Exam 1 Flashcards

1
Q

Nutrition definition: utilization of foods by living organisms for _______. (5)

A

growth, reproduction, production, performance, and maintenance of health

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2
Q

What are nutrients?

A

substances and/or qualities of foods required for life, growth, maintenance, and repair of body tissues

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3
Q

What are the 2 broad groups of nutrients?

A

organic compounds
inorganic elements

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4
Q

Examples of nutrients as classes of substances (4)

A

Fiber
Energy
Omega-3 fatty acids
Vitamin A

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5
Q

What “nutrient” class of substances is = bioavailable chemical bond energy in organic substances?

A

energy

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6
Q

What “nutrient” class of substances is = many substances that are variably water soluble + fermentable by GI tract microbes?

A

fiber

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7
Q

What “nutrient” class of substance is = fatty acid w/ double bond between 3rd & 4th carbons from methyl terminus?

A

omega-3 fatty acids

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8
Q

What “nutrient” class of substance is = organic substances that have varying vitamin A activity?

A

Vitamin A

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9
Q

What is an “essential nutrient”?

A

substance required for life that can’t be synthesized or synthesized in sufficient amount

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10
Q

A “conditionally-essential nutrient” is a substance that is essential under certain conditions such as ____ or ____.

A

physiological stage or disease state

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11
Q

What are the 6 essential nutrients for most animals?

A
  1. water
  2. energy
  3. amino acids
  4. minerals
  5. vitamins
  6. fatty acids
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12
Q

What is the essential nutrient with the greatest mass of daily intake?

A

water

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13
Q

Which essential nutrient has the greatest mass of a diet when water is not considered?

A

energy

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14
Q

Which nutrient is half essential, half conditionally-essential and in about 20 diets?

A

amino acids

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15
Q

Which essential nutrient is classified by quantity of dietary requirement?

A

minerals

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16
Q

List a few examples of macrominerals

A

Ca, P, K, Cl, Na, Mg, S

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17
Q

List a few examples of trace or microminerals

A

zinc, iron, manganese, copper, molybdenum, iodine, selenium, cobalt, chromium

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18
Q

Which essential nutrient is an organic compound with low concentration that are variably provided in foods and broadly classified by solubilities?

A

vitamins

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19
Q

What are the 2 classes of vitamins?

A

fat soluble vitamins
water soluble vitamins

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20
Q

Which vitamins are fat soluble?

A

vitamins A, D, E, K

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21
Q

Which vitamins are water soluble?

A

thiamin, riboflavin, niacin, biotic, folic acid, pantothenic acid, B6, B12, C

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22
Q

Which essential nutrient is most abundantly in diet esterified in triacylglycerol?

A

fatty acids

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23
Q

2 categories of fatty acids

A

Omega-6 or n6 series
Omega-3 or n-3 series

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24
Q

Which category of fatty acids are a-linolenic acid, EPA, DHA in?

A

omega-3 or n-3 series

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25
Q

Which category of fatty acids are linoleic acid and arachidonic acid in?

A

omega-6 or n-6 series

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26
Q

Nutrients must be provided in proper _____ and _____ relative to one another.

A

amounts
proportions

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27
Q

Deficiency (too little), excess (too much), or disproportion of nutrients = _______.

A

malnutrition

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28
Q

Nutrient amount and proportion needs to vary with ______ and _____.

A

physiological state
diseased states

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29
Q

What are 4 examples of physiological state important for varying nutrient amount & proportion?

A
  1. growth
  2. maintenance
  3. gestation
  4. lactation
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30
Q

What is “a concept of animal response to nutrient intake”?

A

optimal nutrition

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31
Q

For optimal nutrition, nutrients are provided in amounts of proportions that optimize a ______ or ______ important response.

A

physiologically
economically

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32
Q

The Nutrient-Animal Response Relationship Curve has ______ on the x-axis and ______ on the y-axis.

A

concentration of a nutrient
animal response

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33
Q

What is the portion of the Nutrient-Animal Response Relationship Curve when the response variable increases with increasing nutrient concentration?

A

deficiency range

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34
Q

The deficiency range of the nutrient-animal response relationship curve indicates the diet has ______.

A

too little nutrient

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35
Q

What is the part of the Nutrient-Animal Response Relationship curve where the response variable increases with increasing nutrient amount, but with diminishing returns with further increases in nutrient amount?

A

suboptimal range

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36
Q

(T/F) The suboptimal range of the nutrient-animal response relationship curve is never desired for companion animals.

A

False - condition usually not desired

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37
Q

Suboptimal range sometimes is sought for _____ or _____.

A

health or economy

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38
Q

What is the part of the nutrient-animal response relationship curve where the response does not change with increasing nutrient amount?

A

optimal range

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39
Q

What is the part of the nutrient-animal response relationship curve where the response decreases with increasing nutrient amount?

A

excess range

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40
Q

Which condition is usually desired on the nutrient-animal response relationship?

A

optimal range

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41
Q

Excess of a nutrient may cause _____ of another?

A

deficiency

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42
Q

Determining optimal nutrient concentration can be difficult because why?

A
  1. more than one response variable can determine the optimal nutrient amount
  2. body reserves of nutrient affect response to dietary concentration
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43
Q

What is “nutrient requirement”?

A

minimum dietary amount of highly bioavailable nutrient that optimizes a response important to physiological function

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44
Q

What term means “readily obtained from diet for use in tissues”?

A

bioavailable

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45
Q

A highly bioavailable nutrient is efficiently _____ and ____.

A

digested
absorbed

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46
Q

A nutrient requirement varies with _______.

A

physiological state

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47
Q

Nutrient requirements for lactation are usually (greater than / less than) nutrient requirement for growth.

A

greater than

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48
Q

What is the “minimum dietary amount of a nutrient that should be presented in practical formulation that maintains health”?

A

nutrient allowance

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49
Q

Nutrient allowance is for ____, not a single response variable.

A

health

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50
Q

Nutrient allowance is typically (greater than / less than) its corresponding nutrient requirement.

A

greater than

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51
Q

(T/F) Nutrient requirement = nutrient allowance + safety factor.

A

False: nutrient allowance = nutrient requirement + safety factor

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52
Q

Why is a safety factor used in determining nutrient allowance? (4)

A
  1. bioavailability < 100%
  2. nutrient content of ingredients varies
  3. individuals vary in ability to assimilate nutrients
  4. nutrient requirements are extrapolated across species
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53
Q

Shortfalls of nutrient allowances (regarding safety factors) (3)

A
  1. SFs theoretical, not empirical
  2. SFs based on incorrect assumptions (bioavailability & nutrient contents in ingredients)
  3. SFs don’t account for dietary interactions that affect bioavailability
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54
Q

(T/F) There is no one best diet or food for any animal species.

A

True (many combos can suffice)

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55
Q

(T/F) Knowing nutrient composition of any diet with complete certainty is simple.

A

False - difficult

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56
Q

What are 3 useful estimates of dietary nutrient composition?

A
  1. proximate analysis
  2. guaranteed analysis
  3. average nutrient content
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57
Q

Proximate analysis is also known as _____.

A

Wende Analysis

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58
Q

Proximate analysis is a __________ of dietary nutritional value, used by regulators.

A

crude estimation

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59
Q

What 6 physical-chemical characteristics are used for Proximate Analysis?

A
  1. moisture
  2. crude fat
  3. crude fiber
  4. ash
  5. crude protein
  6. nitrogen free extract (NFE)
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60
Q

What is a good estimate of water content of a diet?

A

moisture

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61
Q

What is a rough estimate of dietary fat?

A

crude fat

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62
Q

What is a rough estimate of dietary fiber?

A

crude fiber

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63
Q

What is a rough estimate of dietary mineral content?

A

ash

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64
Q

What is a rough estimate of protein content in a diet?

A

crude protein

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65
Q

What is a rough estimate of the digestible carbohydrate content of a diet?

A

nitrogen free extract (NFE)

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66
Q

Nitrogen free extract is the weight of “as is” (plus/minus) the sum of weights of moisture, crude fat, crude fiber, ash, and crude protein.

A

minus

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67
Q

What is “a listing of proximate analysis results” and other assay results ‘guaranteed’ by the manufacturer”?

A

guaranteed analysis

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68
Q

Guaranteed analysis is of value but limited because results of the “analysis” are: (3)

A
  1. minimums or maximums
  2. often incomplete listings
  3. derived from proximate analysis
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69
Q

What is better than proximate and guaranteed analyses for assessing nutritional adequacy?

A

average nutrient content

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70
Q

The bulk of ___ is used for fulfilling an animal’s need for energy.

A

dietary dry matter weight

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71
Q

What is the primary cost of feeding animals?

A

provision energy

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72
Q

What is the variable of primary importance of deciding how much diet is to be fed?

A

energy

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73
Q

All nutrients much be provided in proper _____ to dietary energy.

A

proportion

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74
Q

(T/F) Animals eat for a sensed deficiency of other nutrients like proteins, minerals, or vitamins.

A

False!

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75
Q

Why do animals eat?

A

for energy

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76
Q

What does the energy density of a diet determine?

A

whether concentration of a nutrient in a diet is adequate

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77
Q

4 ways the energy value of diets are quantified (4)

A
  1. calorie
  2. kilocalorie
  3. megacalorie
  4. joule
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78
Q

What is “the amount of heat required to raise the temp of 1g of water from 14.5 to 15.5 C.

A

calorie

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79
Q

(T/F) The calorie is too small for general use in nutrition.

A

True!

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80
Q

What is the standard abbreviation for kilocalorie? How many calories are in a kilocalorie?

A

kcal
1000 calories

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81
Q

How many kilocalories are in a megacalorie?

A

1000 kcal

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82
Q

What is the “international standard energy unit”?

A

joule

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83
Q

What 4 systems are used to measure diet energy content?

A
  1. gross energy (GE)
  2. digestible energy (DE)
  3. metabolizable energy (ME)
  4. net energy (NE)
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84
Q

What is the energy value of a diet estimated from heat released from complete combustion in oxygen atmosphere?

A

gross energy

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85
Q

Gross energy represents a theoretical ________ energy that can be obtained from a foodstuff.

A

maximum possible

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86
Q

Gross energy can be estimated without a bomb calorimeter by using assumed _______ for protein, fat, and carbohydrate.

A

average gross energy values

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87
Q

Crude protein gross energy value (GE)

A

5.65

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88
Q

Crude fat gross energy value (GE)

A

9.40

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89
Q

Carbohydrate (nitrogen free extract) gross energy value (GE)

A

4.15

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90
Q

(T/F) The gross energy of a food gives little information of the actual energy available to an animal.

A

True

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91
Q

Digestive Energy =

A

DE = gross energy of food minus gross energy of feces

DE = GEfood - GEfeces

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92
Q

Digestible energy is sometimes termed _____ because feces contain more than undigested food.

A

apparent digestible energy

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93
Q

Digestible energy calculation accounts for _______.

A

digestibility of protein/fat/carb
uses “digestibility coefficients”

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94
Q

Digestibility coefficient of crude protein

A

0.861

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95
Q

Digestibility coefficient of crude fat

A

0.951

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96
Q

Digestibility coefficient of carbohydrate

A

0.764

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97
Q

What is the definition / equation for Metabolizable Energy (ME)?

A

ME = gross energy food minus gross energy feces/urine/combustible gases

ME = GEfood - (GEfeces + GEurine + GEgases)

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98
Q

Why can’t all energy in food be used in metabolic processes? (2)

A
  1. some chemical bond energy lost in urine
  2. some food energy lost in fermentation by microbes
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99
Q

What two combustible gases can some chemical bond energy in food be lost from?

A

methane
hydrogen

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100
Q

Which species does substantial microbial fermentation occur in?

A

ruminants
those with extensive post-gastric fermentation

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101
Q

Metabolizable energy values are also known as ________ and are assigned to protein, fat, and carbohydrate.

A

physiological fuel values

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102
Q

Crude protein physiological fuel value

A

3.5

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103
Q

Crude fat physiological fuel value

A

8.5

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104
Q

Carbohydrate physiological fuel value

A

3.5

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105
Q

Metabolizable energy values assigned to protein/fat/carb for human diets are (greater/less) than those for dog/cat diets because digestion coefficients of dog/cat are assumed to be (more/less) than human food.

A

greater
less

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106
Q

Metabolizable energy values of protein/fat/NFE are also known as __________.

A

modified atwater factors

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107
Q

The total digestible nutrient system provides energy index value for diets for what kind of animals?

A

herbivores

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108
Q

Total digestible nutrient system (TDN) estimates in terms of _______-equivalent energy.

A

carbohydrate

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109
Q

Total digestible nutrient system usually (underestimates/overestimates) available energy.

A

overestimates

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110
Q

What two energy types are usually overestimated in Total Digestible Nutrient System?

A

carbohydrate energy
fiber energy

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111
Q

The Net Energy (NE) of a diet was developed for estimation of energy requirement in growing animals, particular in ______.

A

cattle

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112
Q

How does the Net Energy (NE) differ from Metabolizable Energy (ME)?

A

subtracts heat increment
(energy loss in heat)

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113
Q

Heat increment (used in Net Energy) is also called ______.

A

specific dynamic action

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114
Q

Heat increment varies based on what?

A

physiological state

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115
Q

(T/F) Heat increment for maintenance is greater than gain.

A

False - gain > maintenance

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116
Q

What state is “when body mass & energy content is constant”?

A

maintenance state

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117
Q

(T/F) In the Maintenance State: energy of food is completely utilized (no net storage or loss) and all energy released from food is released as heat.

A

True

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118
Q

What is “the amount of energy required to sustain the maintenance state”?

A

maintenance energy requirement (MER)

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119
Q

MER (maintenance energy requirement) is a sum of what 4 categories?

A
  1. heat increment
  2. basal metabolism
  3. physical activity
  4. body temp regulation
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120
Q

Heat increment is energy used in _____, _____, and ______ of food.

A

digestion
assimilation
metabolism

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121
Q

Heat increment of ruminants is (small/large) and (greater/less) than 30% of the MER.

A

large
greater

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122
Q

Due to the heat increment, feeding ruminants is (advantageous/hindrance) in cold temps, while (advantageous/hindrance) in warm temps.

A

advantageous
hindrance

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123
Q

What is the largest component of MER (maintenance energy requirement)?

A

basal metabolism

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124
Q

Basal metabolism is mostly processes of _______.

A

cellular maintenance

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125
Q

What term refers to “the energy need/use of basal metabolism”?

A

basal metabolic rate (BMR)

126
Q

What 4 conditions is BMR determined from?

A
  1. post-adsorptive state
  2. awake
  3. at rest
  4. thermoneutral environment
127
Q

BMR = __ x Mkg^__.

A

BMR = 70 x Mkg^0.75 (kcal/day)

128
Q

BMR on a per kilogram basis (increases/decreases) as animal body mass (increases/decreases).

A

decreases
increases

129
Q

What is a commonly use approximation of BMR?

A

resting energy requirement (RER)

130
Q

Because most hospitalized animals are minimally active and not eating much, what equation is used to estimate RER (resting energy requirement)?

A

BER equation
RER (~=BMR) = 70 x Mkg^0.75 (kcal/day)

131
Q

For animals between ___ and ___ kg, a common linear transformation of RER equation is used.

A

2 & 45

132
Q

What is the linear transformation of RER equation used for animals 2 to 45 kg?

A

RER = 30 x Mkg + 70 (kcal/day)

133
Q

(T/F) Energy of physical activity is variable in animals at the maintenance state.

A

True

134
Q

What are 2 examples of thermal regulation in cold environments?

A

shivering & non-shivering thermogenesis

135
Q

What are 3 examples of thermal regulation in hot environments?

A

panting
gular fluttering
sweating

136
Q

Using body weight, an equation is calculated using a(n) _______ to estimate MER. (MER = RER x ______).

A

activity factor

137
Q

Activity factor for neutered adult dogs

A

1.6

138
Q

Activity factor for intact adult dogs

A

1.8

139
Q

Activity factor for inactive/obese prone adult dogs

A

1.2 - 1.4

140
Q

Activity factor for neutered adult cats

A

1.2 - 1.4

141
Q

Activity factor for intact adult cats

A

1.4 - 1.6

142
Q

Activity factor for inactive/obese prone adult cats

A

1.0

143
Q

Adult ______s for which MER is unknown, MER is roughly twice RER.

A

mammals
MER = RER x ~2

144
Q

(T/F) Great variation is observed in MER within populations of animals.

A

True

145
Q

Variation in MER within populations of animals is due to ______ and ______ differences.

A

activity & energy efficiency

146
Q

Growth is more energetically demanding than maintenance because:

A

support current body tissues +
expand body tissue mass

147
Q

Energy requirement for growth varies with ______.

A

maturity

148
Q

MER during weaning

A

2.0

149
Q

MER at 40% grown

A

1.6

150
Q

MER at 80% grown

A

1.2

151
Q

(T/F) DERgrowth (daily energy requirement during growth) requires re-estimation depending on body condition.

A

True

152
Q

What two things are more energetically demanding than maintenance and growth?

A

gestation + lactation

153
Q

Why are gestationlactation more energetically demanding than maintenance/growth? (2)

A
  1. energy put into products
  2. energy expended in making of products
154
Q

DERgestation of dogs does not need to increases much above MER until _____.

A

last third of gestation

155
Q

(T/F) DERgestation of cats increases substantially from conception to gestation.

A

False - linear!

156
Q

Which physiological state has the most demanding daily energy requirement?

A

lactation

157
Q

DERlactation greatly increases with increasing ______.

A

litter size

158
Q

For determining DER during pregnancy, use a multiplier of MER depending on _______.

A

gestational stage

159
Q

For determining DER during lactation, use a multiplier of MER depending on ______.

A

litter size

160
Q

The energy requirement in illness/injury is often (lower/higher) than MER.

A

lower

161
Q

(T/F) The energy requirement in most illness/injury states “initially” should be assumed to be no more than RER.

A

True

162
Q

____ can be used to estimate ideal weight for overweight patients.

A

RER

163
Q

Purina 9-point BCS: what percent of body fat does a patient have from score 5/9-9/9?

A

5/9: 20%
6/9: 25%
7/9: 30%
8/9: 35%
9/9: 40%

164
Q

When can patients be fed above RER (still not greater than preg/lactation/growth)?

A

very severe injury

165
Q

The increase in energy requirement in severe injury is usually only as great as ____.

A

MER

166
Q

(T/F) Underfeeding patients can be worse than overfeeding.

A

FALSE - overfeeding can be worse

167
Q

Why can overfeeding be worse than underfeeding?

A
  1. regurg/V+/D+ (feeding tube/catheter)
  2. metabolic derangements
168
Q

What are a few examples of metabolic derangements that can occur with overfeeding of patients?

A

hypokalemia
metabolic acidosis
hyperglycemia
over-hydration

169
Q

Which type of animal are carbs essential? Which are mostly non-essential?

A

herbivores
dogs/cats

170
Q

Bioavailable carbohydrate is (less/more) expensive energy than protein/fat.

A

less

171
Q

Bioavailable carbohydrate is substituted for fat/protein in some diets for what purpose?

A

therapeutic diets to manage disease

172
Q

Bioavailable carbohydrate is conditionally essential in dogs when ____ is marginal.

A

dietary protein

173
Q

(T/F) Bioavailable carbohydrate is conditionally essential in cats when protein is marginal.

A

False - not nutritionally essential

174
Q

When dietary protein is low, what are 2 benefits for carbohydrate in cat diets during lactation?

A
  1. reduce lactational weight loss
  2. reduce mobilization of protein in lactation
175
Q

3 types of commercial dog/cat foods with carbohydrate

A
  1. extruded/expanded dry (kibble)
  2. semi-moist
  3. canned/wet
176
Q

Kibble/dry-type diets contained >30% carbohydrate as _____.

A

starch

177
Q

Extrusion of dry diet types requires that ingredients contain sufficient starch to form _______?

A

gelatinized-dough

178
Q

What are two reasons carbohydrates are used in semi-moist diets?

A

preservatives
humectants

179
Q

Two examples of carbohydrates in semi-moist diet?

A

sucrose
high-fructose corn syrup

180
Q

(T/F) Propylene glycol is a non-carbohydrate humectant alternative for dog and cat foods.

A

False - NOT in cat food!

181
Q

Propylene glycol induces oxidative damage in ______ of cats and causes what disease?

A

RBCs
Heinz bodies / anemia

182
Q

(T/F) Canned cat food but not dog food is typically low in carbohydrate.

A

True

183
Q

Saccharides are carbohydrates that are made of what two chemical compoounds?

A

polyhydroxy aldehydes
ketones

184
Q

Carbohydrates are (first/second) reaction derivatives.

A

first

185
Q

What is an example of a first reaction derivate of carbohydrate which is a phosphate-containing saccharide found in cereal brans?

A

phytates

186
Q

Phytates substantially bind _____.

A

cations

187
Q

4 types of carbohydate polymers

A

monosaccharides
disaccharides
oligosaccharides
polysaccharides

188
Q

3 important monosaccharides

A

hexoses (glucose, fructose, galactose)

189
Q

3 important disaccharides

A

lactose
sucrose
lactulose

190
Q

What type of carb polymer has 3 to 10 monosaccharides?

A

oligosaccharide

191
Q

Two examples of oligosaccharides

A

raffinose
stachyose

192
Q

Two main classes of polysaccharides

A

starches
fibers

193
Q

3 examples of starches

A

amylose
amylopectin
glycogen

194
Q

4 examples of fibers (polysaccharide)

A

hemicellulose
cellulose
pectins
gums

195
Q

Chemical structure of lactose (linkage + 2 molecules)

A

B 1,4 linked glucose + galactose

196
Q

What disaccharide is not readily digested in adults?

A

lactose

197
Q

Chemical structure of lactulose (linkage + 2 molecules)

A

B 1,4 linked galactose + fructose

198
Q

Which disaccharide is the primary carb in milk?

A

lactose

199
Q

Lactose contributes to ____ and ____ of milk.

A

energy
osmolarity

200
Q

What species does not digest lactose?

A

birds

201
Q

Why is lactose not readily digested in adults?

A

animals have alpha 1,4 linkages that are digested, while lactose has B 1,4

202
Q

Which disaccharide is used clinically and not absorbed/digested/hydrolyzed by mammalian enzymes?

A

lactulose

203
Q

Sucrose chemical structure (linkage + 2 molecules)

A

a 1,4 linked glucose + fructose

204
Q

(T/F) Cats are indifferent to sucrose/sweet substances.

A

True

205
Q

If sucrose is too high, cats can develop _____.

A

fructosuria

206
Q

Which disaccharide has a positive effect on the acceptability of food and digested by dogs & cats but can cause dental cavities?

A

sucrose

207
Q

Starch chemical structure (linkage + molecules)

A

a 1,4 + 1,6 linkages of glucose

208
Q

Starch can be in straight chains (_____) or chains with branches (______).

A

amylose
amylopectin

209
Q

______ occur in semicrystalline granules that are variably resistance to _____.

A

plant starches
digestion

210
Q

______ cause gelatinizing of starch granules which increases ____ of starches.

A

high moisture/heat
digestibility

211
Q

What is “a proteinacous by-product starch extraction from grains?

A

gluten

212
Q

Glutens have (low/high) water solubility but structure varies with grain.

A

low

213
Q

(T/F) Wheat gluten is often associated with food hypersensitivity in dogs.

A

False - rarely

214
Q

Why are plant starches not well tolerated in neonates?

A

lack sufficient amylase activity to readily utilize starch

215
Q

Which polysaccharide is densely packed, water-insoluble material in plant cell wall fibrils?

A

cellulose

216
Q

Cellulose chemical structure + molecule

A

B 1,4 linkages of glucose

217
Q

Cellulose’s structure prevents digestion by ____ enzymes

A

animal

218
Q

_______ slowly ferment cellulose

A

GI microbes

219
Q

Why can microbes ferment cellulose while they cannot be digested by animal enzymes?

A

microbes produce B 1,4 glucosidases unlike animals

220
Q

Organic acids from cellulose by microbes fermentation are a substantial energy source for what kinds of animals?

A

ruminants
post-gastric fermenters

221
Q

Which polysaccharide is chemically/structurally different from cellulose with 50 to 200 units in length with branching?

A

hemicellulose

222
Q

Hemicellulose is (soluble/insoluble) in water and (can/cannot) be digested by animals.

A

insoluble
cannot

223
Q

Which polysaccharide is found in plants but DOES provide good water solubility (unlike cellulose/hemicellulose)?

A

pectins + gums

224
Q

Which polysaccharide is a water-insoluble polymer of amino sugars found in fungi, yeast, and invertebrates?

A

chitin

225
Q

(T/F) Chitin is not digested by animals but fermented by GI microbes.

A

True

226
Q

What substance is “structurally diverse, considered to be remnants of edible plant cells including polysaccharides, lignin, other substances resistant to digestion by animal host”?

A

dietary fiber

227
Q

What are 3 examples of non-polysaccharide dietary fibers?

A

lignin
cutins & suberins

228
Q

What dietary fiber gives a “woody” quality to plants and water insoluble?

A

lignin

229
Q

(T/F) Lignin cannot be digested by host OR GI microbes.

A

True

230
Q

What dietary fibers give “waxy” qualities to plants?

A

cutins + suberins

231
Q

What non-polysaccharide dietary fiber is polyfunctional phenol polymers infiltrated through cellulose of plant cells?

A

lignin

232
Q

3 properties of dietary fiber

A
  1. not digested by host
  2. variably water soluble
  3. variably fermentable by GI microbes
233
Q

4 uses of dietary fiber in dogs/cats

A
  1. weight reduction
  2. treat chronic diarrhea
  3. up fecal bulk/moisture
  4. manage diabetes mellitus
234
Q

Term for “categorical reference to lipid in food”

A

fat

235
Q

Term for “food lipids that are liquid at room temperature”

A

oils

236
Q

Term for “food lipids are that solid at room temperature”

A

fats

237
Q

Food lipids are (soluble/insoluble) in organic solvents.

A

soluble (ex. ether)

238
Q

Most dietary fat is _______ (structure)

A

triacyglycerol

239
Q

_____ is the largest body store of triacylglycerol.

A

adipose

240
Q

Lipid structure

A

glycerol backbone + fatty acid chains

241
Q

The functional importance of dietary fats is provision of ______ and _____.

A

energy and nutrients

242
Q

Fat has ____ times more ______ energy than protein & carbohydrate on a weight basis.

A

2.25
metabolizable

243
Q

Fat is used to increase dietary energy ______ for certain conditions.

A

density

244
Q

Fat increases energy density/mass of diet for what conditions?

A

lactation, growth, physical performance
clinical conditions (assisted feeding, can’t chew, aged horses)

245
Q

2 essential fatty acids that dietary fat provides

A

omega-6 & omega-3 fatty acids

246
Q

Dietary fat is essential for absorption of some ______.

A

vitamins

247
Q

Which vitamins are fat-soluble?

A

A, D, E, K

248
Q

Reason fat is used that is non-essential

A

feed palatability modifier

249
Q

A positive palatant for dogs/cats is fat of (plant/animal) origin.

A

animal (NOT plant)

250
Q

(T/F) Fat of animal origin is more expensive than carbohydrate.

A

True

251
Q

What undesired effect is promoted by fat of animal origin?

A

weight gain

252
Q

(T/F) Fat use is abundant and useful in ruminants.

A

False - limited inclusion but useful

253
Q

Basis for lower limit of dietary fat is ____ to ___% dietary dry weight.

A

2 to 5

254
Q

(T/F) Essential fats are polyunsaturated.

A

True

255
Q

What does fat reduce in ruminant diets that makes it useful?

A

dustiness (improves diet + energy intake)

256
Q

Fat in ruminant diets is reduced to ___ to ___% because of depression of what?

A

5 to 7
rumen microflora

257
Q

How many carbons are present in essential fatty acids?

A

18 carbons or longer

258
Q

Essential fatty acids are identified by their _____ length and position/number of ______.

A

chain length
double bonds

259
Q

Saturated fatty acids have ____ double bond(s) and monounsaturated fatty acids have ___ double bond(s).

A

no
1

260
Q

Term for “fatty acids with two or more double bonds”

A

polyunsaturated fatty acids (PUFAs)

261
Q

The numbers after the delta symbol in chemical numbering system are positions of double bonds counting from and including the _______ of the fatty acid.

A

carboxyl carbon

262
Q

What 2 numbering systems do nutritionists use for fats?

A

omega
methyl-end

263
Q

The first number in chemical numbering systems indicate the number of _____. The number after the colon is number of _____.

A

carbons
double bonds

264
Q

(T/F) Animals have desaturases that can introduce double bonds beyond 9 carbons from carboxyl end of fatty acid.

A

FALSE - do not have

265
Q

Animal don’t have desaturases that can introduce double bonds beyond __ carbons from the _____ end.

A

9
carboxyl end

266
Q

Term for “enzymes that introduce double bonds”

A

desaturases

267
Q

A (cis/trans) isomer of desaturases is formed in animals.

A

cis (NOT trans)

268
Q

Animals have physiological needs for ___ carbons and greater fatty acids with double bonds at the ___ or ___ positions.

A

18
n-3 (or w-3)
n-6 (or w-6)

269
Q

(T/F) Animals can synthesize 18 carbons with greater fatty acids with double bonds at the n-3 and n-6 positions.

A

FALSE - cannot synthesize!

270
Q

Animals can synthesize fatty acids up to ___ carbons in length.

A

16

271
Q

(T/F) Animals can elongate essential and non-essential fatty acids from carboxyl end up to 24 carbons in length.

A

True

272
Q

What enzymes do animals use to elongate fatty acids?

A

elongases

273
Q

What are the 3 essential fatty acids?

A

linoleic acid
arachidonic acid
omega-3 series fatty acids

274
Q

Which essential fatty acid is required in the largest amount in diet?

A

linoleic acid

275
Q

Chemical number of Linoleic Acid

A

C18:2w6 or C18:2n6

276
Q

Which essential fatty acid is in many vegetable oils and fat from animals eating vegetable sources?

A

linoleic acid

277
Q

Arachidonic acid chemical number

A

20:4w6 or 20:4n6

278
Q

Which essential nutrient is essential for cats? Why?

A

arachidonic acid
lack delta-6 desaturase

279
Q

Which essential fatty acid is “conditionally-essential” nutrient in neonates of some species?

A

arachidonic acid

280
Q

Why are cats distinguished as obligate carnivores?

A

arachidonic acid does not occur in plants

281
Q

3 essential fatty acids in the omega-3 series

A

a-linolenic acid
docosahexaenoic acid
eicosapentaenoic

282
Q

What omega-3 series essential fatty acid is NOT found in plants?

A

docosahexaenoic acid

283
Q

(T/F) It’s unclear if a-linolenic acid is essential nutrient apart from being a precursor to DHA & EPA.

A

True

284
Q

Which acid is obtained mostly from plants and a precursor to DHA & EPA?

A

a-linolenic acid

285
Q

Chemical number for a-linolenic acid

A

18:3w3

286
Q

DHA + EPA synthesis from ALA are (slow/fast) in adults and nearly ____ in cats

A

slow
absent

287
Q

(T/F) DHA + EPA synthesis from ALA are (adequate/inadequate) in neonates.

A

inadequate

288
Q

(T/F) a-linolenic acid, DHA, EPA, are added to milk replacers.

A

False: ALA not, DHA/EPA variably added

289
Q

Docosahexaenoic acid chemical number

A

22:6w3 or 22:6n3

290
Q

Which omega-3 series essential fatty acid is in mammalian brain/retina?

A

docosahexaenoic acid

291
Q

The highest demand for docosahexaenoic acid is during what?

A

expansion of brain mass (young developing animals)

292
Q

What two essential fatty acids are abundant in marine animals, especially oils?

A

DHA + EPA

293
Q

Eicosapentaenoic acid chemical number

A

20:5w3 or 20:5n3

294
Q

3 main body uses of essential fatty acids

A
  1. lipoprotein synthesis
  2. reproduction
  3. brain function (brain mass)
295
Q

________ are 20-carbon bioactive compounds that are important for cell structure & signaling.

A

eicosanoids

296
Q

3 essential fatty acid deficiencies

A
  1. linoleic acid def
  2. n-3 FA deficiency
  3. arachidonic acid def.
297
Q

Signs of linoleic acid deficiency (growth, skin, blood, metabolism)

A

decreased growth
testicles degenerate & anestrus
scaly skin
anemia/fragile RBCs
decreased energy efficiency

298
Q

2 signs of n-3 FA deficiency

A

brain & sensory system dysfunction

299
Q

2 signs of arachidonic acid deficiency (growth + reproduction

A

reduced growth rate
queen cannot maintain pregnancy

300
Q

For dogs & cats, ___ to ___% of dietary metabolizable energy is recommended for dietary fat.

A

25 - 35

301
Q

“Low fat” diet = (</>) ___% ME.

A

< 25%

302
Q

“Hight fat” diet = (</>) ___% ME.

A

> 35% ME

303
Q

Steps in calculation of dietary fat content estimate (3)

A
  1. crude fat x physiological fuel value
  2. divide by ME content
  3. multiply by 100 (percentage)
304
Q

w6 & w3 fatty acids compete as substrates for lipid mediators important to what 2 processes?

A

cellular synthesis
signaling pathways

305
Q

w6 “family”

A

linoleic acid + arachidonic acid

306
Q

w3 “family”

A

a-linoleic acid + EPA + DHA

307
Q

(T/F) Some eicosanoid derivatives from arachidonic acid have different bioactivities than some eicosanoid derivatives from EPA.

A

True

308
Q

(High/low) ratio of w6 to w3 fatty acids in diets is suboptimal.

A

both

309
Q

What 3 ways is manipulation of w3:w6 ratio used for management of disease?

A
  1. fish oils w/ DHA + EPA lowers ratio
  2. low ratio = reduce inflammation (osteoarthritis diets)
  3. low ratio = modulate renal blood flow (chronic renal failure diets)
310
Q

(T/F) Too much fish oil is detrimental.

A

True - loose stool, coagulopathy