Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

definition of microbiology

A

the study of small life

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2
Q

6 benefits of microbes & 2 harmful microbes

A

probiotics, fermentation, antibiotics, vaccines, vitamins, enzymes; disease and food spoilage

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3
Q

the first microscope was invented by

A

Zacharias Janssen

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4
Q

the first person to publish a drawing of a microorganism

A

Robert Hooke

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5
Q

the first person to observe and describe protozoa, bacteria, RBC, sperm

A

Anton van Leeuwenhoek

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6
Q

scanning electron microscope (SEM) shows

A

3D image, surface, coated with gold, mounted

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7
Q

transmission electron microscope (TEM) shows

A

cross section, microtone

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8
Q

who started the spontaneous generation idea & what were his thoughts

A

Aristotle; dew, putrid matter, hay, air

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9
Q

abiogenesis definition

A

theory of how life started on earth; arose naturally from non-living matter: energy from sun, molecules in water, amino acids (protocell)

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10
Q

Louis Pasteur accomplishments

A

disproved spontaneous generation, fermentation, germ theory of disease, pasteurization, rabies vaccine, fermentation, anthrax vaccine

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11
Q

who was the first person to be vaccinated against rabies

A

Joseph Meister

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12
Q

Robert Koch accomplishments (father of micro)

A

tuberculosis, anthrax, cholera, germ theory

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13
Q

Koch’s Postulates

A
  1. sick dead mouse, culture disease, view under microscope
  2. inject healthy mouse
  3. sick dead mouse, culture disease
  4. view exact same pathogen under microscope
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14
Q

Issues with Koch’s 4 Postulates

A
  1. asymptomatic carriers
  2. certain things can’t grow in culture
  3. immunity
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15
Q

who invented antiseptic (carbolic acid) surgery techniques

A

Joseph Lister

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16
Q

who used cowpox as a vaccine against smallpox and is considered father of immunology

A

Edward Jenner

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17
Q

who first discovered zoonosis/pathology

A

Rudolf Virchow

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18
Q

who discovered lysozymes and invented penicillin

A

Alexander Fleming

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19
Q

who first described phagocytosis

A

Elie Metchnikoff

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20
Q

who worked with trypanosomes (protozoans) to discover Malta Fever and Chagas Disease

A

David Bruce

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21
Q

which 3 elements are found in all macromolecules

A

C, H, O

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22
Q

who started binomial nomenclature (2 kingdoms)

A

Carl Linnaeus

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23
Q

how to write genus and species

A

Genus species or G. species (underlined or italicized when printed)

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24
Q

who discovered archaea

A

Carl Woese

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25
Q

what are the 3 domains

A

bacteria, archaea, eukarya

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26
Q

prokaryote characteristics

A

small, flagella, glycocalyx, complex cell wall, binary fission

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27
Q

eukaryote characteristics

A

large, nucleus, organelles, simple cell wall, sterols/carbs, cytoskeleton, mitosis, meiosis

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28
Q

domain archaea characteristics

A

prokaryotes, no pathogenic ones (i.e.: love methane, salt, high temps.)

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29
Q

domain bacteria characteristics

A

prokaryotes, unicellular, peptidoglycan in cell wall

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30
Q

domain eukarya include

A

protozoa, helminths, fungi, algae, slime mold, animals, plants

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31
Q

ways to identify parasites

A

morphology, molecular techniques, host specificity, geographical location, tissue trophism

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32
Q

ways to identify viruses

A

observation with TEM, culturing, fluorescent antibody staining, ELISA, PCR

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33
Q

ways to identify bacteria

A

staining, biochemical (ELISA), serology (agglutination), phage typing, fatty acid profiles, nucleic acid base testing (PCR, DNA hybridization), mass spectrometry

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34
Q

Bloom’s Taxonomy

A

cognitive (knowing), affective (feeling), psychomotor (doing)

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35
Q

One Health model encompasses

A

humans, animals, ecosystem

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36
Q

how to learn about relationships between living things

A

fossil records, comparative homologies, DNA/RNA sequencing

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37
Q

definition of systematics/phylogeny

A

study of evolutionary history of living organism

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38
Q

definition of molecular biology

A

study of processes of replication, transcription, translation, and cell function

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39
Q

who described bacterial transformation

A

Frederick Griffith

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40
Q

what is bacterial transformation

A

when bacterial cell dies, it releases it’s components that can then be taken up by a similar cell which will incorporate it

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41
Q

who described DNA as the genetic material

A

Avery, MacLeod, and McCarty

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42
Q

who described DNA double helix structure

A

Watson & Crick

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43
Q

who first described base pairing

A

Chargaff

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44
Q

what are the base pairs in DNA

A

A=T, G=C

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45
Q

what make up a nucleotide

A

sugar, phosphate (attached to 5’), nitrogenous base (attached to 1’)

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46
Q

purine bases & shape

A

A, G; double ring

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47
Q

pyrimidine bases & shape

A

T, C, U; single ring

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48
Q

what are the base pairs in RNA

A

A=U, G=C

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49
Q

what is a phosphodiester bond

A

phosphate group links 2 sugars

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50
Q

structure of the DNA strand

A

double stranded (2 complimentary, 2 antiparallel), helical (10 base pairs/turn), sugar-phosphate backbone, bases on the inside, stabilized by H bonds)

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51
Q

DNA bidirectional replication process

A

DNA helicase separates 2 parental strands, replication bubble and fork are made and act as template strands, new nucleotides base pair up starting at the primer, leading strand made, lagging strand & Okazaki fragments made then put back together = 2 new double helices

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52
Q

central dogma of molecular biology

A

DNA (transcription) -> RNA (translation) -> protein

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53
Q

3 stages of transcription

A

initiation, elongation, termination

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54
Q

definition of introns

A

transcribed but not translated

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55
Q

definition of exons

A

coding sequence found in mature mRNA

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56
Q

definition of codons

A

groups of 3 nucleotide bases

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57
Q

degenerate means

A

more than one codon can specify the same amino acid

58
Q

what are the 3 stop codons

A

UAA, UAG, UGA

59
Q

what is the start codon and what does it define

A

AUG; reading frame

60
Q

definition of an anticodon

A

allows binding of tRNA to mRNA codon

61
Q

RNA processing in eukaryotic cells

A

pre mRNA spliced to remove introns and exons brought together = mature mRNA

62
Q

ICZN stands for ______ ; what is it’s function

A

International Code of Zoological Nomenclature; make sure every animal has a unique and universally accepted scientific name

63
Q

definition of a genome

A

all of a living thing’s genetic material (mitochondrial DNA, plasmids, plastids)

64
Q

mitochondria function

A

metabolize carbs and fatty acids to produce energy (ATP)

65
Q

mitochondria history

A

prokaryotic origin: endosymbiotic bacteria which became organelles during evolution

66
Q

plasmids

A

small, circular, double stranded DNA molecule naturally existing in bacteria that give it antibiotic resistance. they can also replicate independently

67
Q

plastids

A

double membrane organelle in plants and algae, manufacture and store chemical compounds, endosymbiosis, used as drug targets for chemo i.e.: malaria

68
Q

horizontal gene transfer definition

A

host to host transfer of genetic material; plasmids do this

69
Q

serial endosymbiosis coined by who and what is the process

A

Lynn Margulis; primary= cyanobacterium existed but then a heterotrophic eukaryote engulfed it and it became red and green algae; secondary= red and green algae were engulfed by other eukaryotes to become even more things

70
Q

Southern Blotting

A

DNA hybridization

71
Q

Northern Blotting

A

RNA hybridization

72
Q

Western Blotting

A

identify specific proteins from a mixture

73
Q

PCR components

A

template DNA, oligonucleotide primers (complimentary single stranded DNA), DNTP (A, T, G, C), Taq polymerase (heat stable), correct conditions (i.e.: buffers)

74
Q

How PCR works

A

amplification of specific DNA fragments using repeated heating & cooling (steps: denature, anneal, elongation) can run multiple cycles and get TONS of copies

75
Q

recombinant DNA technology

A

DNA molecules from different species + insertion into a host = new genetic combinations (cloning with plasmid vector)

76
Q

RT-PCR

A

Reverse Transcription PCR; detects RNA expression using 2 steps

77
Q

Real Time PCR

A

Quantitative PCR; monitors amplification of a targeted DNA molecule in real time

78
Q

e-DNA

A

environmental DNA, metagenomics, next generation sequencing, concept not a technique, i.e.: water and soil samples

79
Q

definition of immunity

A

ability of the body to ward off disease through defense mechanisms

80
Q

definition of a pathogen

A

bacteria, virus, or microorganism that causes disease

81
Q

what is the immune system

A

network of cells, tissues, and organs to protect the body from infection

82
Q

3 types of immune responses

A

innate, adaptive, memory

83
Q

innate immune response

A

present at birth, occurs immediately, prevent entry, non-specific, no antibodies

84
Q

adaptive immune response (memory)

A

remember previous innate assault and protect when encountered a second time; stronger and faster response; also called Anamnestic response

85
Q

immune memory

A

saving mature adaptive immune cells for later use

86
Q

how does the immune system prevent disease

A

prevent entry, neutralize & remove after entry, destroy body’s own cells that have changed (i.e.: cancer)

87
Q

3 cellular components of the immune system

A

bone marrow, myeloid cells, & lymphoid cells

88
Q

bone marrow contains

A

stem cells

89
Q

myeloid cells include

A

eos, baso, mono, mast, dendritic, macrophages

90
Q

lymphoid cells include

A

B cells, T cells, NK (natural killer) cells

91
Q

origin of immune system components

A

hematopoietic stem cell -> branched down

92
Q

primary lymphoid organs

A

bone marrow, thymus (gland)

93
Q

secondary lymphoid organs

A

lymph node, spleen, mucosa

94
Q

1st line of defense

A

skin, mucous membranes, tears, saliva, gastric acid, mucus, hair, poop, vomit, ear wax, normal microbiota

95
Q

2nd line of defense

A

phagocytes (neutro, eosin, mono, etc.), inflammation, fever, antimicrobial substances

96
Q

granulocytes mean ______ ; examples

A

presence of granules in the cytoplasm; i.e.: neutro, eosin, baso, mast

97
Q

agranulocytes mean _______ ; examples

A

no granules; i.e.: lymph, mono

98
Q

which 2 granulocytes are phagocytes

A

neutrophils & eosinophils

99
Q

which agranulocyte matures into a macrophage in tissues

100
Q

macrophage in liver

A

Kupffer cell

101
Q

macrophage in skin

A

Langerhan and dendritic

102
Q

macrophage in brain

103
Q

macrophage in bone

A

osteoclast

104
Q

macrophage in tissue

A

histiocyte

105
Q

cytotoxic T cells function & examples

A

kill infected cells by using perforin & granzymes; natural killer T cell & gamma T cells

106
Q

helper T cells

A

help T and B cells

107
Q

B cells

A

produce antibodies

108
Q

phagocytosis definition and examples

A

process of ingestion of microorganisms, cellular debris, and nutrients; i.e.: neutro, eosin, mono, macrophages

109
Q

definition of opsonization

A

microbe marked for destruction by phagocytes

110
Q

6 steps of phagocytosis

A

opsonization, chemotaxis, adherence, ingestion, digestion, elimination

111
Q

complement purpose and 3 pathways

A

innate, group of 30+ proteins that start a cascade to destroy microbes via enhanced phagocytosis, inflammation, or MAC; classical, alternate, & Lectin

112
Q

MAC

A

Membrane Attack Complex, cytolysis; C5-C9; punches hole in membrane which causes cell death

113
Q

iron binding proteins

A

bind iron tightly making it unavailable for bacteria to use

114
Q

3 types of interferons

A

alpha, beta, gamma

115
Q

types of iron binding proteins

A

transferrin, lactoferrin, ferritin, and hemoglobin

116
Q

siderophores

A

within bacteria, sequester iron from the body

117
Q

*what are interferons & examples

A

signaling proteins (cytokines) released by host cells in response to infection ; interleukin, tumor necrosis factor

118
Q

*humoral response pathway

A

B cells bind to antigen -> proliferate -> clone -> plasma cells -> secrete antibodies into circulation (extracellular)

119
Q

*cell mediated response

A

antigen present -> T cell binds to MHC -> cytokines released -> T helper cells activated -> macrophages activated -> cytotoxic T cells activated to lyse pathogen (intracellular & no antibodies used)

120
Q

*antigen definition

A

any substance that causes the immune system to produce antibodies against it

121
Q

*epitope definition

A

specific piece of an antigen that an antibody binds to

122
Q

*hapten purpose & example

A

can’t induce an antibody by itself because small so attaches a carrier molecule to help induce i.e.: Penicillin allergy

123
Q

*antibody definition & function

A

proteins, immunoglobulins, produced by plasma cell

124
Q

*antibody structure

A

Y shape, 2 identical antigen binding sites, 2 identical heavy chains, 2 identical light chains, constant region, variable region

125
Q

*Fc region definition & function

A

fragment crystallized, tail of constant region on an antibody, determines the class of it, interacts with cell surface receptors, can bind with complement or macrophage

126
Q

*which immunoglobulin is the first responder

127
Q

*which immunoglobulin is placental transfer

128
Q

*MHC definition and function

A

Major Histocompatibility Complex; bind to foreign antigens & present them to T cells ON THE OUTSIDE, determines compatibility for organ transplant

129
Q

*MHC details

A

multiple genes, expression is codominant, multiple variants

130
Q

*Class I MHC

A

present in all nucleated cells; CD8 (cytotoxic T cell)

131
Q

*Class II MHC

A

present only on antigen presenting cells; CD4 (helper T cell)

132
Q

*2 types of T Lymphocytes

A

T helper cells (bind to class II) & T cytotoxic cells (bind to class I)

133
Q

*APC definition & function & examples

A

antigen presenting cells; present antigens to T cells; macrophage, B cells, dendritic, Langerhans

134
Q

*classical pathway activated when

A

antibodies bind to the surface of a microbe

135
Q

*Lectin pathway activated when

A

carbs, mannose

136
Q

*alternative pathway activated when

A

carbs, 80-90%

137
Q

*agglutination significance for binding antibodies

A

reduces number of infectious units to deal with in bacteria

138
Q

*neutralization significance for binding antibodies

A

blocks adhesions of bacteria & viruses to mucosa, blocks attachment of toxins

139
Q

*naturally acquired adaptive immunity (active)

A

antigens enter -> body makes antibodies & lymphocytes

140
Q

*naturally acquired adaptive immunity (passive)

A

body has antibodies from placenta or milk

141
Q

*artificially acquired adaptive immunity (active)

A

antigens enter through vaccine -> body makes antibodies & lymphocytes

142
Q

*artificially acquired adaptive immunity (passive)

A

preformed antibodies in serum injected