers over months or years

A

persistent infections

110
Q

what is a vesicle

A

fluid filled sac

111
Q

The name for benign skin growths that appear when a virus infects the top layer of the skin

A

Warts

112
Q

what is erythema

A

reddening of the skin

113
Q

a viral infection of the respiratory tract causes _____

A

inflammation, obstruction of air passages, and hypoxia and respiratory distress

114
Q

when the CNS is infected with a virus what 4 side effects are typically seen?

A
  1. lytic infections of neurons
    (destruction)
  2. neuronal necrosis (death of body tissue)
  3. neuronophagia (killing of neuronal cells by phagocytic cells)
  4. perivascular cuffing (inflammatory cells around blood vessels in CNS)
115
Q

Viral infections of the hemopoietic system cause what 2 things

A
  1. damage to endothelium (hemorrhages)

2. clots form throughout body

116
Q

viral infection of the fetus are known as ______

A

Teratogenic viruses

117
Q

how do prokaryotic cell replicate

A

binary fission

118
Q

how do eukaryotic cells replicate

A

mitosis

119
Q

How do you name Bacteria?

A

Genus and species

Genus: capitialized and italicized
species: italicized
subspecies: italicized
Serovar: not italicized, Capitalized

120
Q

what is included in the nucleoide of bacteria?

A

DNA, RNA, NAPs, DNA gyrase, topoisomerase 1

121
Q

T/F the plasmid of a bacterial cell is not part of the nucleoid

A

T

122
Q

what is the importance of the plasmid

A

contains genes for resistance of virulence factors

123
Q

how do bacterial plasmids transmit their genes

A

conjugation

124
Q

what is the importance of the bacterial envelope

A

provides protection, energy, and adhesion

125
Q

what is the importance of the bacterial capsule

A

helps bacteria evade immune system, tolerance to drugs

126
Q

Gram Negative bacteria will stain ______ whereas gram positive bacteria will stain ______.

A

Pink; Purple

127
Q

what is the LPS present in the gram negative cell wall

A

endotoxin

128
Q

T/F gram positive bacteria contain lipoteichoic acid and a thick peptidoglycan layer

A

T

129
Q

what does monotrichous mean?

A

singular flagella

130
Q

what is the term for multiple polarized flagella

A

lephotrichous

131
Q

what is the term for multiple flagella spread around the entire organism?

A

peritrichous

132
Q

what is the term fro two flagella polorized at opposite ends

A

amphitrichous

133
Q

what is the difference between antimicrobial and antibiotic?

A

antimicrobial is any substance that kills or inhibits the growth of microorganisms

antibiotics- any substance produced by a microorganism that kills or inhibits the growth of other microorganisms

134
Q

T/F all antimicrobials are antibiotics, but all antibiotics are antimicrobials

A

F, all antibiotics are antimicrobials but not all antimicrobials are antibiotics

135
Q

what are 3 ways we can classify antimicrobials

A
  1. mode of action
  2. effect on bacteria
  3. spectrum
136
Q

which category of drugs are good against gram + cocci? Bad?

A

Penicillin

Metronidazole

137
Q

Which category of drugs are good against gram - Rods? Bad?

A

G

  1. amoxicillin + CA
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. Sulfonamides
  4. Aminoglycosides
  5. Fluroquinolones

B

  1. Metronidazole
  2. Penicillin
  3. Macrolides
138
Q

which category of drugs are good against Staphylococci? Bad?

A

G

  1. Amoxicillin + CA
  2. Cephalosporins
  3. sulfonamides
  4. aminoglycosides
  5. Fluroquinolones

B

  1. Metronidazole
  2. penicillin
139
Q

which category of drugs are good against Anaerobes? Bad?

A

G

  1. Metronidazole
  2. Penicillin

B
Aminoglycosides

140
Q

T/F there are more pathogenic bacteria than non-pathogenic bacteria

A

F

141
Q

what is the MoA of B-lactams

A

inhibit cell wall synthesis

142
Q

what are the 5 ways antibacterial agents are classified

A
  1. chemical structure
  2. origin
  3. effect on bacteria
  4. spectrum of activity
  5. mode of action
143
Q

Name the 3 types of B-lactams discussed

A
  1. penicilins
  2. carbapenems
  3. Cephalosporins
144
Q

Bactericidal drugs _____ whereas bacteriostatc drugs ________

A

kill; inhibit growth

145
Q

what is co-resistance

A

refers to the co-existance of multiple genes or mutations encoding resistance to different drugs within the same strain or genetic element

146
Q

what is co-selection

A

the selection of multiple resistance genes when one of these genes is selected

147
Q

what is commensalism

A

good for one, no effect on other

148
Q

two types of pathogenic organisms

A
  1. Facultative pathogenic

2. obligate pathogenic

PID (9 decks)

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