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Micro > Bacteriology - Exam 2 > Flashcards

Bacteriology - Exam 2 Flashcards

1
Q

bacteria basic characteristics

A

single cell, prokaryotic, no nucleus, binary fission, 70s ribosomal unit, classified by 16s

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2
Q

shapes for: cocci, bacillus, helical, curved, staph, strep

A

round, rod, spiral, coma, grape cluster, chain

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3
Q

gram positive bacteria

A

thick, lipoteichoic acid (antigenicity), stain blue

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4
Q

gram negative bacteria

A

thin, LPS (virulence), stain pink

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5
Q

mycobacteria contributes to

A

virulence

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6
Q

endotoxin

A

only gram negative, Lipid A component & polysaccharide component

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7
Q

Lipid A component of endotoxin contributes to

A

activation of immune system, harmful effects on host

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8
Q

polysaccharide component of endotoxin contributes to

A

antigenicity

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9
Q

acid fast positive stains

A

pink (mycolic acid)

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10
Q

acid fast negative stains

A

blue

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11
Q

monotrichous flagella

A

one end

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12
Q

amphitrichous flagella

A

both ends

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13
Q

lophotrichous flagella

A

multiple from one end

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14
Q

peritrichous flagella

A

all sides

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15
Q

endoflagella

A

from within, spirochetes

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16
Q

pili/fimbriae used for

A

adherence, antigenicity

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17
Q

K88

A

pig

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18
Q

K99

A

cow

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19
Q

capsule function

A

stick cells together, food reserve, protection, evade phagocytosis

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20
Q

endospore characteristics

A

gram positive, resistant, live even through bad conditions

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21
Q

examples of endospores

A

clostridium, bacillus

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22
Q

O2 required in

A

aerobic, microaerophilic, capnophilic

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23
Q

O2 utilized in

A

facultative anaerobes

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24
Q

O2 neither required NOR utilized in

A

obligate anaerobes or aerotolerant anaerobes

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25
Q

pathogen has the potential to

A

cause disease

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26
Q

7 host characteristics

A

breed, age, sex, genotype, immunity, physiology, damage

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27
Q

9 pathogen characteristics

A

type, genotype, survival, virulence, route, tropism, dose, resistance, vector

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28
Q

7 environment characteristics

A

housing, space, ventilation, hygiene, nutrition, disease control, survival

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29
Q

infection definition

A

invasion/multiplication in host/population

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30
Q

disease definition

A

infection causes damage to vital functions

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31
Q

5 examples of portals of entry

A

skin, mucous membranes, respiratory tract, GI tract, urogenital tract

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32
Q

exotoxin characteristics

A

proteins released to outside to specific target cells

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33
Q

endotoxin characteristics

A

gram negative, induce inflammation, heat stable

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34
Q

superantigen characteristics

A

made by viruses/mycoplasma/bacteria to bind to MHC II on antigen presenting cells & T helper cells to release cytokines

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35
Q

biofilm, quorum sensing, fimbrae, flagella, capsule increase

A

virulence (can carry genes for antibiotic resistance, movement, protection, etc.)

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36
Q

biofilm example

A

dental plaque

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37
Q

how does quorum sensing work

A

certain population reached -> change behavior -> ambush immune system

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38
Q

plasmids

A

small, circular DNA

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39
Q

examples of plasmids

A

tetanus & staph (superantigens)

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40
Q

bacteriophages

A

virus that attack bacteria

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41
Q

examples of bacteriophages

A

diphtheria, shiga, botulinum

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42
Q

virulence is the degree of

A

pathogenicity (+/- severity)

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43
Q

virulence transferred by conjugation

A

transfer genetic material through direct contact through pilus

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44
Q

virulence transferred by transformation

A

exogenous genetic material taken in

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45
Q

virulence transferred by transduction

A

DNA transferred between a bacteria & virus

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46
Q

obligate pathogen numbers, predisposition, virulence, disease type

A

numbers don’t matter, doesn’t need to be predisposed, very virulent, causes distinct disease

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47
Q

primary pathogen disease type

A

distinct

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48
Q

opportunity pathogen disease type

A

nonspecific

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49
Q

nonpathogen numbers, predisposition, virulence, disease type

A

lots of numbers, does need to be predisposed, virulence doesn’t matter, causes nonspecific disease

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50
Q

obligate intracellular pathogen needs

A

host to replicate

51
Q

example of obligate intracellular pathogen

A

Rickettsia, chlamydia

52
Q

facultative intracellular pathogen can survive

A

intra or extracellularly

53
Q

example of facultative intracellular pathogen

A

mycobacteria, rhodococcus

54
Q

6 steps pathogen takes to work

A

entry, evade defenses, colonize, multiply, cause damage, transmit to other hosts (infection)

55
Q

BSL

A

biosafety level, higher the number = higher the risk, 4 levels

56
Q

examples of gram positive bacteria

A

Strep pyogens, Staph aureus

57
Q

examples of gram negative bacteria

A

pasteurella multocida

58
Q

culture media types

A

broth, agar, PEA (gram positive), MacConkey (gram negative), Hektoen Enteric Agar (salmonella)

59
Q

PCR function

A

polymerase chain reaction; detects specific DNA using amplification and oligonucleotide primers, DNTP, taq polymerase, & target DNA

60
Q

examples of cell mediated specific immune responses

A

TB reaction, interferon gamma test

61
Q

how is agglutination used & why

A

screen for presence of antibodies by antigen being naturally present

62
Q

secondary humoral immune response will

A

produce more antibodies second time exposed

63
Q

antibody titer

A

higher antibody response = higher the titer

64
Q

11 ways to limit microbial growth

A

refrigeration, freezing, boiling, pasteurization, acidification, increase osmotic pressure (salt/sugar), O2 removal, drying, gamma irradiation, hydrostatic pressure, chemical additives

65
Q

8 methods of sterilization

A

moist heat (autoclave), dry heat, incineration, alcohol flame, gamma irradiation, UV light, membrane filtration, chemical

66
Q

antimicrobial function

A

destroy microbes, prevent multiplication/growth, natural, synthetic, or semisynthetic

67
Q

antibiotics function

A

inhibit/kill other microorganisms at lowest drug concentration possible

68
Q

natural antimicrobials

A

produced by bacteria/fungus

69
Q

examples of natural antimicrobials

A

tetracycline, streptomycin, penicillin

70
Q

synthetic antimicrobials

A

designed in lab

71
Q

examples of synthetic antimicrobials

A

sulfonamide, enrofloxacin, marbofloxacin

72
Q

examples semisynthetic antimicrobials

A

ampicillin, amikacin

73
Q

example of a macrolide

A

erythromycin

74
Q

example of beta lactam

A

penicillin

75
Q

example of aminoglycoside

A

gentamycin

76
Q

example of tetracycline

77
Q

cell wall synthesis inhibitors

A 
beta lactam (penicillin & ampicillin)
cephalosporins (carbapenem & monobactam)
78
Q

30s protein synthesis inhibitors

A

aminoglycosides (spectino, strepto, & gentamicin, amikacin)
tetracyclines (oxytetra, chlorte, nitrofurans)

79
Q

50s protein synthesis inhibitors

A

macrolides (erythro & azithromycin)
lincosamides (clindamycin)
chloramphenicol

80
Q

DNA synthesis inhibitors

A

mutations in DNA gyrase
Quinolones (nalidixic acid, Cipro & enrofloxacin, novobiocin)
metronidazole

81
Q

RNA synthesis inhibitor: Rifampin

A

inhibits RNA polymerase (transcription), active against mycobacterium

82
Q

RNA synthesis inhibitor: Mupirocin

A

inhibit tRNA synthetase (translation)

83
Q

folic acid synthesis inhibitors

A

competitive, uses dihydrofolate reductase

sulfonamides & trimethroprim

84
Q

4 types of broad spectrum antibiotics

A

tetracyclines, chloramphenicol, fluoroquinolones, cephalosporins

85
Q

bactericidal drugs

A

kills & reduces number

86
Q

bacteriostatic drugs

A

arrest growth & replication, helps immune system out

87
Q

AST 2 methods

A

“antimicrobial susceptibility testing”

disk diffusion/Kirby Bauer & broth dilution

88
Q

MIC

A

“minimum inhibitory concentration”

minimum amount drug needed to work

89
Q

SIR

A

susceptible (success)
intermediate (uncertain)
resistant (failure)

90
Q

innate resistance

A

preexisting

91
Q

acquired resistance

A

mutation/horizontal gene transfer

92
Q

opportunistic pathogens don’t

A

cause disease in a healthy host

93
Q

true pathogens have genes for

A

virulence (adherence, invasion, evasion)

94
Q

nosocomial infections

A

hospital acquired i.e.: MRSA, S aureus, clostridium difficile

95
Q

mastitis mainly caused by

A

Staph aureus, Strep pyogens, & Strep agalactiae/dysgalactiae

96
Q

dog dermatitis mainly caused by

A

Staph pseudintermedius

97
Q

greasy pig disease mainly caused by

A

Staph hyicus

98
Q

food poisoning mainly caused by

A

enterotoxin A-E

99
Q

strangles in horses mainly caused by

A

Strep equi subsp equi

100
Q

Bacillus anthracis

A

gram positive, endospores, exotoxins, capsules, dormant in soil, edema (neutrophil), lethal (zinc)

101
Q

diamond skin disease/swine erysipelas caused by

A

erysipelothrix rhusiopathiae

102
Q

caseous lymphadenitis (goat) caused by

A

corynebacterium pseudotuberculosis

103
Q

pyogranulomatous osteomyelitis (lumpy jaw, cows) caused by

A

actinomyces bovis

104
Q

mycobacterium tb complex

A

acid fast positive, facultative intracellular, tb in humans & cows

105
Q

Johne’s disease in cows caused by

A

M. avium subsp paratuberculosis

106
Q

listeria monocytogenes characteristics

A

food borne, actin filaments, facultative intracellular

107
Q

listeria monocytogenes causes

A

septicemia, abortion, meningoencephalitis in cows/goats

108
Q

tetanus/lock jaw caused by

A

clostridium tetani

109
Q

flaccid paralysis in horses caused by

A

clostridium botulinum

110
Q

gram negative bacteria enterobacteriaceae found in

A

H2O, soil, GI tract

111
Q

examples of enterobacteriaceae

A

E. coli, klebsiella, enterobacter

112
Q

E. coli causes

A 
neonatal colisepticemia (calves)
edema disease (piglets)
hemorrhagic enteritis (humans)
hemolytic uremic syndrome & kidney failure
113
Q

salmonella causes

A

gastroenteritis & systemic diseases

114
Q

salmonella dublin, typhi, enteritidis

A

cows, humans, chicken

115
Q

what causes fibronecrotic pneumonia in pigs

A

actinobacillus

116
Q

what causes shipping fever pneumonia in cattle

A

pasteurella multocida & mannheimmia hemolytica

117
Q

what does brucellosis do

A

affects reproductive system, use macrophages, zoonotic through raw milk

118
Q

4 species of Brucellosis

A

abortus, melitensis, suis, canis

119
Q

what causes kennel cough in dogs & atrophic rhinitis in swine

A

bordetella bronchiseptica

120
Q

what does leptospirosis do

A

lives in kidney (yellow) tubules, zoonotic via urine, spirochete

121
Q

lyme disease caused by

A

borrelia burgdorferi

122
Q

mycoplasma characteristics

A

no cell wall/peptidoglycan/staining, self replication, pneumonia in humans, bovis- pneumonia & joint arthritis in cows

123
Q

anaplasma & ehrlichia caused by

A

rickettsiales (obligate intracellular, tick borne)

Micro (11 decks)

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